Majority
Headnote
Where a bill of sale of goods, and a lease, absolute on its face, is executed to secure a previous debt, and the vendee executes a stipulation back, providing that the vendor shall have a certain time to pay the amount, and that the vendor shall retain undisturbed possession of the goods until the expiration of the time for payment:Clearly, the plaintiff" is entitled to the relief he solicits. The bill of sale and the stipulation being executed at the same time, between the same parties, in relation to the same subject matter, and in contemplation of the same object, constitute but a single contract; and thus it appears that by his own agreement, the defendant has renounced the right of possession under his bill of sale, and has secured possession of the chattels to the plaintiff" until the expiration of the stipulated period. I am at a loss to conceive by what right the defendant can claim possession in defiance of his own solemn stipulation, conceding that by the bill of sale the property in the goods passed to the defendant, yet he was not to have possession until the 1st of January. .The transaction is in effect a chattel mortgage. Indeed, in terms it fulfils all the conditions of a mortgage, there being a transfer by way of security, and a contingency on which the transfer should become void: viz., payment of the debt. Meanwhile, the vendee (mortgagee) assents that the vendor ("mortgagor) shall remain in possession until, default. Upon what principle, until that default, can the vendee claim possession of the goods ? It is familiar learning, that if the mortgagor be disturbed in his possession before condition broken, he may bring trover or trespass against the mortgagee. Thus the rules of law no less than his own express agreement operate to prevent the defendant usurping possession before he has the right of possession. The mere statement of his claim exhibits its absurdity. It can scarcely