PART 1 General Provisions
TITLE A General Purposes, Rules of Construction, and Definitions
ARTICLE 1 General Purposes
Short title.
This chapter shall be known as the "Penal Law. "
General purposes.
The general purposes of the provisions of this chapter are:
1. To proscribe conduct which unjustifiably and inexcusably causes or
threatens substantial harm to individual or public interests;
2. To give fair warning of the nature of the conduct proscribed and of
the sentences authorized upon conviction;
3. To define the act or omission and the accompanying mental state
which constitute each offense;
4. To differentiate on reasonable grounds between serious and minor
offenses and to prescribe proportionate penalties therefor;
5. To provide for an appropriate public response to particular
offenses, including consideration of the consequences of the offense for
the victim, including the victim's family, and the community; and
6. To insure the public safety by preventing the commission of
offenses through the deterrent influence of the sentences authorized,
the rehabilitation of those convicted, the promotion of their successful
and productive reentry and reintegration into society, and their
confinement when required in the interests of public protection.
ARTICLE 5 General Rules of Construction and Application
Penal law not strictly construed.
The general rule that a penal statute is to be strictly construed does
not apply to this chapter, but the provisions herein must be construed
according to the fair import of their terms to promote justice and
effect the objects of the law.
Application of chapter to offenses committed before and after
enactment.
1. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the construction of and
punishment for any offense defined in this chapter and committed after
the effective date hereof, as well as the construction and application
of any defense to a prosecution for such an offense.
2. Unless otherwise expressly provided, or unless the context
otherwise requires, the provisions of this chapter shall govern the
construction of and punishment for any offense defined outside of this
chapter and committed after the effective date thereof, as well as the
construction and application of any defense to a prosecution for such an
offense.
3. The provisions of this chapter do not apply to or govern the
construction of and punishment for any offense committed prior to the
effective date of this chapter, or the construction and application of
any defense to a prosecution for such an offense. Such an offense must
be construed and punished according to the provisions of law existing at
the time of the commission thereof in the same manner as if this chapter
had not been enacted.
Other limitations on applicability of this chapter.
1. Except as otherwise provided, the procedure governing the
accusation, prosecution, conviction and punishment of offenders and
offenses is not regulated by this chapter but by the criminal procedure
law.
2. This chapter does not affect any power conferred by law upon any
court-martial or other military authority or officer to prosecute and
punish conduct and offenders violating military codes or laws.
3. This chapter does not bar, suspend, or otherwise affect any right
or liability to damages, penalty, forfeiture or other remedy authorized
by law to be recovered or enforced in a civil action, regardless of
whether the conduct involved in such civil action constitutes an offense
defined in this chapter.
4. Sections 120.45, 120.50, 120.55, 120.60 and 240.25, subdivisions
two and three of section 240.26, and sections 240.70 and 240.71 of this
chapter (a) do not apply to conduct which is otherwise lawful under the
provisions of the National Labor Relations Act as amended, the National
Railway Labor Act as amended, or the Federal Employment Labor Management
Act as amended, and (b) do not bar any conduct, including, but not
limited to, peaceful picketing or other peaceful demonstration,
protected from legal prohibition by the federal and state constitutions.
ARTICLE 10 Definitions
Definitions of terms of general use in this chapter.
Except where different meanings are expressly specified in subsequent
provisions of this chapter, the following terms have the following
meanings:
1. "Offense" means conduct for which a sentence to a term of
imprisonment or to a fine is provided by any law of this state or by any
law, local law or ordinance of a political subdivision of this state, or
by any order, rule or regulation of any governmental instrumentality
authorized by law to adopt the same.
2. "Traffic infraction" means any offense defined as "traffic
infraction" by section one hundred fifty-five of the vehicle and traffic
law.
3. "Violation" means an offense, other than a "traffic infraction,"
for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment in excess of fifteen days
cannot be imposed.
4. "Misdemeanor" means an offense, other than a "traffic infraction,"
for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment in excess of fifteen days
may be imposed, but for which a sentence to a term of imprisonment in
excess of one year cannot be imposed.
5. "Felony" means an offense for which a sentence to a term of
imprisonment in excess of one year may be imposed.
6. "Crime" means a misdemeanor or a felony.
7. "Person" means a human being, and where appropriate, a public or
private corporation, an unincorporated association, a partnership, a
government or a governmental instrumentality.
8. "Possess" means to have physical possession or otherwise to
exercise dominion or control over tangible property.
9. "Physical injury" means impairment of physical condition or
substantial pain.
10. "Serious physical injury" means physical injury which creates a
substantial risk of death, or which causes death or serious and
protracted disfigurement, protracted impairment of health or protracted
loss or impairment of the function of any bodily organ.
11. "Deadly physical force" means physical force which, under the
circumstances in which it is used, is readily capable of causing death
or other serious physical injury.
12. "Deadly weapon" means any loaded weapon from which a shot, readily
capable of producing death or other serious physical injury, may be
discharged, or a switchblade knife, pilum ballistic knife, metal knuckle
knife, dagger, billy, blackjack, plastic knuckles, or metal knuckles.
13. "Dangerous instrument" means any instrument, article or substance,
including a "vehicle" as that term is defined in this section, which,
under the circumstances in which it is used, attempted to be used or
threatened to be used, is readily capable of causing death or other
serious physical injury.
14. "Vehicle" means a "motor vehicle", "trailer" or "semi-trailer," as
defined in the vehicle and traffic law, any snowmobile as defined in the
parks and recreation law, any aircraft, or any vessel equipped for
propulsion by mechanical means or by sail.
15. "Public servant" means (a) any public officer or employee of the
state or of any political subdivision thereof or of any governmental
instrumentality within the state, or (b) any person exercising the
functions of any such public officer or employee. The term public
servant includes a person who has been elected or designated to become a
public servant.
16. "Juror" means any person who is a member of any jury, including a
grand jury, impaneled by any court in this state or by any public
servant authorized by law to impanel a jury. The term juror also
includes a person who has been drawn or summoned to attend as a
prospective juror.
17. "Benefit" means any gain or advantage to the beneficiary and
includes any gain or advantage to a third person pursuant to the desire
or consent of the beneficiary.
18. "Juvenile offender" means (1) a person thirteen years old who is
criminally responsible for acts constituting murder in the second degree
as defined in subdivisions one and two of section 125.25 of this chapter
or such conduct as a sexually motivated felony, where authorized
pursuant to section 130.91 of the penal law; and
(2) a person fourteen or fifteen years old who is criminally
responsible for acts constituting the crimes defined in subdivisions one
and two of section 125.25 (murder in the second degree) and in
subdivision three of such section provided that the underlying crime for
the murder charge is one for which such person is criminally
responsible; section 135.25 (kidnapping in the first degree); 150.20
(arson in the first degree); subdivisions one and two of section 120.10
(assault in the first degree); 125.20 (manslaughter in the first
degree); paragraphs (a) and (b) of subdivision one, paragraphs (a) and
(b) of subdivision two, and paragraphs (a) and (b) of subdivision three
of section 130.35 (rape in the first degree); former subdivisions one
and two of section 130.35 (rape in the first degree); subdivisions one
and two of the former section 130.50; 130.70 (aggravated sexual abuse in
the first degree); 140.30 (burglary in the first degree); subdivision
one of section 140.25 (burglary in the second degree); 150.15 (arson in
the second degree); 160.15 (robbery in the first degree); subdivision
two of section 160.10 (robbery in the second degree) of this chapter; or
section 265.03 of this chapter, where such machine gun or such firearm
is possessed on school grounds, as that phrase is defined in subdivision
fourteen of section 220.00 of this chapter; or defined in this chapter
as an attempt to commit murder in the second degree or kidnapping in the
first degree, or such conduct as a sexually motivated felony, where
authorized pursuant to section 130.91 of this chapter.
19. For the purposes of section 260.30 and 120.01 of this chapter the
term "child day care provider" shall be defined as provided for in
section three hundred ninety of the social services law.
20. For purposes of sections 120.13, 120.18, 125.11, 125.21 and 125.22
of this chapter, the term "peace officer" means a peace officer as
defined in subdivision one, two, three, four, six, twelve, thirteen,
fifteen, sixteen, seventeen, eighteen, nineteen, twenty, twenty-one,
twenty-three, twenty-three-a, twenty-four, twenty-five, twenty-six,
twenty-eight, twenty-nine, thirty, thirty-one, thirty-two, thirty-four,
thirty-five, thirty-six, forty-three, forty-five, forty-seven,
forty-eight, forty-nine, fifty-one, fifty-two, fifty-eight, sixty-one,
as added by chapter two hundred fifty-seven of the laws of nineteen
hundred ninety-two, sixty-one, as added by chapter three hundred
twenty-one of the laws of nineteen hundred ninety-two, sixty-two, as
added by chapter two hundred four of the laws of nineteen hundred
ninety-three, sixty-two, as added by chapter six hundred eighty-seven of
the laws of nineteen hundred ninety-three, sixty-three, as amended by
chapter six hundred thirty-eight of the laws of two thousand three,
sixty-four, sixty-five, sixty-eight, as added by chapter one hundred
sixty-eight of the laws of two thousand, sixty-eight, as added by
chapter three hundred eighty-one of the laws of two thousand, seventy,
seventy-one, seventy-four, as added by chapter five hundred forty-eight
of the laws of two thousand one, seventy-five, as added by chapter three
hundred twenty-one of the laws of two thousand two, seventy-five, as
added by chapter six hundred twenty-three of the laws of two thousand
two, seventy-seven, as added by chapter three hundred sixty-seven of the
laws of two thousand four, seventy-eight or seventy-nine, as added by
chapter two hundred forty-one of the laws of two thousand four, of
section 2.10 of the criminal procedure law, as well as any federal law
enforcement officer defined in section 2.15 of the criminal procedure
law.
21. "Drug trafficking felony" means any of the following offenses
defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter: violation of use
of a child to commit a controlled substance offense as defined in
section 220.28; criminal sale of a controlled substance in the fourth
degree as defined in section 220.34; criminal sale of a controlled
substance in the third degree as defined in section 220.39; criminal
sale of a controlled substance in the second degree as defined in
section 220.41; criminal sale of a controlled substance in the first
degree as defined in section 220.43; criminal sale of a controlled
substance in or near school grounds as defined in section 220.44;
unlawful manufacture of methamphetamine in the second degree as defined
in section 220.74; unlawful manufacture of methamphetamine in the first
degree as defined in section 220.75; or operating as a major trafficker
as defined in section 220.77.
22. For the purposes of section 20.20 of this part and section 60.27
of this chapter, the term "employee" shall mean any person providing
labor or services for remuneration for a private entity or business
within New York state, without regard to an individual's immigration
status, and shall include part-time workers, independent contractors,
apprentices, domestic workers, home care and personal care workers, day
laborers, farmworkers, and other temporary and seasonal workers.
TITLE B Principles of Criminal Liability
ARTICLE 15 Culpability
Culpability; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this chapter:
1. "Act" means a bodily movement.
2. "Voluntary act" means a bodily movement performed consciously as a
result of effort or determination, and includes the possession of
property if the actor was aware of his physical possession or control
thereof for a sufficient period to have been able to terminate it.
3. "Omission" means a failure to perform an act as to which a duty of
performance is imposed by law.
4. "Conduct" means an act or omission and its accompanying mental
state.
5. "To act" means either to perform an act or to omit to perform an
act.
6. "Culpable mental state" means "intentionally" or "knowingly" or
"recklessly" or with "criminal negligence," as these terms are defined
in section 15.05.
Culpability; definitions of culpable mental states.
The following definitions are applicable to this chapter:
1. "Intentionally." A person acts intentionally with respect to a
result or to conduct described by a statute defining an offense when his
conscious objective is to cause such result or to engage in such
conduct.
2. "Knowingly." A person acts knowingly with respect to conduct or to
a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense when he is
aware that his conduct is of such nature or that such circumstance
exists.
3. "Recklessly." A person acts recklessly with respect to a result or
to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense when he is
aware of and consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk
that such result will occur or that such circumstance exists. The risk
must be of such nature and degree that disregard thereof constitutes a
gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a reasonable person
would observe in the situation. A person who creates such a risk but is
unaware thereof solely by reason of voluntary intoxication also acts
recklessly with respect thereto.
4. "Criminal negligence." A person acts with criminal negligence with
respect to a result or to a circumstance described by a statute defining
an offense when he fails to perceive a substantial and unjustifiable
risk that such result will occur or that such circumstance exists. The
risk must be of such nature and degree that the failure to perceive it
constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that a
reasonable person would observe in the situation.
Requirements for criminal liability in general and for offenses
of strict liability and mental culpability.
The minimal requirement for criminal liability is the performance by a
person of conduct which includes a voluntary act or the omission to
perform an act which he is physically capable of performing. If such
conduct is all that is required for commission of a particular offense,
or if an offense or some material element thereof does not require a
culpable mental state on the part of the actor, such offense is one of
"strict liability." If a culpable mental state on the part of the actor
is required with respect to every material element of an offense, such
offense is one of "mental culpability."
Construction of statutes with respect to culpability
requirements.
1. When the commission of an offense defined in this chapter, or some
element of an offense, requires a particular culpable mental state, such
mental state is ordinarily designated in the statute defining the
offense by use of the terms "intentionally," "knowingly," "recklessly"
or "criminal negligence," or by use of terms, such as "with intent to
defraud" and "knowing it to be false," describing a specific kind of
intent or knowledge. When one and only one of such terms appears in a
statute defining an offense, it is presumed to apply to every element of
the offense unless an intent to limit its application clearly appears.
2. Although no culpable mental state is expressly designated in a
statute defining an offense, a culpable mental state may nevertheless be
required for the commission of such offense, or with respect to some or
all of the material elements thereof, if the proscribed conduct
necessarily involves such culpable mental state. A statute defining a
crime, unless clearly indicating a legislative intent to impose strict
liability, should be construed as defining a crime of mental
culpability. This subdivision applies to offenses defined both in and
outside this chapter.
Effect of ignorance or mistake upon liability.
1. A person is not relieved of criminal liability for conduct because
he engages in such conduct under a mistaken belief of fact, unless:
(a) Such factual mistake negatives the culpable mental state required
for the commission of an offense; or
(b) The statute defining the offense or a statute related thereto
expressly provides that such factual mistake constitutes a defense or
exemption; or
(c) Such factual mistake is of a kind that supports a defense of
justification as defined in article thirty-five of this chapter.
2. A person is not relieved of criminal liability for conduct because
he engages in such conduct under a mistaken belief that it does not, as
a matter of law, constitute an offense, unless such mistaken belief is
founded upon an official statement of the law contained in (a) a statute
or other enactment, or (b) an administrative order or grant of
permission, or (c) a judicial decision of a state or federal court, or
(d) an interpretation of the statute or law relating to the offense,
officially made or issued by a public servant, agency or body legally
charged or empowered with the responsibility or privilege of
administering, enforcing or interpreting such statute or law.
3. Notwithstanding the use of the term "knowingly" in any provision of
this chapter defining an offense in which the age of a child is an
element thereof, knowledge by the defendant of the age of such child is
not an element of any such offense and it is not, unless expressly so
provided, a defense to a prosecution therefor that the defendant did not
know the age of the child or believed such age to be the same as or
greater than that specified in the statute.
4. Notwithstanding the use of the term "knowingly" in any provision of
this chapter defining an offense in which the aggregate weight of a
controlled substance or marihuana is an element, knowledge by the
defendant of the aggregate weight of such controlled substance or
marihuana is not an element of any such offense and it is not, unless
expressly so provided, a defense to a prosecution therefor that the
defendant did not know the aggregate weight of the controlled substance
or marihuana.
Effect of intoxication upon liability.
Intoxication is not, as such, a defense to a criminal charge; but in
any prosecution for an offense, evidence of intoxication of the
defendant may be offered by the defendant whenever it is relevant to
negative an element of the crime charged.
ARTICLE 20 Parties to Offenses and Liability Through Accessorial Conduct
Criminal liability for conduct of another.
When one person engages in conduct which constitutes an offense,
another person is criminally liable for such conduct when, acting with
the mental culpability required for the commission thereof, he solicits,
requests, commands, importunes, or intentionally aids such person to
engage in such conduct.
Criminal liability for conduct of another; no defense.
In any prosecution for an offense in which the criminal liability of
the defendant is based upon the conduct of another person pursuant to
section 20.00, it is no defense that:
1. Such other person is not guilty of the offense in question owing to
criminal irresponsibility or other legal incapacity or exemption, or to
unawareness of the criminal nature of the conduct in question or of the
defendant's criminal purpose or to other factors precluding the mental
state required for the commission of the offense in question; or
2. Such other person has not been prosecuted for or convicted of any
offense based upon the conduct in question, or has previously been
acquitted thereof, or has legal immunity from prosecution therefor; or
3. The offense in question, as defined, can be committed only by a
particular class or classes of persons, and the defendant, not belonging
to such class or classes, is for that reason legally incapable of
committing the offense in an individual capacity.
Criminal liability for conduct of another; exemption.
Notwithstanding the provisions of sections 20.00 and 20.05, a person
is not criminally liable for conduct of another person constituting an
offense when his own conduct, though causing or aiding the commission of
such offense, is of a kind that is necessarily incidental thereto. If
such conduct constitutes a related but separate offense upon the part of
the actor, he is liable for that offense only and not for the conduct or
offense committed by the other person.
Convictions for different degrees of offense.
Except as otherwise expressly provided in this chapter, when, pursuant
to section 20.00, two or more persons are criminally liable for an
offense which is divided into degrees, each person is guilty of such
degree as is compatible with his own culpable mental state and with his
own accountability for an aggravating fact or circumstance.
Criminal liability of corporations.
1. As used in this section:
(a) "Agent" means any director, officer or employee of a corporation,
or any other person who is authorized to act in behalf of the
corporation.
(b) "High managerial agent" means an officer of a corporation or any
other agent in a position of comparable authority with respect to the
formulation of corporate policy or the supervision in a managerial
capacity of subordinate employees.
2. A corporation is guilty of an offense when:
(a) The conduct constituting the offense consists of an omission to
discharge a specific duty of affirmative performance imposed on
corporations by law; or
(b) The conduct constituting the offense is engaged in, authorized,
solicited, requested, commanded, or recklessly tolerated by the board of
directors or by a high managerial agent acting within the scope of his
employment and in behalf of the corporation; or
(c) The conduct constituting the offense is engaged in by an agent of
the corporation while acting within the scope of his employment and on
behalf of the corporation, and the offense is (i) a misdemeanor or a
violation, (ii) one defined by a statute which clearly indicates a
legislative intent to impose such criminal liability on a corporation,
(iii) any offense set forth in title twenty-seven of article seventy-one
of the environmental conservation law, or (iv) is in relation to a crime
involving the death or serious physical injury of an employee where the
corporation acted negligently, recklessly, intentionally, or knowingly.
Criminal liability of an individual for corporate conduct.
A person is criminally liable for conduct constituting an offense
which he performs or causes to be performed in the name of or in behalf
of a corporation to the same extent as if such conduct were performed in
his own name or behalf.
TITLE C Defenses
ARTICLE 25 Defenses In General
Defenses; burden of proof.
1. When a "defense," other than an "affirmative defense," defined by
statute is raised at a trial, the people have the burden of disproving
such defense beyond a reasonable doubt.
2. When a defense declared by statute to be an "affirmative defense"
is raised at a trial, the defendant has the burden of establishing such
defense by a preponderance of the evidence.
ARTICLE 30 Defense of Infancy
Infancy.
1. Except as provided in subdivisions two and three of this section, a
person less than seventeen, or commencing October first, two thousand
nineteen, a person less than eighteen years old is not criminally
responsible for conduct.
2. A person thirteen, fourteen or, fifteen years of age is criminally
responsible for acts constituting murder in the second degree as defined
in subdivisions one and two of section 125.25 and in subdivision three
of such section provided that the underlying crime for the murder charge
is one for which such person is criminally responsible or for such
conduct as a sexually motivated felony, where authorized pursuant to
section 130.91 of this chapter; and a person fourteen or, fifteen years
of age is criminally responsible for acts constituting the crimes
defined in section 135.25 (kidnapping in the first degree); 150.20
(arson in the first degree); subdivisions one and two of section 120.10
(assault in the first degree); 125.20 (manslaughter in the first
degree); paragraphs (a) and (b) of subdivision one, paragraphs (a) and
(b) of subdivision two and paragraphs (a) and (b) of subdivision three
of section 130.35 (rape in the first degree); former subdivisions one
and two of section 130.35 (rape in the first degree); subdivisions one
and two of former section 130.50; 130.70 (aggravated sexual abuse in the
first degree); 140.30 (burglary in the first degree); subdivision one of
section 140.25 (burglary in the second degree); 150.15 (arson in the
second degree); 160.15 (robbery in the first degree); subdivision two of
section 160.10 (robbery in the second degree) of this chapter; or
section 265.03 of this chapter, where such machine gun or such firearm
is possessed on school grounds, as that phrase is defined in subdivision
fourteen of section 220.00 of this chapter; or defined in this chapter
as an attempt to commit murder in the second degree or kidnapping in the
first degree, or for such conduct as a sexually motivated felony, where
authorized pursuant to section 130.91 of this chapter.
3. A person sixteen or commencing October first, two thousand
nineteen, seventeen years of age is criminally responsible for acts
constituting:
(a) a felony, as defined in subdivision five of section 10.00 of this
chapter;
(b) a traffic infraction, as defined in subdivision two of section
10.00 of this chapter;
(c) a violation, as defined in subdivision three of section 10.00 of
this chapter;
(d) a misdemeanor as defined in subdivision four of section 10.00 of
this chapter, but only when the charge for such misdemeanor is:
(i) accompanied by a felony charge that is shown to have been
committed as a part of the same criminal transaction, as defined in
subdivision two of section 40.10 of the criminal procedure law;
(ii) results from reduction or dismissal in satisfaction of a charge
for a felony offense, in accordance with a plea of guilty pursuant to
subdivision four of section 220.10 of the criminal procedure law, unless
the proceeding is removed to the family court pursuant to paragraph
(g-1) of subdivision five of section 220.10 of the criminal procedure
law; or
(iii) a misdemeanor defined in the vehicle and traffic law.
4. In any prosecution for an offense, lack of criminal responsibility
by reason of infancy, as defined in this section, is a defense.
ARTICLE 35 Defense of Justification
Justification; generally.
Unless otherwise limited by the ensuing provisions of this article
defining justifiable use of physical force, conduct which would
otherwise constitute an offense is justifiable and not criminal when:
1. Such conduct is required or authorized by law or by a judicial
decree, or is performed by a public servant in the reasonable exercise
of his official powers, duties or functions; or
2. Such conduct is necessary as an emergency measure to avoid an
imminent public or private injury which is about to occur by reason of a
situation occasioned or developed through no fault of the actor, and
which is of such gravity that, according to ordinary standards of
intelligence and morality, the desirability and urgency of avoiding such
injury clearly outweigh the desirability of avoiding the injury sought
to be prevented by the statute defining the offense in issue. The
necessity and justifiability of such conduct may not rest upon
considerations pertaining only to the morality and advisability of the
statute, either in its general application or with respect to its
application to a particular class of cases arising thereunder. Whenever
evidence relating to the defense of justification under this subdivision
is offered by the defendant, the court shall rule as a matter of law
whether the claimed facts and circumstances would, if established,
constitute a defense.
Justification; use of physical force generally.
The use of physical force upon another person which would otherwise
constitute an offense is justifiable and not criminal under any of the
following circumstances:
1. A parent, guardian or other person entrusted with the care and
supervision of a person under the age of twenty-one or an incompetent
person, and a teacher or other person entrusted with the care and
supervision of a person under the age of twenty-one for a special
purpose, may use physical force, but not deadly physical force, upon
such person when and to the extent that he reasonably believes it
necessary to maintain discipline or to promote the welfare of such
person.
2. A warden or other authorized official of a jail, prison or
correctional institution may, in order to maintain order and discipline,
use such physical force as is authorized by the correction law.
3. A person responsible for the maintenance of order in a common
carrier of passengers, or a person acting under his direction, may use
physical force when and to the extent that he reasonably believes it
necessary to maintain order, but he may use deadly physical force only
when he reasonably believes it necessary to prevent death or serious
physical injury.
4. A person acting under a reasonable belief that another person is
about to commit suicide or to inflict serious physical injury upon
himself may use physical force upon such person to the extent that he
reasonably believes it necessary to thwart such result.
5. A duly licensed physician, or a person acting under a physician's
direction, may use physical force for the purpose of administering a
recognized form of treatment which he or she reasonably believes to be
adapted to promoting the physical or mental health of the patient if (a)
the treatment is administered with the consent of the patient or, if the
patient is under the age of eighteen years or an incompetent person,
with the consent of the parent, guardian or other person entrusted with
the patient's care and supervision, or (b) the treatment is administered
in an emergency when the physician reasonably believes that no one
competent to consent can be consulted and that a reasonable person,
wishing to safeguard the welfare of the patient, would consent.
6. A person may, pursuant to the ensuing provisions of this article,
use physical force upon another person in self-defense or defense of a
third person, or in defense of premises, or in order to prevent larceny
of or criminal mischief to property, or in order to effect an arrest or
prevent an escape from custody. Whenever a person is authorized by any
such provision to use deadly physical force in any given circumstance,
nothing contained in any other such provision may be deemed to negate or
qualify such authorization.
Justification; use of physical force in defense of a person.
1. A person may, subject to the provisions of subdivision two, use
physical force upon another person when and to the extent he or she
reasonably believes such to be necessary to defend himself, herself or a
third person from what he or she reasonably believes to be the use or
imminent use of unlawful physical force by such other person, unless:
(a) The latter's conduct was provoked by the actor with intent to
cause physical injury to another person; or
(b) The actor was the initial aggressor; except that in such case the
use of physical force is nevertheless justifiable if the actor has
withdrawn from the encounter and effectively communicated such
withdrawal to such other person but the latter persists in continuing
the incident by the use or threatened imminent use of unlawful physical
force; or
(c) The physical force involved is the product of a combat by
agreement not specifically authorized by law.
2. A person may not use deadly physical force upon another person
under circumstances specified in subdivision one unless:
(a) The actor reasonably believes that such other person is using or
about to use deadly physical force. Even in such case, however, the
actor may not use deadly physical force if he or she knows that with
complete personal safety, to oneself and others he or she may avoid the
necessity of so doing by retreating; except that the actor is under no
duty to retreat if he or she is:
(i) in his or her dwelling and not the initial aggressor; or
(ii) a police officer or peace officer or a person assisting a police
officer or a peace officer at the latter's direction, acting pursuant to
section 35.30; or
(b) He or she reasonably believes that such other person is committing
or attempting to commit a kidnapping, forcible rape, forcible aggravated
sexual abuse, a crime formerly defined in section 130.50 of this chapter
by force, or robbery; or
(c) He or she reasonably believes that such other person is committing
or attempting to commit a burglary, and the circumstances are such that
the use of deadly physical force is authorized by subdivision three of
section 35.20.
Justification; use of physical force in defense of premises and
in defense of a person in the course of burglary.
1. Any person may use physical force upon another person when he or
she reasonably believes such to be necessary to prevent or terminate
what he or she reasonably believes to be the commission or attempted
commission by such other person of a crime involving damage to premises.
Such person may use any degree of physical force, other than deadly
physical force, which he or she reasonably believes to be necessary for
such purpose, and may use deadly physical force if he or she reasonably
believes such to be necessary to prevent or terminate the commission or
attempted commission of arson.
2. A person in possession or control of any premises, or a person
licensed or privileged to be thereon or therein, may use physical force
upon another person when he or she reasonably believes such to be
necessary to prevent or terminate what he or she reasonably believes to
be the commission or attempted commission by such other person of a
criminal trespass upon such premises. Such person may use any degree of
physical force, other than deadly physical force, which he or she
reasonably believes to be necessary for such purpose, and may use deadly
physical force in order to prevent or terminate the commission or
attempted commission of arson, as prescribed in subdivision one, or in
the course of a burglary or attempted burglary, as prescribed in
subdivision three.
3. A person in possession or control of, or licensed or privileged to
be in, a dwelling or an occupied building, who reasonably believes that
another person is committing or attempting to commit a burglary of such
dwelling or building, may use deadly physical force upon such other
person when he or she reasonably believes such to be necessary to
prevent or terminate the commission or attempted commission of such
burglary.
4. As used in this section, the following terms have the following
meanings:
(a) The terms "premises," "building" and "dwelling" have the meanings
prescribed in section 140.00;
(b) Persons "licensed or privileged" to be in buildings or upon other
premises include, but are not limited to:
(i) police officers or peace officers acting in the performance of
their duties; and
(ii) security personnel or employees of nuclear powered electric
generating facilities located within the state who are employed as part
of any security plan approved by the federal operating license agencies
acting in the performance of their duties at such generating facilities.
For purposes of this subparagraph, the term "nuclear powered electric
generating facility" shall mean a facility that generates electricity
using nuclear power for sale, directly or indirectly, to the public,
including the land upon which the facility is located and the safety and
security zones as defined under federal regulations.
Justification; use of physical force to prevent or terminate
larceny or criminal mischief.
A person may use physical force, other than deadly physical force,
upon another person when and to the extent that he or she reasonably
believes such to be necessary to prevent or terminate what he or she
reasonably believes to be the commission or attempted commission by such
other person of larceny or of criminal mischief with respect to property
other than premises.
Justification; use of physical force in resisting arrest
prohibited.
A person may not use physical force to resist an arrest, whether
authorized or unauthorized, which is being effected or attempted by a
police officer or peace officer when it would reasonably appear that the
latter is a police officer or peace officer.
Justification; use of physical force in making an arrest or in
preventing an escape.
1. A police officer or a peace officer, in the course of effecting or
attempting to effect an arrest, or of preventing or attempting to
prevent the escape from custody, of a person whom he or she reasonably
believes to have committed an offense, may use physical force when and
to the extent he or she reasonably believes such to be necessary to
effect the arrest, or to prevent the escape from custody, or in
self-defense or to defend a third person from what he or she reasonably
believes to be the use or imminent use of physical force; except that
deadly physical force may be used for such purposes only when he or she
reasonably believes that:
(a) The offense committed by such person was:
(i) a felony or an attempt to commit a felony involving the use or
attempted use or threatened imminent use of physical force against a
person; or
(ii) kidnapping, arson, escape in the first degree, burglary in the
first degree or any attempt to commit such a crime; or
(b) The offense committed or attempted by such person was a felony and
that, in the course of resisting arrest therefor or attempting to escape
from custody, such person is armed with a firearm or deadly weapon; or
(c) Regardless of the particular offense which is the subject of the
arrest or attempted escape, the use of deadly physical force is
necessary to defend the police officer or peace officer or another
person from what the officer reasonably believes to be the use or
imminent use of deadly physical force.
2. The fact that a police officer or a peace officer is justified in
using deadly physical force under circumstances prescribed in paragraphs
(a) and (b) of subdivision one does not constitute justification for
reckless conduct by such police officer or peace officer amounting to an
offense against or with respect to innocent persons whom he or she is
not seeking to arrest or retain in custody.
3. A person who has been directed by a police officer or a peace
officer to assist such police officer or peace officer to effect an
arrest or to prevent an escape from custody may use physical force,
other than deadly physical force, when and to the extent that he or she
reasonably believes such to be necessary to carry out such police
officer's or peace officer's direction, unless he or she knows that the
arrest or prospective arrest is not or was not authorized and may use
deadly physical force under such circumstances when:
(a) He or she reasonably believes such to be necessary for
self-defense or to defend a third person from what he or she reasonably
believes to be the use or imminent use of deadly physical force; or
(b) He or she is directed or authorized by such police officer or
peace officer to use deadly physical force unless he or she knows that
the police officer or peace officer is not authorized to use deadly
physical force under the circumstances.
4. A private person acting on his or her own account may use physical
force, other than deadly physical force, upon another person when and to
the extent that he or she reasonably believes such to be necessary to
effect an arrest or to prevent the escape from custody of a person whom
he or she reasonably believes to have committed an offense and who in
fact has committed such offense; and may use deadly physical force for
such purpose when he or she reasonably believes such to be necessary to:
(a) Defend himself, herself or a third person from what he or she
reasonably believes to be the use or imminent use of deadly physical
force; or
(b) Effect the arrest of a person who has committed murder,
manslaughter in the first degree, robbery, forcible rape or forcible
criminal sexual act and who is in immediate flight therefrom.
5. A guard, police officer or peace officer who is charged with the
duty of guarding prisoners in a detention facility, as that term is
defined in section 205.00, or while in transit to or from a detention
facility, may use physical force when and to the extent that he or she
reasonably believes such to be necessary to prevent the escape of a
prisoner from a detention facility or from custody while in transit
thereto or therefrom.
ARTICLE 40 Other Defenses Involving Lack of Culpability
Duress.
1. In any prosecution for an offense, it is an affirmative defense
that the defendant engaged in the proscribed conduct because he was
coerced to do so by the use or threatened imminent use of unlawful
physical force upon him or a third person, which force or threatened
force a person of reasonable firmness in his situation would have been
unable to resist.
2. The defense of duress as defined in subdivision one of this section
is not available when a person intentionally or recklessly places
himself in a situation in which it is probable that he will be subjected
to duress.
Entrapment.
In any prosecution for an offense, it is an affirmative defense that
the defendant engaged in the proscribed conduct because he was induced
or encouraged to do so by a public servant, or by a person acting in
cooperation with a public servant, seeking to obtain evidence against
him for purpose of criminal prosecution, and when the methods used to
obtain such evidence were such as to create a substantial risk that the
offense would be committed by a person not otherwise disposed to commit
it. Inducement or encouragement to commit an offense means active
inducement or encouragement. Conduct merely affording a person an
opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute entrapment.
Renunciation.
1. In any prosecution for an offense, other than an attempt to commit
a crime, in which the defendant's guilt depends upon his criminal
liability for the conduct of another person pursuant to section 20.00,
it is an affirmative defense that, under circumstances manifesting a
voluntary and complete renunciation of his criminal purpose, the
defendant withdrew from participation in such offense prior to the
commission thereof and made a substantial effort to prevent the
commission thereof.
2. In any prosecution for criminal facilitation pursuant to article
one hundred fifteen, it is an affirmative defense that, prior to the
commission of the felony which he facilitated, the defendant made a
substantial effort to prevent the commission of such felony.
3. In any prosecution pursuant to section 110.00 for an attempt to
commit a crime, it is an affirmative defense that, under circumstances
manifesting a voluntary and complete renunciation of his criminal
purpose, the defendant avoided the commission of the crime attempted by
abandoning his criminal effort and, if mere abandonment was insufficient
to accomplish such avoidance, by taking further and affirmative steps
which prevented the commission thereof.
4. In any prosecution for criminal solicitation pursuant to article
one hundred or for conspiracy pursuant to article one hundred five in
which the crime solicited or the crime contemplated by the conspiracy
was not in fact committed, it is an affirmative defense that, under
circumstances manifesting a voluntary and complete renunciation of his
criminal purpose, the defendant prevented the commission of such crime.
5. A renunciation is not "voluntary and complete" within the meaning
of this section if it is motivated in whole or in part by (a) a belief
that circumstances exist which increase the probability of detection or
apprehension of the defendant or another participant in the criminal
enterprise, or which render more difficult the accomplishment of the
criminal purpose, or (b) a decision to postpone the criminal conduct
until another time or to transfer the criminal effort to another victim
or another but similar objective.
Mental disease or defect.
In any prosecution for an offense, it is an affirmative defense that
when the defendant engaged in the proscribed conduct, he lacked criminal
responsibility by reason of mental disease or defect. Such lack of
criminal responsibility means that at the time of such conduct, as a
result of mental disease or defect, he lacked substantial capacity to
know or appreciate either:
1. The nature and consequences of such conduct; or
2. That such conduct was wrong.
PART 2 Sentences
TITLE E Sentences
ARTICLE 55 Classification and Designation of Offenses
Applicability of article.
The provisions of this article govern the classification and
designation of every offense, whether defined within or outside of this
chapter.
Classifications of felonies and misdemeanors.
1. Felonies. Felonies are classified, for the purpose of sentence,
into five categories as follows:
(a) Class A felonies;
(b) Class B felonies;
(c) Class C felonies;
(d) Class D felonies; and
(e) Class E felonies.
Class A felonies are subclassified, for the purpose of sentence, into
two categories as follows: subclass I and subclass II, to be known as
class A-I and class A-II felonies, respectively.
2. Misdemeanors. Misdemeanors are classified, for the purpose of
sentence, into three categories as follows:
(a) Class A misdemeanors;
(b) Class B misdemeanors; and
(c) Unclassified misdemeanors.
Designation of offenses.
1. Felonies.
(a) The particular classification or subclassification of each felony
defined in this chapter is expressly designated in the section or
article defining it.
(b) Any offense defined outside this chapter which is declared by law
to be a felony without specification of the classification thereof, or
for which a law outside this chapter provides a sentence to a term of
imprisonment in excess of one year, shall be deemed a class E felony.
2. Misdemeanors.
(a) Each misdemeanor defined in this chapter is either a class A
misdemeanor or a class B misdemeanor, as expressly designated in the
section or article defining it.
(b) Any offense defined outside this chapter which is declared by law
to be a misdemeanor without specification of the classification thereof
or of the sentence therefor shall be deemed a class A misdemeanor.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of subdivision three, where an
offense is defined outside this chapter and a sentence to a term of
imprisonment in excess of fifteen days but not in excess of one year is
provided in the law or ordinance defining it, such offense shall be
deemed an unclassified misdemeanor.
3. Violations. Every violation defined in this chapter is expressly
designated as such. Any offense defined outside this chapter which is
not expressly designated a violation shall be deemed a violation if:
(a) Notwithstanding any other designation specified in the law or
ordinance defining it, a sentence to a term of imprisonment which is not
in excess of fifteen days is provided therein, or the only sentence
provided therein is a fine; or
(b) A sentence to a term of imprisonment in excess of fifteen days is
provided for such offense in a law or ordinance enacted prior to the
effective date of this chapter but the offense was not a crime prior to
that date.
4. Traffic infraction. Notwithstanding any other provision of this
section, an offense which is defined as a "traffic infraction" shall not
be deemed a violation or a misdemeanor by virtue of the sentence
prescribed therefor.
ARTICLE 60 Authorized Dispositions of Offenders
Applicability of provisions.
1. The sentences prescribed by this article shall apply in the case of
every offense, whether defined within or outside of this chapter.
2. The sole provision of this article that shall apply in the case of
an offense committed by a juvenile offender is section 60.10 of this
article and no other provisions of this article shall be deemed or
construed to apply in any such case.
Authorized dispositions; generally.
1. Applicability. Except as otherwise specified in this article, when
the court imposes sentence upon a person convicted of an offense, the
court must impose a sentence prescribed by this section.
2. Revocable dispositions.
(a) The court may impose a revocable sentence as herein specified:
(i) the court, where authorized by article sixty-five, may sentence a
person to a period of probation or to a period of conditional discharge
as provided in that article; or
(ii) the court, where authorized by article eighty-five, may sentence
a person to a term of intermittent imprisonment as provided in that
article.
(b) A revocable sentence shall be deemed a tentative one to the extent
that it may be altered or revoked in accordance with the provisions of
the article under which it was imposed, but for all other purposes shall
be deemed to be a final judgment of conviction.
(c) In any case where the court imposes a sentence of probation,
conditional discharge, or a sentence of intermittent imprisonment, it
may also impose a fine authorized by article eighty.
(d) In any case where the court imposes a sentence of imprisonment not
in excess of sixty days, for a misdemeanor or not in excess of six
months for a felony or in the case of a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment not in excess of four months, it may also impose a sentence
of probation or conditional discharge provided that the term of
probation or conditional discharge together with the term of
imprisonment shall not exceed the term of probation or conditional
discharge authorized by article sixty-five of this chapter. The sentence
of imprisonment shall be a condition of and run concurrently with the
sentence of probation or conditional discharge.
3. Other dispositions. When a person is not sentenced as specified in
subdivision two, or when a sentence specified in subdivision two is
revoked, the sentence of the court must be as follows:
(a) A term of imprisonment; or
(b) A fine authorized by article eighty, provided, however, that when
the conviction is of a class B felony or of any felony defined in
article two hundred twenty, the sentence shall not consist solely of a
fine; or
(c) Both imprisonment and a fine; or
(d) Where authorized by section 65.20, unconditional discharge as
provided in that section; or
(e) Following revocation of a sentence of conditional discharge
imposed pursuant to section 65.05 of this chapter or paragraph (d) of
subdivision two of this section, probation as provided in section 65.00
of this chapter or to the sentence of imprisonment and probation as
provided for in paragraph (d) of subdivision two of this section.
4. In any case where a person has been sentenced to a period of
probation imposed pursuant to section 65.00 of this chapter, if the part
of the sentence that provides for probation is revoked, the court must
sentence such person to imprisonment or to the sentence of imprisonment
and probation as provided for in paragraph (d) of subdivision two of
this section.
Authorized disposition; youthful offender.
When a person is to be sentenced upon a youthful offender finding, the
court must impose a sentence as follows:
(1) If the sentence is to be imposed upon a youthful offender finding
which has been substituted for a conviction of an offense other than a
felony, the court must impose a sentence authorized for the offense for
which the youthful offender finding was substituted, except that if the
youthful offender finding was entered pursuant to paragraph (b) of
subdivision one of section 720.20 of the criminal procedure law, the
court must not impose a definite or intermittent sentence of
imprisonment with a term of more than six months; or
(2) If the sentence is to be imposed upon a youthful offender finding
which has been substituted for a conviction for any felony, the court
must impose a sentence authorized to be imposed upon a person convicted
of a class E felony provided, however, that the court must not impose a
sentence of conditional discharge or unconditional discharge if the
youthful offender finding was substituted for a conviction of a felony
defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter.
(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law in this section, if the
sentence is to be imposed upon a youthful offender finding which has
been substituted for a conviction of prostitution or loitering for the
purposes of prostitution provided that the person does not stand charged
with loitering for the purpose of patronizing a prostitute, and such
offense occurred when the person was sixteen or seventeen years of age,
the court must impose a sentence authorized to be imposed upon a person
convicted of a violation as defined in subdivision three of section
10.00 of the penal law and where the court imposes a revocable sentence
authorized for a violation may order any of the specialized services
enumerated in title eight-A of article six of the social services law or
other appropriate services made available to persons in need of
supervision in accordance with article seven of the family court act.
Authorized disposition; controlled substances and marihuana
felony offenses.
1. Applicability. Notwithstanding the provisions of any law, this
section shall govern the dispositions authorized when a person is to be
sentenced upon a conviction of a felony offense defined in article two
hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-one of this chapter or when a
person is to be sentenced upon a conviction of such a felony as a
multiple felony offender as defined in subdivision five of this section.
2. Class A felony. Every person convicted of a class A felony must be
sentenced to imprisonment in accordance with section 70.71 of this
title, unless such person is convicted of a class A-II felony and is
sentenced to probation for life in accordance with section 65.00 of this
title.
3. Class B felonies. Every person convicted of a class B felony must
be sentenced to imprisonment in accordance with the applicable
provisions of section 70.70 of this chapter, a definite sentence of
imprisonment with a term of one year or less or probation in accordance
with section 65.00 of this chapter provided, however, a person convicted
of criminal sale of a controlled substance to a child as defined in
section 220.48 of this chapter must be sentenced to a determinate
sentence of imprisonment in accordance with the applicable provisions of
section 70.70 of this chapter or to a sentence of probation in
accordance with the opening paragraph of paragraph (b) of subdivision
one of section 65.00 of this chapter.
4. Alternative sentence. Where a sentence of imprisonment or a
sentence of probation as an alternative to imprisonment is not required
to be imposed pursuant to subdivision two, three or five of this
section, the court may impose any other sentence authorized by section
60.01 of this article, provided that when the court imposes a sentence
of imprisonment, such sentence must be in accordance with section 70.70
of this title. Where the court imposes a sentence of imprisonment in
accordance with this section, the court may also impose a fine
authorized by article eighty of this title and in such case the sentence
shall be both imprisonment and a fine.
5. Multiple felony offender. Where the court imposes a sentence
pursuant to subdivision three of section 70.70 of this chapter upon a
second felony drug offender, as defined in paragraph (b) of subdivision
one of section 70.70 of this chapter, it must sentence such offender to
imprisonment in accordance with the applicable provisions of section
70.70 of this chapter, a definite sentence of imprisonment with a term
of one year or less, or probation in accordance with section 65.00 of
this chapter, provided, however, that where the court imposes a sentence
upon a class B second felony drug offender, it must sentence such
offender to a determinate sentence of imprisonment in accordance with
the applicable provisions of section 70.70 of this chapter or to a
sentence of probation in accordance with the opening paragraph of
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 65.00 of this chapter. When
the court imposes sentence on a second felony drug offender pursuant to
subdivision four of section 70.70 of this chapter, it must impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment in accordance with such
subdivision.
6. Substance abuse treatment. When the court imposes a sentence of
imprisonment which requires a commitment to the state department of
corrections and community supervision upon a person who stands convicted
of a controlled substance or marihuana offense, the court may, upon
motion of the defendant in its discretion, issue an order directing that
the department of corrections and community supervision enroll the
defendant in the comprehensive alcohol and substance abuse treatment
program in an alcohol and substance abuse correctional annex as defined
in subdivision eighteen of section two of the correction law, provided
that the defendant will satisfy the statutory eligibility criteria for
participation in such program. Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions
of this subdivision, any defendant to be enrolled in such program
pursuant to this subdivision shall be governed by the same rules and
regulations promulgated by the department of corrections and community
supervision, including without limitation those rules and regulations
establishing requirements for completion and those rules and regulations
governing discipline and removal from the program. No such period of
court ordered corrections based drug abuse treatment pursuant to this
subdivision shall be required to extend beyond the defendant's
conditional release date.
7. a. Shock incarceration participation. When the court imposes a
sentence of imprisonment which requires a commitment to the department
of corrections and community supervision upon a person who stands
convicted of a controlled substance or marihuana offense, upon motion of
the defendant, the court may issue an order directing that the
department of corrections and community supervision enroll the defendant
in the shock incarceration program as defined in article twenty-six-A of
the correction law, provided that the defendant is an eligible
incarcerated individual, as described in subdivision one of section
eight hundred sixty-five of the correction law. Notwithstanding the
foregoing provisions of this subdivision, any defendant to be enrolled
in such program pursuant to this subdivision shall be governed by the
same rules and regulations promulgated by the department of corrections
and community supervision, including without limitation those rules and
regulations establishing requirements for completion and such rules and
regulations governing discipline and removal from the program.
b. (i) In the event that an incarcerated individual designated by
court order for enrollment in the shock incarceration program requires a
degree of medical care or mental health care that cannot be provided at
a shock incarceration facility, the department, in writing, shall notify
the incarcerated individual, provide a proposal describing a proposed
alternative-to-shock-incarceration program, and notify him or her that
he or she may object in writing to placement in such
alternative-to-shock-incarceration program. If the incarcerated
individual objects in writing to placement in such
alternative-to-shock-incarceration program, the department of
corrections and community supervision shall notify the sentencing court,
provide such proposal to the court, and arrange for the incarcerated
individual's prompt appearance before the court. The court shall provide
the proposal and notice of a court appearance to the people, the
incarcerated individual and the appropriate defense attorney. After
considering the proposal and any submissions by the parties, and after a
reasonable opportunity for the people, the incarcerated individual and
counsel to be heard, the court may modify its sentencing order
accordingly, notwithstanding the provisions of section 430.10 of the
criminal procedure law.
(ii) An incarcerated individual who successfully completes an
alternative-to-shock-incarceration program within the department of
corrections and community supervision shall be treated in the same
manner as a person who has successfully completed the shock
incarceration program, as set forth in subdivision four of section eight
hundred sixty-seven of the correction law.
Authorized dispositions; other class A, B, certain C and D
felonies and multiple felony offenders.
1. Applicability. Except as provided in section 60.04 of this article
governing the authorized dispositions applicable to felony offenses
defined in article two hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-one of this
chapter or in section 60.13 of this article governing the authorized
dispositions applicable to felony sex offenses defined in paragraph (a)
of subdivision one of section 70.80 of this title, this section shall
govern the dispositions authorized when a person is to be sentenced upon
a conviction of a class A felony, a class B felony or a class C, class D
or class E felony specified herein, or when a person is to be sentenced
upon a conviction of a felony as a multiple felony offender.
2. Class A felony. Except as provided in subdivisions three and four
of section 70.06 of this chapter, every person convicted of a class A
felony must be sentenced to imprisonment in accordance with section
70.00 of this title, unless such person is convicted of murder in the
first degree and is sentenced in accordance with section 60.06 of this
article.
3. Class B felony. Except as provided in subdivision six of this
section, every person convicted of a class B violent felony offense as
defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of this title, must be
sentenced to imprisonment in accordance with such section 70.02; and,
except as provided in subdivision six of this section, every person
convicted of any other class B felony must be sentenced to imprisonment
in accordance with section 70.00 of this title.
4. Certain class C felonies. Except as provided in subdivision six,
every person convicted of a class C violent felony offense as defined in
subdivision one of section 70.02 of this title, must be sentenced to
imprisonment in accordance with section 70.02 of this title; and, except
as provided in subdivision six of this section, every person convicted
of the class C felonies of: attempt to commit any of the class B
felonies of bribery in the first degree as defined in section 200.04,
bribe receiving in the first degree as defined in section 200.12,
conspiracy in the second degree as defined in section 105.15 and
criminal mischief in the first degree as defined in section 145.12;
criminal usury in the first degree as defined in section 190.42,
rewarding official misconduct in the first degree as defined in section
200.22, receiving reward for official misconduct in the first degree as
defined in section 200.27, attempt to promote prostitution in the first
degree as defined in section 230.32, promoting prostitution in the
second degree as defined in section 230.30, arson in the third degree as
defined in section 150.10 of this chapter, must be sentenced to
imprisonment in accordance with section 70.00 of this title.
5. Certain class D felonies. Except as provided in subdivision six of
this section, every person convicted of the class D felonies of assault
in the second degree as defined in section 120.05, strangulation in the
second degree as defined in section 121.12 or attempt to commit a class
C felony as defined in section 230.30 of this chapter, must be sentenced
in accordance with section 70.00 or 85.00 of this title.
6. Multiple felony offender. When the court imposes sentence upon a
second violent felony offender, as defined in section 70.04, or a second
felony offender, as defined in section 70.06, the court must impose a
sentence of imprisonment in accordance with section 70.04 or 70.06, as
the case may be, unless it imposes a sentence of imprisonment in
accordance with section 70.08 or 70.10.
7. Fines. Where the court imposes a sentence of imprisonment in
accordance with this section, the court also may impose a fine
authorized by article eighty and in such case the sentence shall be both
imprisonment and a fine.
8. Shock incarceration participation. (a) When the court imposes a
determinate sentence of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision three of
section 70.02 of this chapter or subdivision six of section 70.06 of
this chapter upon a person who stands convicted either of burglary in
the second degree as defined in subdivision two of section 140.25 of
this chapter or robbery in the second degree as defined in subdivision
one of section 160.10 of this chapter, or an attempt thereof, upon
motion of the defendant, the court may issue an order directing that the
department of corrections and community supervision enroll the defendant
in the shock incarceration program as defined in article twenty-six-A of
the correction law, provided that the defendant is an eligible
incarcerated individual, as described in subdivision one of section
eight hundred sixty-five of the correction law. Notwithstanding the
foregoing provisions of this subdivision, any defendant to be enrolled
in such program pursuant to this subdivision shall be governed by the
same rules and regulations promulgated by the department of corrections
and community supervision, including without limitation those rules and
regulations establishing requirements for completion and such rules and
regulations governing discipline and removal from the program.
(b) Paragraph b of subdivision seven of section 60.04 of this article
shall apply in the event an incarcerated individual designated by court
order for enrollment in the shock incarceration program requires a
degree of medical care or mental health care that cannot be provided at
a shock incarceration facility.
Authorized disposition; murder in the first degree offenders;
aggravated murder offenders; certain murder in the second
degree offenders; certain terrorism offenders; criminal
possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon
offenders; criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon offenders.
When a defendant is convicted of murder in the first degree as defined
in section 125.27 of this chapter, the court shall, in accordance with
the provisions of section 400.27 of the criminal procedure law, sentence
the defendant to death, to life imprisonment without parole in
accordance with subdivision five of section 70.00 of this title, or to a
term of imprisonment for a class A-I felony other than a sentence of
life imprisonment without parole, in accordance with subdivisions one
through three of section 70.00 of this title. When a person is convicted
of murder in the second degree as defined in subdivision five of section
125.25 of this chapter or of the crime of aggravated murder as defined
in subdivision one of section 125.26 of this chapter, the court shall
sentence the defendant to life imprisonment without parole in accordance
with subdivision five of section 70.00 of this title. When a defendant
is convicted of the crime of terrorism as defined in section 490.25 of
this chapter, and the specified offense the defendant committed is a
class A-I felony offense, or when a defendant is convicted of the crime
of criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
first degree as defined in section 490.45 of this chapter, or when a
defendant is convicted of the crime of criminal use of a chemical weapon
or biological weapon in the first degree as defined in section 490.55 of
this chapter, the court shall sentence the defendant to life
imprisonment without parole in accordance with subdivision five of
section 70.00 of this title; provided, however, that nothing in this
section shall preclude or prevent a sentence of death when the defendant
is also convicted of murder in the first degree as defined in section
125.27 of this chapter. When a defendant is convicted of aggravated
murder as defined in subdivision two of section 125.26 of this chapter,
the court shall sentence the defendant to life imprisonment without
parole or to a term of imprisonment for a class A-I felony other than a
sentence of life imprisonment without parole, in accordance with
subdivisions one through three of section 70.00 of this title.
Authorized disposition; criminal attack on operators of for-hire
vehicles.
1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, when a
court has found, pursuant to the provisions of section 200.61 of the
criminal procedure law, both that a person has been convicted of a
specified offense as defined in subdivision two of this section and the
victim of such offense was operating a for-hire vehicle in the course of
providing for-hire vehicle services at the time of the commission of
such offense, the sentence of imprisonment imposed upon conviction for
such offense shall be the sentence authorized by the applicable
provisions of article seventy of this chapter, provided, however, that
the minimum term of an indeterminate sentence or minimum determinate
sentence shall be not less than three years nor more than five years
greater than the minimum term or sentence otherwise required to be
imposed pursuant to such provisions. The provisions of this subdivision
shall not apply where the court, having regard to the nature and
circumstances of the crime and the history and character of the
defendant, finds on the record that such additional term or sentence
would be unduly harsh and that not imposing such additional term or
sentence would be consistent with the public safety and would not
deprecate the seriousness of the crime.
2. For purposes of this section:
(a) the term "specified offense" shall mean an attempt to commit
murder in the second degree as defined in section 125.25 of this
chapter, gang assault in the first degree as defined in section 120.07
of this chapter, gang assault in the second degree as defined in section
120.06 of this chapter, assault in the first degree as defined in
section 120.10 of this chapter, manslaughter in the first degree as
defined in section 125.20 of this chapter, manslaughter in the second
degree as defined in section 125.15 of this chapter, robbery in the
first degree as defined in section 160.15 of this chapter, robbery in
the second degree as defined in section 160.10 of this chapter, or the
attempted commission of any of the following offenses: gang assault in
the first degree as defined in section 120.07, assault in the first
degree as defined in section 120.10, manslaughter in the first degree as
defined in section 125.20 or robbery in the first degree as defined in
section 160.15;
(b) the term "for-hire vehicle" shall mean a vehicle designed to carry
not more than five passengers for compensation and such vehicle is a
taxicab, as defined in section one hundred forty-eight-a of the vehicle
and traffic law, a livery, as such term is defined in section one
hundred twenty-one-e of the vehicle and traffic law, or a "black car",
as such term is defined in paragraph (g) of this subdivision;
(c) the term "livery car base" shall mean a central facility, wherever
located, that dispatches a livery operator to both pick-up and discharge
passengers in the state;
(d) "for-hire vehicle services" shall mean:
(i) with respect to a taxicab, the transport of passengers pursuant to
a license or permit issued by a local authority by a person duly
authorized to operate such taxicab;
(ii) with respect to a livery, the transport of passengers by a livery
operator while affiliated with a livery car base; or
(iii) with respect to a "black car", the transport of passengers by a
"black car operator" pursuant to dispatches from or by a central
dispatch facility regardless of where the pick-up and discharge occurs,
and, with respect to dispatches from or by a central dispatch facility
located outside the state, all dispatches involving a pick-up in the
state, regardless of where the discharge occurs.
(e) "livery operator" shall mean the registered owner of a livery, as
such term is defined in section one hundred twenty-one-e of the vehicle
and traffic law, or a driver designated by such registered owner to
operate the registered owner's livery as the registered owner's
authorized designee, where such registered owner or driver provides
services while affiliated with a livery car base;
(f) "black car operator" shall mean the registered owner of a "black
car" or a driver designated by such registered owner to operate the
registered owner's black car as the registered owner's authorized
designee; and
(g) "black car" shall mean a for-hire vehicle dispatched from a
central facility, which has certified to the satisfaction of the
department of state pursuant to article six-F of the executive law that
more than ninety percent of the central facility's for-hire business is
on a payment basis other than direct cash payment by a passenger.
Authorized dispositions; resentencing of certain controlled
substance offenders.
Any person convicted of an offense and sentenced to prison for an
indeterminate sentence, the minimum of which was at least one year and
the maximum of which was life imprisonment, which sentence was imposed
pursuant to chapter two hundred seventy-six, two hundred seventy-seven,
two hundred seventy-eight, or ten hundred fifty-one of the laws of
nineteen hundred seventy-three, and for which such sentence was imposed
upon conviction of the crime of criminal possession of a controlled
substance in the first degree, criminal possession of a controlled
substance in the second degree, criminal possession of a controlled
substance in the third degree, criminal sale of a controlled substance
in the first degree, criminal sale of a controlled substance in the
second degree, or criminal sale of a controlled substance in the third
degree, and the sole controlled substance involved was methadone, may
apply, upon notice to the appropriate district attorney, for
resentencing in the court which originally imposed sentence.
Such resentencing shall, unless substantial justice dictates
otherwise, be pursuant to the current provisions of the penal law, and
shall include credit for any jail time incurred upon the subject
conviction as well as credit for any period of incarceration incurred
pursuant to the sentence originally imposed.
In cases where the proof before the court is not available or is not
sufficiently reliable to determine the amount of methadone present in
any preparation, compound, mixture or substance containing methadone,
there shall exist a rebuttable presumption that each ounce of the
preparation, compound, mixture or substance contained sixty milligrams
of methadone.
Authorized dispositions; resentencing of certain persons
convicted of specified controlled substance offenses.
a. Any person convicted of an offense as defined in section 115.05,
220.16, 220.18, 220.39 or 220.41 of this chapter or of an attempt
thereof, for an act committed on or after September first, nineteen
hundred seventy-three but prior to the date on which the provisions of
this section become effective, may, upon notice to the appropriate
district attorney, apply for resentencing in the court which originally
imposed sentence. Such resentencing shall be in accordance with the
provisions of subdivision (b) of this section and shall include credit
for any jail time incurred upon the subject conviction as well as credit
for any period of incarceration incurred pursuant to the sentence
originally imposed.
b. A court, upon an application specified in subdivision (a) of this
section may resentence a person as follows:
(i) if the conviction was for a class A-III offense the court may
impose a new maximum term which shall be no less than three times the
amount of the minimum term imposed in the original sentence and no more
than twenty-five years;
(ii) if the conviction was for a class A-II offense the court may
impose a new minimum term which shall be no less than three years
imprisonment and no more than eight and one-third years;
(iii) upon resentence of a person as specified in paragraph (i) of
this subdivision the court shall resentence the person to the same
minimum term previously imposed;
(iv) upon resentence of a person as specified in paragraph (ii) of
this subdivision the court shall impose a maximum term of life
imprisonment;
(v) if the conviction was for an offense as specified in section
115.05 of this chapter and the offense which was the object of the
criminal facilitation was a class A-III felony then the court shall set
aside the conviction and substitute it with a conviction for violation
of section 115.01 or 115.00 of this chapter, whichever is appropriate
under the facts of the case, and impose a sentence in accordance with
those provisions.
c. Upon resentence as provided in this section the court may not
impose a sentence greater than the sentence previously imposed.
Authorized disposition; juvenile offender.
1. When a juvenile offender is convicted of a crime, the court shall
sentence the defendant to imprisonment in accordance with section 70.05
or sentence him upon a youthful offender finding in accordance with
section 60.02 of this chapter.
2. Subdivision one of this section shall apply when sentencing a
juvenile offender notwithstanding the provisions of any other law that
deals with the authorized sentence for persons who are not juvenile
offenders. Provided, however, that the limitation prescribed by this
section shall not be deemed or construed to bar use of a conviction of a
juvenile offender, other than a juvenile offender who has been
adjudicated a youthful offender pursuant to section 720.20 of the
criminal procedure law, as a previous or predicate felony offender under
section 70.04, 70.06, 70.08 or 70.10, when sentencing a person who
commits a felony after he has reached the age of sixteen.
Authorized disposition; adolescent offender.
When an adolescent offender is convicted of an offense, the court
shall sentence the defendant to any sentence authorized to be imposed on
a person who committed such offense at age eighteen or older. When a
sentence is imposed, the court shall consider the age of the defendant
in exercising its discretion at sentencing.
Authorized dispositions; criminal possession of a weapon in the
fourth degree.
When a person is to be sentenced upon a conviction of the crime of
criminal possession of a weapon in the fourth degree as defined in
subdivision one of section 265.01 as a result of a plea of guilty
entered in satisfaction of an indictment or count thereof charging the
defendant with the class D violent felony offense of criminal possession
of a weapon in the third degree as defined in subdivision four of
section 265.02, the court must sentence the defendant in accordance with
the provisions of section 70.15.
Authorized dispositions; certain criminal possession of a
weapon in the third degree offenders.
When a person is to be sentenced upon conviction of the crime of
criminal possession of a weapon in the third degree as defined in
subdivision ten of section 265.02 of this chapter, the court must
sentence such defendant to a determinate sentence as provided in
subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (c) of subdivision three of section 70.02
of this chapter, unless a greater minimum sentence is otherwise required
by another provision of this chapter.
Authorized disposition; alternative sentence; domestic violence
cases.
1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, where a court is
imposing sentence upon a person pursuant to section 70.00, 70.02, 70.06
or subdivision two or three of section 70.71 of this title, other than
for an offense defined in section 125.26, 125.27, subdivision five of
section 125.25, or article 490 of this chapter, or for an offense which
would require such person to register as a sex offender pursuant to
article six-C of the correction law, an attempt or conspiracy to commit
any such offense, and is authorized or required pursuant to sections
70.00, 70.02, 70.06 or subdivision two or three of section 70.71 of this
title to impose a sentence of imprisonment, the court, upon a
determination following a hearing that (a) at the time of the instant
offense, the defendant was a victim of domestic violence subjected to
substantial physical, sexual or psychological abuse inflicted by a
member of the same family or household as the defendant as such term is
defined in subdivision one of section 530.11 of the criminal procedure
law; (b) such abuse was a significant contributing factor to the
defendant's criminal behavior; (c) having regard for the nature and
circumstances of the crime and the history, character and condition of
the defendant, that a sentence of imprisonment pursuant to section
70.00, 70.02, 70.06 or subdivision two or three of section 70.71 of this
title would be unduly harsh may instead impose a sentence in accordance
with this section.
A court may determine that such abuse constitutes a significant
contributing factor pursuant to paragraph (b) of this subdivision
regardless of whether the defendant raised a defense pursuant to article
thirty-five, article forty, or subdivision one of section 125.25 of this
chapter.
At the hearing to determine whether the defendant should be sentenced
pursuant to this section, the court shall consider oral and written
arguments, take testimony from witnesses offered by either party, and
consider relevant evidence to assist in making its determination.
Reliable hearsay shall be admissible at such hearings.
2. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence
pursuant to section 70.02 of this title, the court may impose a definite
sentence of imprisonment of one year or less, or probation in accordance
with the provisions of section 65.00 of this title, or may fix a
determinate term of imprisonment as follows:
(a) For a class B felony, the term must be at least one year and must
not exceed five years;
(b) For a class C felony, the term must be at least one year and must
not exceed three and one-half years;
(c) For a class D felony, the term must be at least one year and must
not exceed two years; and
(d) For a class E felony, the term must be one year and must not
exceed one and one-half years.
3. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class A felony offense pursuant to section 70.00 of this title, the
court may fix a determinate term of imprisonment of at least five years
and not to exceed fifteen years.
4. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class A felony offense pursuant to subparagraph (i) of paragraph (b)
of subdivision two of section 70.71 of this title, the court may fix a
determinate term of imprisonment of at least five years and not to
exceed eight years.
5. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class A felony offense pursuant to subparagraph (i) of paragraph (b)
of subdivision three of section 70.71 of this title, the court may fix a
determinate term of imprisonment of at least five years and not to
exceed twelve years.
6. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class A felony offense pursuant to subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b)
of subdivision two of section 70.71 of this title, the court may fix a
determinate term of imprisonment of at least one year and not to exceed
three years.
7. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class A felony offense pursuant to subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b)
of subdivision three of section 70.71 of this title, the court may fix a
determinate term of imprisonment of at least three years and not to
exceed six years.
8. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence
pursuant to subdivision six of section 70.06 of this title, the court
may fix a term of imprisonment as follows:
(a) For a class B felony, the term must be at least three years and
must not exceed eight years;
(b) For a class C felony, the term must be at least two and one-half
years and must not exceed five years;
(c) For a class D felony, the term must be at least two years and must
not exceed three years;
(d) For a class E felony, the term must be at least one and one-half
years and must not exceed two years.
9. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence for
a class B, C, D or E felony offense pursuant to section 70.00 of this
title, the court may impose a sentence in accordance with the provisions
of subdivision two of section 70.70 of this title.
10. Except as provided in subdivision seven of this section, where a
court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence pursuant to
subdivision three of section 70.06 of this title, the court may impose a
sentence in accordance with the provisions of subdivision three of
section 70.70 of this title.
11. Where a court would otherwise be required to impose a sentence
pursuant to subdivision three of section 70.06 of this title, where the
prior felony conviction was for a felony offense defined in section
70.02 of this title, the court may impose a sentence in accordance with
the provisions of subdivision four of section 70.70 of this title.
Authorized dispositions; felony sex offenses.
When a person is to be sentenced upon a conviction for any felony
defined in article one hundred thirty of this chapter, including a
sexually motivated felony, or patronizing a person for prostitution in
the first degree as defined in section 230.06 of this chapter,
aggravated patronizing a minor for prostitution in the third degree as
defined in section 230.11 of this chapter, aggravated patronizing a
minor for prostitution in the second degree as defined in section 230.12
of this chapter, aggravated patronizing a minor for prostitution in the
first degree as defined in section 230.13 of this chapter, incest in the
second degree as defined in section 255.26 of this chapter, or incest in
the first degree as defined in section 255.27 of this chapter, or a
felony attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these crimes, the court
must sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of section
70.80 of this title.
Authorized dispositions; traffic infraction.
1. When a person is convicted of a traffic infraction, the sentence of
the court shall be as follows:
(a) A period of conditional discharge, as provided in article
sixty-five; or
(b) Unconditional discharge as provided in section 65.20; or
(c) A fine or a sentence to a term of imprisonment, or both, as
prescribed in and authorized by the provision that defines the
infraction; or
(d) A sentence of intermittent imprisonment, as provided in article
eighty-five.
2. Where a sentence of conditional discharge is imposed for a traffic
infraction, all incidents of the sentence shall be the same as would be
applicable if the sentence were for a violation.
Authorized dispositions; driving while intoxicated or aggravated
driving while intoxicated.
Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of subdivision two of section 60.01 of
this article, when a person is to be sentenced upon a conviction for a
violation of subdivision two, two-a or three of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law, the court may sentence such
person to a period of imprisonment authorized by article seventy of this
title and shall sentence such person to a period of probation or
conditional discharge in accordance with the provisions of section 65.00
of this title and shall order the installation and maintenance of a
functioning ignition interlock device. Such period of probation or
conditional discharge shall run consecutively to any period of
imprisonment and shall commence immediately upon such person's release
from imprisonment.
Authorized dispositions; corporation.
When a corporation is convicted of an offense, the sentence of the
court shall be as follows:
(a) A fine authorized by section 80.10; or
(b) Where authorized by section 65.05, a period of conditional
discharge as provided in that section; or
(c) Where authorized by section 65.20, unconditional discharge as
provided in that section.
In any case where a corporation has been sentenced to a period of
conditional discharge and such sentence is revoked, the court shall
sentence the corporation to pay a fine.
Restitution and reparation.
1. In addition to any of the dispositions authorized by this article,
the court shall consider restitution or reparation to the victim of the
crime and may require restitution or reparation as part of the sentence
imposed upon a person convicted of an offense, and after providing the
district attorney with an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the
provisions of this subdivision, require the defendant to make
restitution of the fruits of his or her offense or reparation for the
actual out-of-pocket loss caused thereby and, in the case of a violation
of section 190.78, 190.79, 190.80, 190.82 or 190.83 of this chapter, any
costs or losses incurred due to any adverse action taken against the
victim. The district attorney shall where appropriate, advise the court
at or before the time of sentencing that the victim seeks restitution or
reparation, the extent of injury or economic loss or damage of the
victim, and the amount of restitution or reparation sought by the victim
in accordance with his or her responsibilities under subdivision two of
section 390.50 of the criminal procedure law and article twenty-three of
the executive law. The court shall hear and consider the information
presented by the district attorney in this regard. In that event, or
when the victim impact statement reports that the victim seeks
restitution or reparation, the court shall require, unless the interests
of justice dictate otherwise, in addition to any of the dispositions
authorized by this article that the defendant make restitution of the
fruits of the offense and reparation for the actual out-of-pocket loss
and, in the case of a violation of section 190.78, 190.79, 190.80,
190.82 or 190.83 of this chapter, any costs or losses incurred due to
any adverse action, caused thereby to the victim. In the event that
restitution or reparation are not ordered, the court shall clearly state
its reasons on the record. Adverse action as used in this subdivision
shall mean and include actual loss incurred by the victim, including an
amount equal to the value of the time reasonably spent by the victim
attempting to remediate the harm incurred by the victim from the
offense, and the consequential financial losses from such action.
2. Whenever the court requires restitution or reparation to be made,
the court must make a finding as to the dollar amount of the fruits of
the offense and the actual out-of-pocket loss to the victim caused by
the offense. In making this finding, the court must consider any victim
impact statement provided to the court. If the record does not contain
sufficient evidence to support such finding or upon request by the
defendant, the court must conduct a hearing upon the issue in accordance
with the procedure set forth in section 400.30 of the criminal procedure
law.
3. The provisions of sections 420.10, 420.20 and 420.30 of the
criminal procedure law shall apply in the collection and remission of
restitution and reparation.
4. For purposes of the imposition, determination and collection of
restitution or reparation, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) the term "offense" shall include the offense for which a defendant
was convicted, as well as any other offense that is part of the same
criminal transaction or that is contained in any other accusatory
instrument disposed of by any plea of guilty by the defendant to an
offense.
(b) the term "victim" shall include the victim of the offense, the
representative of a crime victim as defined in subdivision six of
section six hundred twenty-one of the executive law, an individual whose
identity was assumed or whose personal identifying information was used
in violation of section 190.78, 190.79 or 190.80 of this chapter, or any
person who has suffered a financial loss as a direct result of the acts
of a defendant in violation of section 190.78, 190.79, 190.80, 190.82 or
190.83 of this chapter, a good samaritan as defined in section six
hundred twenty-one of the executive law and the office of victim
services or other governmental agency that has received an application
for or has provided financial assistance or compensation to the victim.
A victim shall also mean any owner or lawful producer of a master
recording, or a trade association that represents such owner or lawful
producer, that has suffered injury as a result of an offense as defined
in article two hundred seventy-five of this chapter.
5. (a) Except upon consent of the defendant or as provided in
paragraph (b) of this subdivision, or as a condition of probation or
conditional discharge as provided in paragraph (g) of subdivision two of
section 65.10 of this chapter, the amount of restitution or reparation
required by the court shall not exceed fifteen thousand dollars in the
case of a conviction for a felony, or ten thousand dollars in the case
of a conviction for any offense other than a felony. Notwithstanding the
provisions of this subdivision, if an officer of a school district is
convicted of violating any section of article one hundred fifty-five of
this chapter where the victim of such crime is such officer's school
district, the court may require an amount of restitution up to the full
amount of the fruits of the offense or reparation up to the full amount
of the actual out-of-pocket loss suffered by the victim, provided
further that in such case the provisions of paragraph (b) of this
subdivision shall not apply.
(b) The court in its discretion may impose restitution or reparation
in excess of the amounts specified in paragraph (a) of this subdivision,
provided however that the amount in excess must be limited to the return
of the victim's property, including money, or the equivalent value
thereof; and reimbursement for medical expenses actually incurred by the
victim prior to sentencing as a result of the offense committed by the
defendant.
(c) If a corporation is found guilty of an offense involving the death
or serious physical injury of an employee in violation of subparagraph
(iv) of paragraph (c) of subdivision two of section 20.20 of this
chapter, the court may order restitution or reparation in excess of the
amounts specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subdivision.
6. Any payment made as restitution or reparation pursuant to this
section shall not limit, preclude or impair any liability for damages in
any civil action or proceeding for an amount in excess of such payment.
7. In the event that the court requires restitution or reparation to
be made to a person and that person dies prior to the completion of said
restitution or reparation, the remaining payments shall be made to the
estate of the deceased.
8. The court shall in all cases where restitution or reparation is
imposed direct as part of the disposition that the defendant pay a
designated surcharge of five percent of the entire amount of a
restitution or reparation payment to the official or organization
designated pursuant to subdivision eight of section 420.10 of the
criminal procedure law. The designated surcharge shall not exceed five
percent of the amount actually collected. Upon the filing of an
affidavit of the official or organization designated pursuant to
subdivision eight of section 420.10 of the criminal procedure law
demonstrating that the actual cost of the collection and administration
of restitution or reparation in a particular case exceeds five percent
of the entire amount of the payment or the amount actually collected, as
the case may be, the court shall direct that the defendant pay an
additional surcharge of not more than five percent of the entire amount
of a restitution or reparation payment to such official or organization,
or the actual cost of collection or administration, whichever is less
unless, upon application of the defendant, the court determines that
imposition of such additional surcharge would cause undue hardship to
the defendant, or any other person who is financially supported by the
defendant, or would otherwise not be in the interest of justice. Such
additional surcharge, when added to the initial five percent surcharge,
shall not exceed ten percent of the amount actually collected.
9. If the offense of which a person is convicted is a class A, class
B, class C, or class D felony involving the sale of a controlled
substance, as defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter, and
no other victim who is a person is seeking restitution in the case, the
term "victim" as used in this section, in addition to its ordinary
meaning, shall mean any law enforcement agency of the state of New York
or of any subdivision thereof which has expended funds in the purchase
of any controlled substance from such person or his agent as part of the
investigation leading to such conviction. Any restitution which may be
required to be made to a law enforcement agency pursuant to this section
shall be limited to the amount of funds expended in the actual purchase
of such controlled substance by such law enforcement agency, less the
amount of any funds which have been or will be recovered from any other
source, and shall not include a designated surcharge pursuant to
subdivision eight of this section. Any law enforcement agency seeking
restitution pursuant to this section shall file with the court and the
district attorney an affidavit stating that funds expended in the actual
purchase of a controlled substance for which restitution is being sought
have not been and will not be recovered from any other source or in any
other civil or criminal proceeding. Any law enforcement agency receiving
restitution pursuant to this section shall promptly transmit to the
commissioner of the division of criminal justice services a report
stating the dollar amount of the restitution received.
10. If the offense of which a person is convicted is defined in
section 150.10, 150.15 or 150.20 of this chapter, and no other victim
who is a person is seeking restitution in the case, the term "victim" as
used in this section, in addition to its ordinary meaning, shall mean
any municipality or volunteer fire company which has expended funds or
will expend funds for the purpose of restoration, rehabilitation or
clean-up of the site of the arson. Any restitution which may be required
to be made to a municipality or volunteer fire company pursuant to this
section shall be limited to the amount of funds reasonably expended or
to be expended for the purpose of restoration, rehabilitation or
clean-up of the site of the arson, less the amount of any funds which
have been or will be recovered from any other source, and shall not
include a designated surcharge pursuant to subdivision eight of this
section. Any municipality or volunteer fire company seeking restitution
pursuant to this section shall file with the court, district attorney
and defense counsel an affidavit stating that the funds reasonably
expended or to be expended for which restitution is being sought have
not been and will not be recovered from any other source or in any other
civil or criminal proceeding. For the purposes of this subdivision,
"volunteer fire company" means a fire company as defined in paragraph a
of subdivision two of section one hundred of the general municipal law.
11. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section to the
contrary, when a person is convicted of harming an animal trained to aid
a person with a disability in the second degree as defined in section
195.11 of this chapter, or harming an animal trained to aid a person
with a disability in the first degree as defined in section 195.12 of
this chapter, the court, in addition to any other sentence, shall order
the payment of restitution to the person with a disability who was aided
by such animal.
12. If the offense of which a person is convicted is defined in
section 155.25, 155.30, 155.35, 155.40 or 155.42 of this chapter, and
the property taken is timber, the court may upon conviction, in addition
to any other sentence, direct the defendant to pay the rightful owner of
such timber an amount equal to treble the stumpage value of the timber
stolen as defined in section 71-0703 of the environmental conservation
law and for any permanent and substantial damage caused to the land or
the improvements thereon as a result of such violation. Such reparations
shall be of such kind, nature and extent as will reasonably restore the
lands affected by the violation to their condition immediately before
the violation and may be made by physical restoration of such lands
and/or by the assessment of monetary payment to make such restoration.
13. If the offense of which a person is convicted is defined in
section 240.50, subdivision one or two of section 240.55, section
240.60, section 240.61, section 240.62 or section 240.63 of this
chapter, and no other victim who is a person is seeking restitution in
the case, the term "victim" as used in this subdivision, in addition to
the ordinary meaning, shall mean any school, municipality, fire
district, fire company, fire corporation, ambulance association,
ambulance corporation, or other legal or public entity engaged in
providing emergency services which has expended funds for the purpose of
responding to a false report of an incident or false bomb as defined in
section 240.50, subdivision one or two of section 240.55, section
240.60, section 240.61, section 240.62, or section 240.63 of this
chapter. Any restitution which may be required to be made to a victim
pursuant to this subdivision shall be limited to the amount of funds
reasonably expended for the purpose of responding to such false report
of incident or false bomb, less the amount of any funds which have been
or will be recovered from any other source and shall not include a
designated surcharge pursuant to subdivision eight of this section. Any
victim seeking restitution pursuant to this subdivision shall file with
the court, district attorney and defense counsel an affidavit stating
that the funds reasonably expended for which restitution is being sought
have not been and will not be recovered from any other source or in any
other civil or criminal proceeding, except as provided for by section
3-112 of the general obligations law.
14. Where a transfer of probation has occurred pursuant to section
410.80 of the criminal procedure law and the probationer is subject to a
restitution condition, the department of probation in the county in
which the order of restitution was imposed shall notify the appropriate
district attorney. Upon notification by the department of probation,
such district attorney shall file a certified copy of the judgment with
the clerk of the county in the receiving jurisdiction for purposes of
establishing a first lien and to permit institution of civil proceedings
pursuant to the provisions of subdivision six of section 420.10 of the
criminal procedure law.
Authorized disposition; making graffiti and possession of
graffiti instruments.
When a person is convicted of an offense defined in section 145.60 or
145.65 of this chapter, or of an attempt to commit such offense, and the
sentence imposed by the court for such conviction includes a sentence of
probation or conditional discharge, the court shall, where appropriate,
include as a condition of such sentence the defendant's successful
participation in a graffiti removal program pursuant to paragraph (h) of
subdivision two of section 65.10 of this chapter.
Authorized disposition; cemetery desecration.
When a person is convicted of an offense defined in section 145.22 or
145.23 of this chapter or of an attempt to commit such an offense, and
the sentence imposed by the court for such conviction includes a
sentence of probation or conditional discharge, such sentence shall,
where appropriate, be in accordance with paragraph (h) of subdivision
two of section 65.10 of this article as such section relates to cemetery
crime.
Civil penalties.
This article does not deprive the court of any authority conferred by
law to decree a forfeiture of property, suspend or cancel a license,
remove a person from office, or impose any other civil penalty and any
appropriate order exercising such authority may be included as part of
the judgment of conviction.
Mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA databank
fee, supplemental sex offender victim fee and crime victim
assistance fee required in certain cases.
1. (a) Except as provided in section eighteen hundred nine of the
vehicle and traffic law and section 27.12 of the parks, recreation and
historic preservation law, whenever proceedings in an administrative
tribunal or a court of this state result in a conviction for a felony, a
misdemeanor, or a violation, as these terms are defined in section 10.00
of this chapter, there shall be levied at sentencing a mandatory
surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA databank fee and a crime
victim assistance fee in addition to any sentence required or permitted
by law, in accordance with the following schedule:
(i) a person convicted of a felony shall pay a mandatory surcharge of
three hundred dollars and a crime victim assistance fee of twenty-five
dollars;
(ii) a person convicted of a misdemeanor shall pay a mandatory
surcharge of one hundred seventy-five dollars and a crime victim
assistance fee of twenty-five dollars;
(iii) a person convicted of a violation shall pay a mandatory
surcharge of ninety-five dollars and a crime victim assistance fee of
twenty-five dollars;
(iv) a person convicted of a sex offense as defined by subdivision two
of section one hundred sixty-eight-a of the correction law or a sexually
violent offense as defined by subdivision three of section one hundred
sixty-eight-a of the correction law shall, in addition to a mandatory
surcharge and crime victim assistance fee, pay a sex offender
registration fee of fifty dollars.
(v) a person convicted of a designated offense as defined by
subdivision seven of section nine hundred ninety-five of the executive
law shall, in addition to a mandatory surcharge and crime victim
assistance fee, pay a DNA databank fee of fifty dollars.
(b) When the felony or misdemeanor conviction in subparagraphs (i),
(ii) or (iv) of paragraph (a) of this subdivision results from an
offense contained in article one hundred thirty of this chapter, incest
in the third, second or first degree as defined in sections 255.25,
255.26 and 255.27 of this chapter or an offense contained in article two
hundred sixty-three of this chapter, the person convicted shall pay a
supplemental sex offender victim fee of one thousand dollars in addition
to the mandatory surcharge and any other fee.
2. Where a person is convicted of two or more crimes or violations
committed through a single act or omission, or through an act or
omission which in itself constituted one of the crimes or violations and
also was a material element of the other, the court shall impose a
mandatory surcharge and a crime victim assistance fee, and where
appropriate a supplemental sex offender victim fee, in accordance with
the provisions of this section for the crime or violation which carries
the highest classification, and no other sentence to pay a mandatory
surcharge, crime victim assistance fee or supplemental sex offender
victim fee required by this section shall be imposed. Where a person is
convicted of two or more sex offenses or sexually violent offenses, as
defined by subdivisions two and three of section one hundred
sixty-eight-a of the correction law, committed through a single act or
omission, or through an act or omission which in itself constituted one
of the offenses and also was a material element of the other, the court
shall impose only one sex offender registration fee. Where a person is
convicted of two or more designated offenses, as defined by subdivision
seven of section nine hundred ninety-five of the executive law,
committed through a single act or omission, or through an act or
omission which in itself constituted one of the offenses and also was a
material element of the other, the court shall impose only one DNA
databank fee.
3. The mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA
databank fee, crime victim assistance fee, and supplemental sex offender
victim fee provided for in subdivision one of this section shall be paid
to the clerk of the court or administrative tribunal that rendered the
conviction. Within the first ten days of the month following collection
of the mandatory surcharge, crime victim assistance fee, and
supplemental sex offender victim fee, the collecting authority shall
determine the amount of mandatory surcharge, crime victim assistance
fee, and supplemental sex offender victim fee collected and, if it is an
administrative tribunal, or a town or village justice court, it shall
then pay such money to the state comptroller who shall deposit such
money in the state treasury pursuant to section one hundred twenty-one
of the state finance law to the credit of the criminal justice
improvement account established by section ninety-seven-bb of the state
finance law. Within the first ten days of the month following collection
of the sex offender registration fee and DNA databank fee, the
collecting authority shall determine the amount of the sex offender
registration fee and DNA databank fee collected and, if it is an
administrative tribunal, or a town or village justice court, it shall
then pay such money to the state comptroller who shall deposit such
money in the state treasury pursuant to section one hundred twenty-one
of the state finance law to the credit of the general fund. If such
collecting authority is any other court of the unified court system, it
shall, within such period, pay such money attributable to the mandatory
surcharge or crime victim assistance fee to the state commissioner of
taxation and finance to the credit of the criminal justice improvement
account established by section ninety-seven-bb of the state finance law.
If such collecting authority is any other court of the unified court
system, it shall, within such period, pay such money attributable to the
sex offender registration fee and the DNA databank fee to the state
commissioner of taxation and finance to the credit of the general fund.
4. Any person who has paid a mandatory surcharge, sex offender
registration fee, DNA databank fee, a crime victim assistance fee or a
supplemental sex offender victim fee under the authority of this section
based upon a conviction that is subsequently reversed or who paid a
mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA databank fee, a
crime victim assistance fee or supplemental sex offender victim fee
under the authority of this section which is ultimately determined not
to be required by this section shall be entitled to a refund of such
mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA databank fee,
crime victim assistance fee or supplemental sex offender victim fee upon
application, in the case of a town or village court, to the state
comptroller. The state comptroller shall require such proof as is
necessary in order to determine whether a refund is required by law. In
all other cases, such application shall be made to the department,
agency or court that collected such surcharge or fee. Such department,
agency or court shall initiate the refund process and the state
comptroller shall pay the refund pursuant to subdivision fifteen of
section eight of the state finance law.
5. When a person who is convicted of a crime or violation and
sentenced to a term of imprisonment has failed to pay the mandatory
surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA databank fee, crime victim
assistance fee or supplemental sex offender victim fee required by this
section, the clerk of the court that rendered the conviction shall
notify the superintendent or the municipal official of the facility
where the person is confined. The superintendent or the municipal
official shall cause any amount owing to be collected from such person
during his or her term of imprisonment from moneys to the credit of an
incarcerated individuals' fund or such moneys as may be earned by a
person in a work release program pursuant to section eight hundred sixty
of the correction law. Such moneys attributable to the mandatory
surcharge or crime victim assistance fee shall be paid over to the state
comptroller to the credit of the criminal justice improvement account
established by section ninety-seven-bb of the state finance law and such
moneys attributable to the sex offender registration fee or DNA databank
fee shall be paid over to the state comptroller to the credit of the
general fund, except that any such moneys collected which are
surcharges, sex offender registration fees, DNA databank fees, crime
victim assistance fees or supplemental sex offender victim fees levied
in relation to convictions obtained in a town or village justice court
shall be paid within thirty days after the receipt thereof by the
superintendent or municipal official of the facility to the justice of
the court in which the conviction was obtained. For the purposes of
collecting such mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee, DNA
databank fee, crime victim assistance fee and supplemental sex offender
victim fee, the state shall be legally entitled to the money to the
credit of an incarcerated individuals' fund or money which is earned by
an incarcerated individual in a work release program. For purposes of
this subdivision, the term "incarcerated individuals' fund" shall mean
moneys in the possession of an incarcerated individual at the time of
his or her admission into such facility, funds earned by him or her as
provided for in section one hundred eighty-seven of the correction law
and any other funds received by him or her or on his or her behalf and
deposited with such superintendent or municipal official.
6. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, where a person
has made restitution or reparation pursuant to section 60.27 of this
article, such person shall not be required to pay a mandatory surcharge
or a crime victim assistance fee.
7. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision one of section 60.00
of this article, the provisions of subdivision one of this section shall
not apply to a violation under any law other than this chapter.
8. Subdivision one of section 130.10 of the criminal procedure law
notwithstanding, at the time that the mandatory surcharge, sex offender
registration fee or DNA databank fee, crime victim assistance fee or
supplemental sex offender victim fee is imposed a town or village court
may, and all other courts shall, issue and cause to be served upon the
person required to pay the mandatory surcharge, sex offender
registration fee or DNA databank fee, crime victim assistance fee or
supplemental sex offender victim fee, a summons directing that such
person appear before the court regarding the payment of the mandatory
surcharge, sex offender registration fee or DNA databank fee, crime
victim assistance fee or supplemental sex offender victim fee, if after
sixty days from the date it was imposed it remains unpaid. The
designated date of appearance on the summons shall be set for the first
day court is in session falling after the sixtieth day from the
imposition of the mandatory surcharge, sex offender registration fee or
DNA databank fee, crime victim assistance fee or supplemental sex
offender victim fee. The summons shall contain the information required
by subdivision two of section 130.10 of the criminal procedure law
except that in substitution for the requirement of paragraph (c) of such
subdivision the summons shall state that the person served must appear
at a date, time and specific location specified in the summons if after
sixty days from the date of issuance the mandatory surcharge, sex
offender registration fee or DNA databank fee, crime victim assistance
fee or supplemental sex offender victim fee remains unpaid. The court
shall not issue a summons under this subdivision to a person who is
being sentenced to a term of confinement in excess of sixty days in jail
or in the department of corrections and community supervision. The
mandatory surcharges, sex offender registration fee and DNA databank
fees, crime victim assistance fees and supplemental sex offender victim
fees for those persons shall be governed by the provisions of section
60.30 of this article.
9. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision one of this section,
in the event a proceeding is in a town or village court, such court
shall add an additional five dollars to the surcharges imposed by such
subdivision one.
Authorized dispositions; driving while intoxicated offenses.
Where a court is imposing a sentence for a violation of subdivision
two, two-a, or three of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle
and traffic law pursuant to sections 65.00 or 65.05 of this title and,
as a condition of such sentence, orders the installation and maintenance
of an ignition interlock device, the court may impose any other penalty
authorized pursuant to section eleven hundred ninety-three of the
vehicle and traffic law.
Authorized disposition; certain offenses.
When a person has been charged with an offense and the elements of
such offense meet the criteria of an "eligible offense" and such person
qualifies as an "eligible person" as such terms are defined in section
four hundred fifty-eight-l of the social services law, the court may, as
a condition of adjournment in contemplation of dismissal in accordance
with section 170.55 of the criminal procedure law, or a condition of
probation or a conditional discharge, direct that the defendant
participate in an education reform program pursuant to subdivision two
of section four hundred fifty-eight-l of the social services law.
ARTICLE 65 Sentences of Probation, Conditional Discharge and Unconditional Discharge
Sentence of probation.
1. Criteria. (a) Except as otherwise required by section 60.04 or
60.05 of this title, and except as provided by paragraph (b) hereof, the
court may sentence a person to a period of probation upon conviction of
any crime if the court, having regard to the nature and circumstances of
the crime and to the history, character and condition of the defendant,
is of the opinion that:
(i) Institutional confinement for the term authorized by law of the
defendant is or may not be necessary for the protection of the public;
(ii) the defendant is in need of guidance, training or other
assistance which, in his case, can be effectively administered through
probation supervision; and
(iii) such disposition is not inconsistent with the ends of justice.
(b) The court, with the concurrence of either the administrative judge
of the court or of the judicial district within which the court is
situated or such administrative judge as the presiding justice of the
appropriate appellate division shall designate, may sentence a person to
a period of probation upon conviction of a class A-II felony defined in
article two hundred twenty, the class B felony defined in section 220.48
of this chapter or any other class B felony defined in article two
hundred twenty of this chapter where the person is a second felony drug
offender as defined in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 70.70
of this chapter, if the prosecutor either orally on the record or in a
writing filed with the indictment recommends that the court sentence
such person to a period of probation upon the ground that such person
has or is providing material assistance in the investigation,
apprehension or prosecution of any person for a felony defined in
article two hundred twenty or the attempt or the conspiracy to commit
any such felony, and if the court, having regard to the nature and
circumstances of the crime and to the history, character and condition
of the defendant is of the opinion that:
(i) Institutional confinement of the defendant is not necessary for
the protection of the public;
(ii) The defendant is in need of guidance, training or other
assistance which, in his case, can be effectively administered through
probation supervision;
(iii) The defendant has or is providing material assistance in the
investigation, apprehension or prosecution of a person for a felony
defined in article two hundred twenty or the attempt or conspiracy to
commit any such felony; and
(iv) Such disposition is not inconsistent with the ends of justice.
* Provided, however, that the court shall not, except to the extent
authorized by paragraph (d) of subdivision two of section 60.01 of this
chapter, impose a sentence of probation in any case where it sentences a
defendant for more than one crime and imposes a sentence of imprisonment
for any one of the crimes, or where the defendant is subject to an
undischarged indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment which
was imposed at a previous time by a court of this state and has more
than one year to run.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* Provided, however, that the court shall not, except to the extent
authorized by paragraph (d) of subdivision two of section 60.01 of this
chapter, impose a sentence of probation in any case where it sentences a
defendant for more than one crime and imposes a sentence of imprisonment
for any one of the crimes, or where the defendant is subject to an
undischarged indeterminate or reformatory sentence of imprisonment which
was imposed at a previous time by a court of this state and has more
than one year to run.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
2. Sentence. When a person is sentenced to a period of probation the
court shall, except to the extent authorized by paragraph (d) of
subdivision two of section 60.01 of this chapter, impose the period
authorized by subdivision three of this section and shall specify, in
accordance with section 65.10, the conditions to be complied with. The
court may modify or enlarge the conditions or, if the defendant commits
an additional offense or violates a condition, revoke the sentence at
any time prior to the expiration or termination of the period of
probation.
3. Periods of probation. Unless terminated sooner in accordance with
the criminal procedure law, the period of probation shall be as follows:
(a) (i) For a felony, other than a class A-II felony defined in
article two hundred twenty of this chapter or the class B felony defined
in section 220.48 of this chapter, or any other class B felony defined
in article two hundred twenty of this chapter committed by a second
felony drug offender, or a sexual assault, the period of probation shall
be a term of three, four or five years;
(ii) For a class A-II felony drug offender as defined in paragraph (a)
of subdivision one of section 70.71 of this chapter as described in
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of this section, or a class B felony
committed by a second felony drug offender described in paragraph (b) of
subdivision one of this section, the period of probation shall be life
and for a class B felony defined in section 220.48 of this chapter, the
period of probation shall be twenty-five years;
(iii) For a felony sexual assault, the period of probation shall be
ten years.
(b) (i) For a class A misdemeanor, other than a sexual assault, the
period of probation shall be a term of two or three years;
(ii) For a class A misdemeanor sexual assault, the period of probation
shall be six years.
(c) For a class B misdemeanor, the period of probation shall be one
year, except the period of probation shall be no less than one year and
no more than three years for the class B misdemeanor of public lewdness
as defined in section 245.00 of this chapter;
(d) For an unclassified misdemeanor, the period of probation shall be
a term of two or three years if the authorized sentence of imprisonment
is in excess of three months, otherwise the period of probation shall be
one year.
For the purposes of this section, the term "sexual assault" means an
offense defined in article one hundred thirty or two hundred
sixty-three, or in section 255.25, 255.26 or 255.27 of this chapter, or
an attempt to commit any of the foregoing offenses.
4. If during the periods of probation referenced in subparagraph (i)
of paragraph (a), subparagraph (i) of paragraph (b) and paragraph (d) of
subdivision three of this section an alleged violation is sustained
following a hearing pursuant to section 410.70 of the criminal procedure
law and the court continues or modifies the sentence, the court may
extend the remaining period of probation up to the maximum term
authorized by this section. Provided, however, a defendant shall receive
credit for the time during which he or she was supervised under the
original probation sentence prior to any declaration of delinquency and
for any time spent in custody pursuant to this article for an alleged
violation of probation.
5. In any case where a court pursuant to its authority under
subdivision four of section 60.01 of this chapter revokes probation and
sentences such person to imprisonment and probation, as provided in
paragraph (d) of subdivision two of section 60.01 of this chapter, the
period of probation shall be the remaining period of the original
probation sentence or one year whichever is greater.
Sentence of conditional discharge.
1. Criteria. (a) Except as otherwise required by section 60.05, the
court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if
the court, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the offense
and to the history, character and condition of the defendant, is of the
opinion that neither the public interest nor the ends of justice would
be served by a sentence of imprisonment and that probation supervision
is not appropriate.
(b) When a sentence of conditional discharge is imposed for a felony,
the court shall set forth in the record the reasons for its action.
2. Sentence. Except to the extent authorized by paragraph (d) of
subdivision two of section 60.01 of this chapter, when the court imposes
a sentence of conditional discharge the defendant shall be released with
respect to the conviction for which the sentence is imposed without
imprisonment or probation supervision but subject, during the period of
conditional discharge, to such conditions as the court may determine.
The court shall impose the period of conditional discharge authorized by
subdivision three of this section and shall specify, in accordance with
section 65.10, the conditions to be complied with. If a defendant is
sentenced pursuant to paragraph (e) of subdivision two of section 65.10
of this chapter, the court shall require the administrator of the
program to provide written notice to the court of any violation of
program participation by the defendant. The court may modify or enlarge
the conditions or, if the defendant commits an additional offense or
violates a condition, revoke the sentence at any time prior to the
expiration or termination of the period of conditional discharge.
3. Periods of conditional discharge. Unless terminated sooner in
accordance with the criminal procedure law, the period of conditional
discharge shall be as follows:
(a) Three years in the case of a felony; and
(b) One year in the case of a misdemeanor or a violation.
Where the court has required, as a condition of the sentence, that the
defendant make restitution of the fruits of his or her offense or make
reparation for the loss caused thereby and such condition has not been
satisfied, the court, at any time prior to the expiration or termination
of the period of conditional discharge, may impose an additional period.
The length of the additional period shall be fixed by the court at the
time it is imposed and shall not be more than two years. All of the
incidents of the original sentence, including the authority of the court
to modify or enlarge the conditions, shall continue to apply during such
additional period.
Conditions of probation and of conditional discharge.
1. In general. The conditions of probation and of conditional
discharge shall be such as the court, in its discretion, deems
reasonably necessary to insure that the defendant will lead a
law-abiding life or to assist him to do so.
2. Conditions relating to conduct and rehabilitation. When imposing a
sentence of probation or of conditional discharge, the court shall, as a
condition of the sentence, consider restitution or reparation and may,
as a condition of the sentence, require that the defendant:
(a) Avoid injurious or vicious habits;
(b) Refrain from frequenting unlawful or disreputable places or
consorting with disreputable persons;
(c) Work faithfully at a suitable employment or faithfully pursue a
course of study or of vocational training that will equip him for
suitable employment;
(d) Undergo available medical or psychiatric treatment and remain in a
specified institution, when required for that purpose;
(e) Participate in an alcohol or substance abuse program or an
intervention program approved by the court after consultation with the
local probation department having jurisdiction, or such other public or
private agency as the court determines to be appropriate;
(e-1) Participate in a motor vehicle accident prevention course. The
court may require such condition where a person has been convicted of a
traffic infraction for a violation of article twenty-six of the vehicle
and traffic law where the commission of such violation caused the
serious physical injury or death of another person. For purposes of this
paragraph, the term "motor vehicle accident prevention course" shall
mean a motor vehicle accident prevention course approved by the
department of motor vehicles pursuant to article twelve-B of the vehicle
and traffic law;
(f) Support his dependents and meet other family responsibilities;
(g) Make restitution of the fruits of his or her offense or make
reparation, in an amount he can afford to pay, for the actual
out-of-pocket loss caused thereby. When restitution or reparation is a
condition of the sentence, the court shall fix the amount thereof, the
manner of performance, specifically state the date when restitution is
to be paid in full prior to the expiration of the sentence of probation
and may establish provisions for the early termination of a sentence of
probation or conditional discharge pursuant to the provisions of
subdivision three of section 410.90 of the criminal procedure law after
the restitution and reparation part of a sentence of probation or
conditional discharge has been satisfied. The court shall provide that
in the event the person to whom restitution or reparation is to be made
dies prior to the completion of said restitution or reparation, the
remaining payments shall be made to the estate of the deceased.
(h) Perform services for a public or not-for-profit corporation,
association, institution or agency, including but not limited to
services for the division of substance abuse services, services in an
appropriate community program for removal of graffiti from public or
private property, including any property damaged in the underlying
offense, or services for the maintenance and repair of real or personal
property maintained as a cemetery plot, grave, burial place or other
place of interment of human remains. Provided however, that the
performance of any such services shall not result in the displacement of
employed workers or in the impairment of existing contracts for
services, nor shall the performance of any such services be required or
permitted in any establishment involved in any labor strike or lockout.
The court may establish provisions for the early termination of a
sentence of probation or conditional discharge pursuant to the
provisions of subdivision three of section 410.90 of the criminal
procedure law after such services have been completed. Such sentence may
only be imposed upon conviction of a misdemeanor, violation, or class D
or class E felony, or a youthful offender finding replacing any such
conviction, where the defendant has consented to the amount and
conditions of such service;
(i) If a person under the age of twenty-one years, (i) resides with
his parents or in a suitable foster home or hostel as referred to in
section two hundred forty-four of the executive law, (ii) attends
school, (iii) spends such part of the period of the sentence as the
court may direct, but not exceeding two years, in a facility made
available by the division for youth pursuant to article nineteen-G of
the executive law, provided that admission to such facility may be made
only with the prior consent of the division for youth, (iv) attend a
non-residential program for such hours and pursuant to a schedule
prescribed by the court as suitable for a program of rehabilitation of
youth, (v) contribute to his own support in any home, foster home or
hostel;
(j) Post a bond or other security for the performance of any or all
conditions imposed;
(k) Observe certain specified conditions of conduct as set forth in an
order of protection issued pursuant to section 530.12 or 530.13 of the
criminal procedure law.
(k-1) Install and maintain a functioning ignition interlock device, as
that term is defined in section one hundred nineteen-a of the vehicle
and traffic law, in any vehicle owned or operated by the defendant if
the court in its discretion determines that such a condition is
necessary to ensure the public safety. The court may require such
condition only where a person has been convicted of a violation of
subdivision two, two-a or three of section eleven hundred ninety-two of
the vehicle and traffic law, or any crime defined by the vehicle and
traffic law or this chapter of which an alcohol-related violation of any
provision of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and
traffic law is an essential element. The offender shall be required to
install and operate the ignition interlock device only in accordance
with section eleven hundred ninety-eight of the vehicle and traffic law.
(k-2) (i) Refrain, upon sentencing for a crime involving unlawful
sexual conduct committed against a metropolitan transportation authority
passenger, customer, or employee or a crime involving assault against a
metropolitan transportation authority employee, committed in or on any
facility or conveyance of the metropolitan transportation authority or a
subsidiary thereof or the New York city transit authority or a
subsidiary thereof, from using or entering any of such authority's
subways, trains, buses or other conveyances or facilities specified by
the court for a period of up to three years, or a specified period of
such probation or conditional discharge, whichever is less. For purposes
of this section, a crime involving assault shall mean an offense
described in article one hundred twenty of this chapter which has as an
element the causing of physical injury or serious physical injury to
another as well as the attempt thereof.
(ii) The court may, in its discretion, suspend, modify or cancel a
condition imposed under this paragraph in the interest of justice at any
time. If the person depends on the authority's subways, trains, buses,
or other conveyances or facilities for trips of necessity, including,
but not limited to, travel to or from medical or legal appointments,
school or training classes or places of employment, obtaining food,
clothing or necessary household items, or rendering care to family
members, the court may modify such condition to allow for a trip or
trips as in its discretion are necessary.
(iii) A person at liberty and subject to a condition under this
paragraph who applies, within thirty days after the date such condition
becomes effective, for a refund of any prepaid fare amounts rendered
unusable in whole or in part by such condition including, but not
limited to, a monthly pass, shall be issued a refund of the amounts so
prepaid.
(l) Satisfy any other conditions reasonably related to his
rehabilitation.
3. Conditions relating to supervision. When imposing a sentence of
probation the court, in addition to any conditions imposed pursuant to
subdivision two of this section, shall require as conditions of the
sentence, that the defendant:
(a) Report to a probation officer as directed by the court or the
probation officer and permit the probation officer to visit him at his
place of abode or elsewhere;
(b) Remain within the jurisdiction of the court unless granted
permission to leave by the court or the probation officer. Where a
defendant is granted permission to move or travel outside the
jurisdiction of the court, the defendant shall sign a written waiver of
extradition agreeing to waive extradition proceedings where such
proceedings are the result of the issuance of a warrant by the court
pursuant to subdivision two of section 410.40 of the criminal procedure
law based on an alleged violation of probation. Where any county or the
city of New York incurs costs associated with the return of any
probationer based on the issuance of a warrant by the court pursuant to
subdivision two of section 410.40 of the criminal procedure law, the
jurisdiction may collect the reasonable and necessary expenses involved
in connection with his or her transport, from the probationer; provided
that where the sentence of probation is not revoked pursuant to section
410.70 of the criminal procedure law no such expenses may be collected.
(c) Answer all reasonable inquiries by the probation officer and
notify the probation officer prior to any change in address or
employment.
4. Electronic monitoring. When imposing a sentence of probation the
court may, in addition to any conditions imposed pursuant to
subdivisions two and three of this section, require the defendant to
submit to the use of an electronic monitoring device and/or to follow a
schedule that governs the defendant's daily movement. Such condition may
be imposed only where the court, in its discretion, determines that
requiring the defendant to comply with such condition will advance
public safety, probationer control or probationer surveillance.
Electronic monitoring shall be used in accordance with uniform
procedures developed by the office of probation and correctional
alternatives.
4-a. Mandatory conditions for sex offenders. (a) When imposing a
sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon a person convicted
of an offense defined in article one hundred thirty, two hundred
thirty-five or two hundred sixty-three of this chapter, or section
255.25, 255.26 or 255.27 of this chapter, and the victim of such offense
was under the age of eighteen at the time of such offense or such person
has been designated a level three sex offender pursuant to subdivision
six of section 168-l of the correction law, the court shall require, as
a mandatory condition of such sentence, that such sentenced offender
shall refrain from knowingly entering into or upon any school grounds,
as that term is defined in subdivision fourteen of section 220.00 of
this chapter, or any other facility or institution primarily used for
the care or treatment of persons under the age of eighteen while one or
more of such persons under the age of eighteen are present, provided
however, that when such sentenced offender is a registered student or
participant or an employee of such facility or institution or entity
contracting therewith or has a family member enrolled in such facility
or institution, such sentenced offender may, with the written
authorization of his or her probation officer or the court and the
superintendent or chief administrator of such facility, institution or
grounds, enter such facility, institution or upon such grounds for the
limited purposes authorized by the probation officer or the court and
superintendent or chief officer. Nothing in this subdivision shall be
construed as restricting any lawful condition of supervision that may be
imposed on such sentenced offender.
(b) When imposing a sentence of probation or conditional discharge
upon a person convicted of an offense for which registration as a sex
offender is required pursuant to subdivision two or three of section one
hundred sixty-eight-a of the correction law, and the victim of such
offense was under the age of eighteen at the time of such offense or
such person has been designated a level three sex offender pursuant to
subdivision six of section one hundred sixty-eight-l of the correction
law or the internet was used to facilitate the commission of the crime,
the court shall require, as mandatory conditions of such sentence, that
such sentenced offender be prohibited from using the internet to access
pornographic material, access a commercial social networking website,
communicate with other individuals or groups for the purpose of
promoting sexual relations with persons under the age of eighteen, and
communicate with a person under the age of eighteen when such offender
is over the age of eighteen, provided that the court may permit an
offender to use the internet to communicate with a person under the age
of eighteen when such offender is the parent of a minor child and is not
otherwise prohibited from communicating with such child. Nothing in this
subdivision shall be construed as restricting any other lawful condition
of supervision that may be imposed on such sentenced offender. As used
in this subdivision, a "commercial social networking website" shall mean
any business, organization or other entity operating a website that
permits persons under eighteen years of age to be registered users for
the purpose of establishing personal relationships with other users,
where such persons under eighteen years of age may: (i) create web pages
or profiles that provide information about themselves where such web
pages or profiles are available to the public or to other users; (ii)
engage in direct or real time communication with other users, such as a
chat room or instant messenger; and (iii) communicate with persons over
eighteen years of age; provided, however, that, for purposes of this
subdivision, a commercial social networking website shall not include a
website that permits users to engage in such other activities as are not
enumerated herein.
5. Other conditions. When imposing a sentence of probation the court
may, in addition to any conditions imposed pursuant to subdivisions two,
three and four of this section, require that the defendant comply with
any other reasonable condition as the court shall determine to be
necessary or appropriate to ameliorate the conduct which gave rise to
the offense or to prevent the incarceration of the defendant.
5-a. Other conditions for sex offenders. When imposing a sentence of
probation upon a person convicted of an offense for which registration
as a sex offender is required pursuant to subdivision two or three of
section one hundred sixty-eight-a of the correction law, in addition to
any conditions required under subdivisions two, three, four, four-a and
five of this section, the court may require that the defendant comply
with a reasonable limitation on his or her use of the internet that the
court determines to be necessary or appropriate to ameliorate the
conduct which gave rise to the offense or to protect public safety,
provided that the court shall not prohibit such sentenced offender from
using the internet in connection with education, lawful employment or
search for lawful employment.
Calculation of periods of probation and of conditional
discharge.
1. A period of probation or a period or additional period of
conditional discharge commences on the day it is imposed. Multiple
periods, whether imposed at the same or at different times, shall run
concurrently.
2. When a person has violated the conditions of his or her probation
or conditional discharge and is declared delinquent by the court, the
declaration of delinquency shall interrupt the period of the sentence as
of the date of the delinquency and such interruption shall continue
until a final determination as to the delinquency has been made by the
court pursuant to a hearing held in accordance with the provisions of
the criminal procedure law. Any order for the installation and
maintenance of a functioning ignition interlock device imposed pursuant
to section 60.21 of this title shall remain in effect throughout the
delinquency and the court may extend the period of such installation and
maintenance by the period of the delinquency; provided, however, that
the defendant shall get credit for any period where the device was
installed and maintained during the delinquency.
* 3. In any case where a person who is under a sentence of probation
or of conditional discharge is also under an indeterminate or
determinate sentence of imprisonment, imposed for some other offense by
a court of this state the service of the sentence of imprisonment shall
satisfy the sentence of probation or of conditional discharge unless the
sentence of probation or of conditional discharge is revoked prior to
the next to occur of parole or conditional release under, or
satisfaction of, the sentence of imprisonment. Provided, however, that
the service of an indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment
shall not satisfy a sentence of probation if the sentence of probation
was imposed at a time when the sentence of imprisonment had one year or
less to run.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. In any case where a person who is under a sentence of probation
or of conditional discharge is also under an indeterminate sentence of
imprisonment, or a reformatory sentence of imprisonment authorized by
section 75.00, imposed for some other offense by a court of this state
the service of the sentence of imprisonment shall satisfy the sentence
of probation or of conditional discharge unless the sentence of
probation or of conditional discharge is revoked prior to the next to
occur of parole or conditional release under, or satisfaction of, the
sentence of imprisonment. Provided, however, that the service of an
indeterminate or a reformatory sentence of imprisonment shall not
satisfy a sentence of probation if the sentence of probation was imposed
at a time when the sentence of imprisonment had one year or less to run.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
Sentence of unconditional discharge.
1. Criteria. The court may impose a sentence of unconditional
discharge in any case where it is authorized to impose a sentence of
conditional discharge under section 65.05 if the court is of the opinion
that no proper purpose would be served by imposing any condition upon
the defendant's release.
When a sentence of unconditional discharge is imposed for a felony,
the court shall set forth in the record the reasons for its action.
2. Sentence. When the court imposes a sentence of unconditional
discharge, the defendant shall be released with respect to the
conviction for which the sentence is imposed without imprisonment, fine
or probation supervision. A sentence of unconditional discharge is for
all purposes a final judgment of conviction.
ARTICLE 70 Sentences of Imprisonment
Sentence of imprisonment for felony.
* 1. Indeterminate sentence. Except as provided in subdivisions four,
five and six of this section or section 70.80 of this article, a
sentence of imprisonment for a felony, other than a felony defined in
article two hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-one of this chapter,
shall be an indeterminate sentence. When such a sentence is imposed, the
court shall impose a maximum term in accordance with the provisions of
subdivision two of this section and the minimum period of imprisonment
shall be as provided in subdivision three of this section.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 1. Indeterminate sentence. Except as provided in subdivisions four
and five of this section or section 70.80 of this article, a sentence of
imprisonment for a felony, other than a felony defined in article two
hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-one of this chapter, shall be an
indeterminate sentence. When such a sentence is imposed, the court shall
impose a maximum term in accordance with the provisions of subdivision
two of this section and the minimum period of imprisonment shall be as
provided in subdivision three of this section.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
2. Maximum term of sentence. The maximum term of an indeterminate
sentence shall be at least three years and the term shall be fixed as
follows:
(a) For a class A felony, the term shall be life imprisonment;
(b) For a class B felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed twenty-five years;
(c) For a class C felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed fifteen years;
(d) For a class D felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed seven years; and
(e) For a class E felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed four years.
3. Minimum period of imprisonment. The minimum period of imprisonment
under an indeterminate sentence shall be at least one year and shall be
fixed as follows:
(a) In the case of a class A felony, the minimum period shall be fixed
by the court and specified in the sentence.
(i) For a class A-I felony, such minimum period shall not be less than
fifteen years nor more than twenty-five years; provided, however, that
(A) where a sentence, other than a sentence of death or life
imprisonment without parole, is imposed upon a defendant convicted of
murder in the first degree as defined in section 125.27 of this chapter
such minimum period shall be not less than twenty years nor more than
twenty-five years, and, (B) where a sentence is imposed upon a defendant
convicted of murder in the second degree as defined in subdivision five
of section 125.25 of this chapter or convicted of aggravated murder as
defined in section 125.26 of this chapter, the sentence shall be life
imprisonment without parole, and, (C) where a sentence is imposed upon a
defendant convicted of attempted murder in the first degree as defined
in article one hundred ten of this chapter and subparagraph (i), (ii) or
(iii) of paragraph (a) of subdivision one and paragraph (b) of
subdivision one of section 125.27 of this chapter or attempted
aggravated murder as defined in article one hundred ten of this chapter
and section 125.26 of this chapter such minimum period shall be not less
than twenty years nor more than forty years.
(ii) For a class A-II felony, such minimum period shall not be less
than three years nor more than eight years four months, except that for
the class A-II felony of predatory sexual assault as defined in section
130.95 of this chapter or the class A-II felony of predatory sexual
assault against a child as defined in section 130.96 of this chapter,
such minimum period shall be not less than ten years nor more than
twenty-five years.
(b) For any other felony, the minimum period shall be fixed by the
court and specified in the sentence and shall be not less than one year
nor more than one-third of the maximum term imposed.
4. Alternative definite sentence for class D and E felonies. When a
person, other than a second or persistent felony offender, is sentenced
for a class D or class E felony, and the court, having regard to the
nature and circumstances of the crime and to the history and character
of the defendant, is of the opinion that a sentence of imprisonment is
necessary but that it would be unduly harsh to impose an indeterminate
or determinate sentence, the court may impose a definite sentence of
imprisonment and fix a term of one year or less.
5. Life imprisonment without parole. Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, a defendant sentenced to life imprisonment without
parole shall not be or become eligible for parole or conditional
release. For purposes of commitment and custody, other than parole and
conditional release, such sentence shall be deemed to be an
indeterminate sentence. A defendant may be sentenced to life
imprisonment without parole upon conviction for the crime of murder in
the first degree as defined in section 125.27 of this chapter and in
accordance with the procedures provided by law for imposing a sentence
for such crime. A defendant who was eighteen years of age or older at
the time of the commission of the crime must be sentenced to life
imprisonment without parole upon conviction for the crime of terrorism
as defined in section 490.25 of this chapter, where the specified
offense the defendant committed is a class A-I felony; the crime of
criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
first degree as defined in section 490.45 of this chapter; or the crime
of criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the first
degree as defined in section 490.55 of this chapter; provided, however,
that nothing in this subdivision shall preclude or prevent a sentence of
death when the defendant is also convicted of the crime of murder in the
first degree as defined in section 125.27 of this chapter. A defendant
who was seventeen years of age or younger at the time of the commission
of the crime may be sentenced, in accordance with law, to the applicable
indeterminate sentence with a maximum term of life imprisonment. A
defendant must be sentenced to life imprisonment without parole upon
conviction for the crime of murder in the second degree as defined in
subdivision five of section 125.25 of this chapter or for the crime of
aggravated murder as defined in subdivision one of section 125.26 of
this chapter. A defendant may be sentenced to life imprisonment without
parole upon conviction for the crime of aggravated murder as defined in
subdivision two of section 125.26 of this chapter.
* 6. Determinate sentence. Except as provided in subdivision four of
this section and subdivisions two and four of section 70.02, when a
person is sentenced as a violent felony offender pursuant to section
70.02 or as a second violent felony offender pursuant to section 70.04
or as a second felony offender on a conviction for a violent felony
offense pursuant to section 70.06, the court must impose a determinate
sentence of imprisonment in accordance with the provisions of such
sections and such sentence shall include, as a part thereof, a period of
post-release supervision in accordance with section 70.45.
* NB Repealed September 1, 2027
Sentence of imprisonment for a violent felony offense.
1. Definition of a violent felony offense. A violent felony offense is
a class B violent felony offense, a class C violent felony offense, a
class D violent felony offense, or a class E violent felony offense,
defined as follows:
(a) Class B violent felony offenses: an attempt to commit the class
A-I felonies of murder in the second degree as defined in section
125.25, kidnapping in the first degree as defined in section 135.25, and
arson in the first degree as defined in section 150.20; manslaughter in
the first degree as defined in section 125.20, aggravated manslaughter
in the first degree as defined in section 125.22, rape in the first
degree as defined in section 130.35, a crime formerly defined in section
130.50, aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree as defined in
section 130.70, course of sexual conduct against a child in the first
degree as defined in section 130.75, assault in the first degree as
defined in section 120.10, kidnapping in the second degree as defined in
section 135.20, burglary in the first degree as defined in section
140.30, arson in the second degree as defined in section 150.15, robbery
in the first degree as defined in section 160.15, sex trafficking as
defined in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subdivision five of section 230.34,
sex trafficking of a child as defined in section 230.34-a, incest in the
first degree as defined in section 255.27, criminal possession of a
weapon in the first degree as defined in section 265.04, criminal use of
a firearm in the first degree as defined in section 265.09, criminal
sale of a firearm in the first degree as defined in section 265.13,
aggravated assault upon a police officer or a peace officer as defined
in section 120.11, gang assault in the first degree as defined in
section 120.07, intimidating a victim or witness in the first degree as
defined in section 215.17, hindering prosecution of terrorism in the
first degree as defined in section 490.35, criminal possession of a
chemical weapon or biological weapon in the second degree as defined in
section 490.40, and criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon in the third degree as defined in section 490.47.
(b) Class C violent felony offenses: an attempt to commit any of the
class B felonies set forth in paragraph (a) of this subdivision;
aggravated criminally negligent homicide as defined in section 125.11,
aggravated manslaughter in the second degree as defined in section
125.21, aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree as defined in
section 130.67, assault on a peace officer, police officer, firefighter
or emergency medical services professional as defined in section 120.08,
assault on a judge as defined in section 120.09, gang assault in the
second degree as defined in section 120.06, strangulation in the first
degree as defined in section 121.13, aggravated strangulation as defined
in section 121.13-a, burglary in the second degree as defined in section
140.25, robbery in the second degree as defined in section 160.10,
criminal possession of a weapon in the second degree as defined in
section 265.03, criminal use of a firearm in the second degree as
defined in section 265.08, criminal sale of a firearm in the second
degree as defined in section 265.12, criminal sale of a firearm with the
aid of a minor as defined in section 265.14, aggravated criminal
possession of a weapon as defined in section 265.19, soliciting or
providing support for an act of terrorism in the first degree as defined
in section 490.15, hindering prosecution of terrorism in the second
degree as defined in section 490.30, and criminal possession of a
chemical weapon or biological weapon in the third degree as defined in
section 490.37.
(c) Class D violent felony offenses: an attempt to commit any of the
class C felonies set forth in paragraph (b); reckless assault of a child
as defined in section 120.02, assault in the second degree as defined in
section 120.05, menacing a police officer or peace officer as defined in
section 120.18, stalking in the first degree, as defined in subdivision
one of section 120.60, strangulation in the second degree as defined in
section 121.12, rape in the second degree as defined in section 130.30,
a crime formerly defined in section 130.45, sexual abuse in the first
degree as defined in section 130.65, course of sexual conduct against a
child in the second degree as defined in section 130.80, aggravated
sexual abuse in the third degree as defined in section 130.66,
facilitating a sex offense with a controlled substance as defined in
section 130.90, labor trafficking as defined in paragraphs (a) and (b)
of subdivision three of section 135.35, criminal possession of a weapon
in the third degree as defined in subdivision five, six, seven, eight,
nine or ten of section 265.02, criminal sale of a firearm in the third
degree as defined in section 265.11, intimidating a victim or witness in
the second degree as defined in section 215.16, soliciting or providing
support for an act of terrorism in the second degree as defined in
section 490.10, and making a terroristic threat as defined in section
490.20, falsely reporting an incident in the first degree as defined in
section 240.60, placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in the first
degree as defined in section 240.62, placing a false bomb or hazardous
substance in a sports stadium or arena, mass transportation facility or
enclosed shopping mall as defined in section 240.63, aggravated
unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first degree as defined in
section 405.18, and criminal manufacture, sale, or transport of an
undetectable firearm, rifle or shotgun as defined in section 265.50.
(d) Class E violent felony offenses: an attempt to commit any of the
felonies of criminal possession of a weapon in the third degree as
defined in subdivision five, six, seven or eight of section 265.02 as a
lesser included offense of that section as defined in section 220.20 of
the criminal procedure law, persistent sexual abuse as defined in
section 130.53, aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree as defined
in section 130.65-a, falsely reporting an incident in the second degree
as defined in section 240.55 and placing a false bomb or hazardous
substance in the second degree as defined in section 240.61.
2. Authorized sentence.
* (a) Except as provided in subdivision six of section 60.05, the
sentence imposed upon a person who stands convicted of a class B or
class C violent felony offense must be a determinate sentence of
imprisonment which shall be in whole or half years. The term of such
sentence must be in accordance with the provisions of subdivision three
of this section.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (a) The sentence imposed upon a person who stands convicted of a
class B or class C violent felony offense must be an indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment. Except as provided in subdivision five of
section 60.05, the maximum term of such sentence must be in accordance
with the provisions of subdivision three of this section and the minimum
period of imprisonment under such sentence must be in accordance with
subdivision four of this section.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (b-1) of this subdivision,
subdivision six of section 60.05 and subdivision four of this section,
the sentence imposed upon a person who stands convicted of a class D
violent felony offense, other than the offense of criminal possession of
a weapon in the third degree as defined in subdivision five, seven or
eight of section 265.02 or criminal sale of a firearm in the third
degree as defined in section 265.11, must be in accordance with the
applicable provisions of this chapter relating to sentencing for class D
felonies provided, however, that where a sentence of imprisonment is
imposed which requires a commitment to the state department of
corrections and community supervision, such sentence shall be a
determinate sentence in accordance with paragraph (c) of subdivision
three of this section.
(b-1) Except as provided in subdivision six of section 60.05, the
sentence imposed upon a person who stands convicted of the class D
violent felony offense of menacing a police officer or peace officer as
defined in section 120.18 of this chapter must be a determinate sentence
of imprisonment.
(c) Except as provided in subdivision six of section 60.05, the
sentence imposed upon a person who stands convicted of the class D
violent felony offenses of criminal possession of a weapon in the third
degree as defined in subdivision five, seven, eight or nine of section
265.02, criminal sale of a firearm in the third degree as defined in
section 265.11, the class E violent felonies of attempted criminal
possession of a weapon in the third degree as defined in subdivision
five, seven, eight or nine of section 265.02, or criminal manufacture,
sale, or transport of an undetectable firearm, rifle or shotgun as
defined in section 265.50 must be a sentence to a determinate period of
imprisonment, or, in the alternative, a definite sentence of
imprisonment for a period of no less than one year, except that:
(i) the court may impose any other sentence authorized by law upon a
person who has not been previously convicted in the five years
immediately preceding the commission of the offense for a class A
misdemeanor defined in this chapter, if the court having regard to the
nature and circumstances of the crime and to the history and character
of the defendant, finds on the record that such sentence would be unduly
harsh and that the alternative sentence would be consistent with public
safety and does not deprecate the seriousness of the crime; and
(ii) the court may apply the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of
subdivision four of this section when imposing a sentence upon a person
who has previously been convicted of a class A misdemeanor defined in
this chapter in the five years immediately preceding the commission of
the offense.
3. Term of sentence. The term of a determinate sentence for a violent
felony offense must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For a class B felony, the term must be at least five years and
must not exceed twenty-five years, provided, however, that the term must
be: (i) at least ten years and must not exceed thirty years where the
sentence is for the crime of aggravated assault upon a police officer or
peace officer as defined in section 120.11 of this chapter; and (ii) at
least ten years and must not exceed thirty years where the sentence is
for the crime of aggravated manslaughter in the first degree as defined
in section 125.22 of this chapter;
(b) For a class C felony, the term must be at least three and one-half
years and must not exceed fifteen years, provided, however, that the
term must be: (i) at least seven years and must not exceed twenty years
where the sentence is for the crime of aggravated manslaughter in the
second degree as defined in section 125.21 of this chapter; (ii) at
least seven years and must not exceed twenty years where the sentence is
for the crime of attempted aggravated assault upon a police officer or
peace officer as defined in section 120.11 of this chapter; (iii) at
least three and one-half years and must not exceed twenty years where
the sentence is for the crime of aggravated criminally negligent
homicide as defined in section 125.11 of this chapter; and (iv) at least
five years and must not exceed fifteen years where the sentence is
imposed for the crime of aggravated criminal possession of a weapon as
defined in section 265.19 of this chapter;
(c) For a class D felony, the term must be at least two years and must
not exceed seven years, provided, however, that the term must be: (i) at
least two years and must not exceed eight years where the sentence is
for the crime of menacing a police officer or peace officer as defined
in section 120.18 of this chapter; and (ii) at least three and one-half
years and must not exceed seven years where the sentence is imposed for
the crime of criminal possession of a weapon in the third degree as
defined in subdivision ten of section 265.02 of this chapter;
(d) For a class E felony, the term must be at least one and one-half
years and must not exceed four years.
4. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subdivision, where
a plea of guilty to a class D violent felony offense is entered pursuant
to section 220.10 or 220.30 of the criminal procedure law in
satisfaction of an indictment charging the defendant with an armed
felony, as defined in subdivision forty-one of section 1.20 of the
criminal procedure law, the court must impose a determinate sentence of
imprisonment.
(b) In any case in which the provisions of paragraph (a) of this
subdivision or the provisions of subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (c) of
subdivision two of this section apply, the court may impose a sentence
other than a determinate sentence of imprisonment, or a definite
sentence of imprisonment for a period of no less than one year, if it
finds that the alternate sentence is consistent with public safety and
does not deprecate the seriousness of the crime and that one or more of
the following factors exist:
(i) mitigating circumstances that bear directly upon the manner in
which the crime was committed; or
(ii) where the defendant was not the sole participant in the crime,
the defendant's participation was relatively minor although not so minor
as to constitute a defense to the prosecution; or
(iii) possible deficiencies in proof of the defendant's commission of
an armed felony.
(c) The defendant and the district attorney shall have an opportunity
to present relevant information to assist the court in making a
determination pursuant to paragraph (b) of this subdivision, and the
court may, in its discretion, conduct a hearing with respect to any
issue bearing upon such determination. If the court determines that a
determinate sentence of imprisonment should not be imposed pursuant to
the provisions of such paragraph (b), it shall make a statement on the
record of the facts and circumstances upon which such determination is
based. A transcript of the court's statement, which shall set forth the
recommendation of the district attorney, shall be forwarded to the state
division of criminal justice services along with a copy of the
accusatory instrument.
Sentence of imprisonment for second violent felony offender.
1. Definition of second violent felony offender.
(a) A second violent felony offender is a person who stands convicted
of a violent felony offense as defined in subdivision one of section
70.02 after having previously been subjected to a predicate violent
felony conviction as defined in paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(b) For the purpose of determining whether a prior conviction is a
predicate violent felony conviction the following criteria shall apply:
(i) The conviction must have been in this state of a class A felony
(other than one defined in article two hundred twenty) or of a violent
felony offense as defined in subdivision one of section 70.02, or of an
offense defined by the penal law in effect prior to September first,
nineteen hundred sixty-seven, which includes all of the essential
elements of any such felony, or in any other jurisdiction of an offense
which includes all of the essential elements of any such felony for
which a sentence to a term of imprisonment in excess of one year or a
sentence of death was authorized and is authorized in this state
irrespective of whether such sentence was imposed;
(ii) Sentence upon such prior conviction must have been imposed before
commission of the present felony;
(iii) Suspended sentence, suspended execution of sentence, a sentence
of probation, a sentence of conditional discharge or of unconditional
discharge, and a sentence of certification to the care and custody of
the division of substance abuse services, shall be deemed to be a
sentence;
(iv) Except as provided in subparagraph (v) of this paragraph,
sentence must have been imposed not more than ten years before
commission of the felony of which the defendant presently stands
convicted;
(v) In calculating the ten year period under subparagraph (iv), any
period of time during which the person was incarcerated for any reason
between the time of commission of the previous felony and the time of
commission of the present felony shall be excluded and such ten year
period shall be extended by a period or periods equal to the time served
under such incarceration;
(vi) An offense for which the defendant has been pardoned on the
ground of innocence shall not be deemed a predicate violent felony
conviction.
* 2. Authorized sentence. When the court has found, pursuant to the
provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person is a second
violent felony offender the court must impose a determinate sentence of
imprisonment which shall be in whole or half years. Except where
sentence is imposed in accordance with the provisions of section 70.10,
the term of such sentence must be in accordance with the provisions of
subdivision three of this section.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 2. Authorized sentence. When the court has found, pursuant to the
provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person is a second
violent felony offender the court must impose an indeterminate sentence
of imprisonment. Except where sentence is imposed in accordance with the
provisions of section 70.10, the maximum term of such sentence must be
in accordance with the provisions of subdivision three of this section
and the minimum period of imprisonment under such sentence must be in
accordance with subdivision four of this section.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* 3. Term of sentence. The term of a determinate sentence for a second
violent felony offender must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For a class B felony, the term must be at least ten years and must
not exceed twenty-five years;
(b) For a class C felony, the term must be at least seven years and
must not exceed fifteen years; and
(c) For a class D felony, the term must be at least five years and
must not exceed seven years.
(d) For a class E felony, the term must be at least three years and
must not exceed four years.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. Maximum term of sentence. The maximum term of an indeterminate
sentence for a second violent felony offender must be fixed by the court
as follows:
(a) For a class B felony, the term must be at least twelve years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(b) For a class C felony, the term must be at least eight years and
must not exceed fifteen years; and
(c) For a class D felony, the term must be at least five years and
must not exceed seven years.
(d) For a class E felony, the term must be at least four years.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* 4. Minimum period of imprisonment. The minimum period of
imprisonment under an indeterminate sentence for a second violent felony
offender must be fixed by the court at one-half of the maximum term
imposed and must be specified in the sentence.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
Sentence of imprisonment for juvenile offender.
1. Indeterminate sentence. A sentence of imprisonment for a felony
committed by a juvenile offender shall be an indeterminate sentence.
When such a sentence is imposed, the court shall impose a maximum term
in accordance with the provisions of subdivision two of this section and
the minimum period of imprisonment shall be as provided in subdivision
three of this section. The court shall further provide that where a
juvenile offender is under placement pursuant to article three of the
family court act, any sentence imposed pursuant to this section which is
to be served consecutively with such placement shall be served in a
facility designated pursuant to subdivision four of section 70.20 of
this article prior to service of the placement in any previously
designated facility.
2. Maximum term of sentence. The maximum term of an indeterminate
sentence for a juvenile offender shall be at least three years and the
term shall be fixed as follows:
(a) For the class A felony of murder in the second degree, the term
shall be life imprisonment;
(b) For the class A felony of arson in the first degree, or for the
class A felony of kidnapping in the first degree the term shall be fixed
by the court, and shall be at least twelve years but shall not exceed
fifteen years;
(c) For a class B felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed ten years;
(d) For a class C felony, the term shall be fixed by the court, and
shall not exceed seven years; and
(e) For a class D felony, the term shall be fixed by the court and
shall not exceed four years.
3. Minimum period of imprisonment. The minimum period of imprisonment
under an indeterminate sentence for a juvenile offender shall be
specified in the sentence as follows:
(a) For the class A felony of murder in the second degree, the minimum
period of imprisonment shall be fixed by the court and shall be not less
than five years but shall not exceed nine years provided, however, that
where the sentence is for an offense specified in subdivision one or two
of section 125.25 of this chapter and the defendant was fourteen or
fifteen years old at the time of such offense, the minimum period of
imprisonment shall be not less than seven and one-half years but shall
not exceed fifteen years;
(b) For the class A felony of arson in the first degree, or for the
class A felony of kidnapping in the first degree, the minimum period of
imprisonment shall be fixed by the court and shall be not less than four
years but shall not exceed six years; and
(c) For a class B, C or D felony, the minimum period of imprisonment
shall be fixed by the court at one-third of the maximum term imposed.
Sentence of imprisonment for second felony offender.
1. Definition of second felony offender.
(a) A second felony offender is a person, other than a second violent
felony offender as defined in section 70.04, who stands convicted of a
felony defined in this chapter, other than a class A-I felony, after
having previously been subjected to one or more predicate felony
convictions as defined in paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(b) For the purpose of determining whether a prior conviction is a
predicate felony conviction the following criteria shall apply:
(i) The conviction must have been in this state of a felony, or in any
other jurisdiction of an offense for which a sentence to a term of
imprisonment in excess of one year or a sentence of death was authorized
and is authorized in this state irrespective of whether such sentence
was imposed;
(ii) Sentence upon such prior conviction must have been imposed before
commission of the present felony;
(iii) Suspended sentence, suspended execution of sentence, a sentence
of probation, a sentence of conditional discharge or of unconditional
discharge, and a sentence of certification to the care and custody of
the division of substance abuse services, shall be deemed to be a
sentence;
(iv) Except as provided in subparagraph (v) of this paragraph,
sentence must have been imposed not more than ten years before
commission of the felony of which the defendant presently stands
convicted;
(v) In calculating the ten year period under subparagraph (iv), any
period of time during which the person was incarcerated for any reason
between the time of commission of the previous felony and the time of
commission of the present felony shall be excluded and such ten year
period shall be extended by a period or periods equal to the time served
under such incarceration;
(vi) An offense for which the defendant has been pardoned on the
ground of innocence shall not be deemed a predicate felony conviction.
* 2. Authorized sentence. Except as provided in subdivision five or
six of this section, or as provided in subdivision five of section 70.80
of this article, when the court has found, pursuant to the provisions of
the criminal procedure law, that a person is a second felony offender
the court must impose an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment. The
maximum term of such sentence must be in accordance with the provisions
of subdivision three of this section and the minimum period of
imprisonment under such sentence must be in accordance with subdivision
four of this section.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 2. Authorized sentence. Except as provided in subdivision five of
this section, or as provided in subdivision five of section 70.80 of
this article, when the court has found, pursuant to the provisions of
the criminal procedure law, that a person is a second felony offender
the court must impose an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment. The
maximum term of such sentence must be in accordance with the provisions
of subdivision three of this section and the minimum period of
imprisonment under such sentence must be in accordance with subdivision
four of this section.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* 3. Maximum term of sentence. Except as provided in subdivision five
or six of this section, or as provided in subdivision five of section
70.80 of this article, the maximum term of an indeterminate sentence for
a second felony offender must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For a class A-II felony, the term must be life imprisonment;
(b) For a class B felony, the term must be at least nine years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(c) For a class C felony, the term must be at least six years and must
not exceed fifteen years;
(d) For a class D felony, the term must be at least four years and
must not exceed seven years; and
(e) For a class E felony, the term must be at least three years and
must not exceed four years; provided, however, that where the sentence
is for the class E felony offense specified in section 240.32 of this
chapter, the maximum term must be at least three years and must not
exceed five years.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. Maximum term of sentence. Except as provided in subdivision five
of this section, or as provided in subdivision five of section 70.80 of
this article, the maximum term of an indeterminate sentence for a second
felony offender must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For a class A-II felony, the term must be life imprisonment;
(b) For a class B felony, the term must be at least nine years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(c) For a class C felony, the term must be at least six years and must
not exceed fifteen years;
(d) For a class D felony, the term must be at least four years and
must not exceed seven years; and
(e) For a class E felony, the term must be at least three years and
must not exceed four years.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
4. Minimum period of imprisonment. (a) The minimum period of
imprisonment for a second felony offender convicted of a class A-II
felony must be fixed by the court at no less than six years and not to
exceed twelve and one-half years and must be specified in the sentence,
except that for the class A-II felony of predatory sexual assault as
defined in section 130.95 of this chapter or the class A-II felony of
predatory sexual assault against a child as defined in section 130.96 of
this chapter, such minimum period shall be not less than ten years nor
more than twenty-five years.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), the minimum period of
imprisonment under an indeterminate sentence for a second felony
offender must be fixed by the court at one-half of the maximum term
imposed and must be specified in the sentence.
* 6. Determinate sentence. When the court has found, pursuant to the
provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person is a second
felony offender and the sentence to be imposed on such person is for a
violent felony offense, as defined in subdivision one of section 70.02,
the court must impose a determinate sentence of imprisonment the term of
which must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For a class B violent felony offense, the term must be at least
eight years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(b) For a class C violent felony offense, the term must be at least
five years and must not exceed fifteen years;
(c) For a class D violent felony offense, the term must be at least
three years and must not exceed seven years; and
(d) For a class E violent felony offense, the term must be at least
two years and must not exceed four years.
* NB Repealed September 1, 2027
* 7. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in the case of a
person sentenced for a specified offense or offenses as defined in
subdivision five of section 410.91 of the criminal procedure law, who
stands convicted of no other felony offense, who has not previously been
convicted of either a violent felony offense as defined in section 70.02
of this article, a class A felony offense or a class B felony offense,
and is not under the jurisdiction of or awaiting delivery to the
department of corrections and community supervision, the court may
direct that such sentence be executed as a parole supervision sentence
as defined in and pursuant to the procedures prescribed in section
410.91 of the criminal procedure law.
* NB Repealed September 1, 2027
Sentence of imprisonment for second child sexual assault felony
offender.
1. A person who stands convicted of a felony offense for a sexual
assault against a child, having been subjected to a predicate felony
conviction for a sexual assault against a child, must be sentenced in
accordance with the provisions of subdivision four or five of this
section.
2. A "sexual assault against a child" means a felony offense, other
than persistent sexual abuse as defined in section 130.53 of this
chapter, (a) the essential elements of which include the commission or
attempted commission of sexual conduct, as defined in subdivision ten of
section 130.00 of this chapter, (b) committed or attempted to be
committed against a child less than fifteen years old.
3. For purposes of determining whether a person has been subjected to
a predicate felony conviction under this section, the criteria set forth
in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 70.06 shall apply
provided however that for purposes of this subdivision, the terms "ten
year" or "ten years", as provided in subparagraphs (iv) and (v) of
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of such section 70.06, shall be
"fifteen year" or "fifteen years". The provisions of section 400.19 of
the criminal procedure law shall govern the procedures that must be
followed to determine whether a person who stands convicted of a sexual
assault against a child has been previously subjected to a predicate
felony conviction for such a sexual assault and whether such offender
was eighteen years of age or older at the time of the commission of the
predicate felony.
4. Where the court has found pursuant to subdivision three of this
section that a person who stands convicted of a felony offense defined
in article one hundred thirty of this chapter for the commission or
attempted commission of a sexual assault against a child has been
subjected to a predicate felony conviction for a sexual assault against
a child, the court shall sentence the defendant as follows:
(a) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and such conviction is for a class A-II or class B
felony offense, and the predicate conviction for such sexual assault
against a child is for a class A-II, class B or class C felony offense,
the court shall impose an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment, the
maximum term of which shall be life and the minimum period of which
shall be at least fifteen years and no more than twenty-five years;
(b) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and the conviction is for a class C felony offense, and
the predicate conviction for such sexual assault against a child is for
a class A-II, class B or class C felony offense, the court shall impose
a determinate sentence of imprisonment, the term of which must be at
least twelve years and must not exceed thirty years; provided however,
that if the court determines that a longer sentence is warranted, the
court shall set forth on the record the reasons for such determination
and, in lieu of imposing such sentence of imprisonment, may impose an
indeterminate sentence of imprisonment, the maximum term of which shall
be life and the minimum period of which shall be at least fifteen years
and no more than twenty-five years;
(c) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and the conviction is for a class B felony offense, and
the predicate conviction for such sexual assault against a child is for
a class D or class E felony offense, the court shall impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment, the term of which must be at least
twelve years and must not exceed thirty years;
(d) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and the conviction is for a class C felony offense, and
the predicate conviction for such sexual assault against a child is for
a class D or class E felony offense, the court shall impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment, the term of which must be at least
ten years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(e) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and the conviction is for a class D felony offense, and
the predicate conviction for such sexual assault against a child is for
a felony offense, the court shall impose a determinate sentence of
imprisonment, the term of which must be at least five years and must not
exceed fifteen years; and
(f) where the defendant stands convicted of such sexual assault
against a child and the conviction is for a class E felony offense, and
the predicate conviction for such sexual assault against a child is for
a felony offense, the court shall impose a determinate sentence of
imprisonment, the term of which must be at least four years and must not
exceed twelve years.
5. Notwithstanding subdivision four of this section, where the court
has found pursuant to subdivision three of this section that a person:
(a) stands convicted of a felony offense defined in article one hundred
thirty of this chapter for the commission or attempted commission of a
sexual assault against a child; and (b) has been subjected to a
predicate felony conviction for sexual assault against a child as
defined in subdivision two of this section; and (c) who was under the
age of eighteen years at the time of the commission of such predicate
felony offense, then the court may, in lieu of the sentence authorized
by subdivision four of this section, sentence the defendant to a term of
imprisonment in accordance with the sentence authorized for the instant
felony offense pursuant to subdivision three of section 70.04 of this
article. The court shall set forth on the record the reasons for such
determination.
Sentence of imprisonment for persistent violent felony offender;
criteria.
1. Definition of persistent violent felony offender.
(a) A persistent violent felony offender is a person who stands
convicted of a violent felony offense as defined in subdivision one of
section 70.02 or the offense of predatory sexual assault as defined in
section 130.95 of this chapter or the offense of predatory sexual
assault against a child as defined in section 130.96 of this chapter,
after having previously been subjected to two or more predicate violent
felony convictions as defined in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of
section 70.04 of this article.
(b) For the purpose of determining whether a person has two or more
predicate violent felony convictions, the criteria set forth in
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 70.04 shall apply.
2. Authorized sentence. When the court has found, pursuant to the
provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person is a persistent
violent felony offender the court must impose an indeterminate sentence
of imprisonment, the maximum term of which shall be life imprisonment.
The minimum period of imprisonment under such sentence must be in
accordance with subdivision three of this section.
* 3. Minimum period of imprisonment. The minimum period of
imprisonment under an indeterminate life sentence for a persistent
violent felony offender must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For the class A-II felony of predatory sexual assault as defined
in section 130.95 of this chapter or the class A-II felony of predatory
sexual assault against a child as defined in section 130.96 of this
chapter, the minimum period must be twenty-five years;
(a-1) For a class B felony, the minimum period must be at least twenty
years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(b) For a class C felony, the minimum period must be at least sixteen
years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(c) For a class D felony, the minimum period must be at least twelve
years and must not exceed twenty-five years.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. Minimum period of imprisonment. The minimum period of
imprisonment under an indeterminate life sentence for a persistent
violent felony offender must be fixed by the court as follows:
(a) For the class A-II felony of predatory sexual assault as defined
in section 130.95 of this chapter or the class A-II felony of predatory
sexual assault against a child as defined in section 130.96 of this
chapter, the minimum period must be twenty-five years;
(a-1) For a class B felony, the minimum period must be at least ten
years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(b) For a class C felony, the minimum period must be at least eight
years and must not exceed twenty-five years;
(c) For a class D felony, the minimum period must be at least six
years and must not exceed twenty-five years.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
Sentence of imprisonment for persistent felony offender.
1. Definition of persistent felony offender.
(a) A persistent felony offender is a person, other than a persistent
violent felony offender as defined in section 70.08, who stands
convicted of a felony after having previously been convicted of two or
more felonies, as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this
subdivision.
(b) A previous felony conviction within the meaning of paragraph (a)
of this subdivision is a conviction of a felony in this state, or of a
crime in any other jurisdiction, provided:
(i) that a sentence to a term of imprisonment in excess of one year,
or a sentence to death, was imposed therefor; and
(ii) that the defendant was imprisoned under sentence for such
conviction prior to the commission of the present felony; and
(iii) that the defendant was not pardoned on the ground of innocence;
and
(iv) that such conviction was for a felony offense other than
persistent sexual abuse, as defined in section 130.53 of this chapter;
grand larceny in the fourth degree as defined in subdivision twelve of
section 155.30 of this chapter; grand larceny in the third degree as
defined in subdivision three of section 155.35 of this chapter; grand
larceny in the second degree as defined in subdivision three of section
155.40 of this chapter; or grand larceny in the first degree as defined
in subdivision two of section 155.42 of this chapter.
(c) For the purpose of determining whether a person has two or more
previous felony convictions, two or more convictions of crimes that were
committed prior to the time the defendant was imprisoned under sentence
for any of such convictions shall be deemed to be only one conviction.
2. Authorized sentence. When the court has found, pursuant to the
provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person is a persistent
felony offender, and when it is of the opinion that the history and
character of the defendant and the nature and circumstances of his
criminal conduct indicate that extended incarceration and life-time
supervision will best serve the public interest, the court, in lieu of
imposing the sentence of imprisonment authorized by section 70.00,
70.02, 70.04, 70.06 or subdivision five of section 70.80 for the crime
of which such person presently stands convicted, may impose the sentence
of imprisonment authorized by that section for a class A-I felony. In
such event the reasons for the court's opinion shall be set forth in the
record.
Sentences of imprisonment for misdemeanors and violation.
1. Class A misdemeanor. A sentence of imprisonment for a class A
misdemeanor shall be a definite sentence. When such a sentence is
imposed the term shall be fixed by the court, and shall not exceed three
hundred sixty-four days.
1-a. (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law, whenever the
phrase "one year" or "three hundred sixty-five days" or "365 days" or
any similar phrase appears in any provision of this chapter or any other
law in reference to the definite sentence or maximum definite sentence
of imprisonment that is imposed, or has been imposed, or may be imposed
after enactment of this subdivision, for a misdemeanor conviction in
this state, such phrase shall mean, be interpreted and be applied as
three hundred sixty-four days.
(b) The amendatory provisions of this subdivision are ameliorative and
shall apply to all persons who are sentenced before, on or after the
effective date of this subdivision, for a crime committed before, on or
after the effective date of this subdivision.
(c) Any sentence for a misdemeanor conviction imposed prior to the
effective date of this subdivision that is a definite sentence of
imprisonment of one year, or three hundred sixty-five days, shall, by
operation of law, be changed to, mean and be interpreted and applied as
a sentence of three hundred sixty-four days. In addition to any other
right of a person to obtain a record of a proceeding against him or her,
a person so sentenced prior to the effective date of this subdivision
shall be entitled to obtain, from the criminal court or the clerk
thereof, a certificate of conviction, as described in subdivision one of
section 60.60 of the criminal procedure law, setting forth such sentence
as the sentence specified in this paragraph.
(d) Any sentence for a misdemeanor conviction imposed prior to the
effective date of this subdivision that is other than a definite
sentence of imprisonment of one year may be set aside, upon motion of
the defendant under section 440.20 of the criminal procedure law based
on a showing that the judgment and sentence under the law in effect at
the time of conviction imposed prior to the effective date of this
subdivision is likely to result in collateral consequences, in order to
permit the court to resentence the defendant in accordance with the
amendatory provisions of this subdivision.
(e) Resentence by operation of law is without prejudice to an
individual seeking further relief pursuant to paragraph (j) of
subdivision one of section 440.10 of the criminal procedure law. Nothing
in this section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or
remedies otherwise available to the individual.
2. Class B misdemeanor. A sentence of imprisonment for a class B
misdemeanor shall be a definite sentence. When such a sentence is
imposed the term shall be fixed by the court, and shall not exceed three
months.
3. Unclassified misdemeanor. A sentence of imprisonment for an
unclassified misdemeanor shall be a definite sentence. When such a
sentence is imposed the term shall be fixed by the court, and shall be
in accordance with the sentence specified in the law or ordinance that
defines the crime but, in any event, it shall not exceed three hundred
sixty-four days.
4. Violation. A sentence of imprisonment for a violation shall be a
definite sentence. When such a sentence is imposed the term shall be
fixed by the court, and shall not exceed fifteen days.
In the case of a violation defined outside this chapter, if the
sentence is expressly specified in the law or ordinance that defines the
offense and consists solely of a fine, no term of imprisonment shall be
imposed.
Place of imprisonment.
* 1. (a) Indeterminate or determinate sentence. Except as provided in
subdivision four of this section, when an indeterminate or determinate
sentence of imprisonment is imposed, the court shall commit the
defendant to the custody of the state department of corrections and
community supervision for the term of his or her sentence and until
released in accordance with the law; provided, however, that a defendant
sentenced pursuant to subdivision seven of section 70.06 shall be
committed to the custody of the state department of corrections and
community supervision for immediate delivery to a reception center
operated by the department.
(b) The court in committing a defendant who is not yet eighteen years
of age to the department of corrections and community supervision shall
inquire as to whether the parents or legal guardian of the defendant, if
present, will grant to the minor the capacity to consent to routine
medical, dental and mental health services and treatment.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subdivision, where the court
commits a defendant who is not yet eighteen years of age to the custody
of the department of corrections and community supervision in accordance
with this section and no medical consent has been obtained prior to said
commitment, the commitment order shall be deemed to grant the capacity
to consent to routine medical, dental and mental health services and
treatment to the person so committed.
(d) Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a parent or legal
guardian of an incarcerated individual who is not yet eighteen years of
age from making a motion on notice to the department of corrections and
community supervision pursuant to article twenty-two of the civil
practice law and rules and section one hundred forty of the correction
law, objecting to routine medical, dental or mental health services and
treatment being provided to such incarcerated individual under the
provisions of paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(e) Nothing in this section shall require that consent be obtained
from the parent or legal guardian, where no consent is necessary or
where the defendant is authorized by law to consent on his or her own
behalf to any medical, dental, and mental health service or treatment.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 1. (a) Indeterminate sentence. Except as provided in subdivision
four of this section, when an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment is
imposed, the court shall commit the defendant to the custody of the
state department of corrections and community supervision for the term
of his or her sentence and until released in accordance with the law.
(b) The court in committing a defendant who is not yet eighteen years
of age to the department of corrections and community supervision shall
inquire as to whether the parents or legal guardian of the defendant, if
present, will grant to the minor the capacity to consent to routine
medical, dental and mental health services and treatment.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subdivision, where the court
commits a defendant who is not yet eighteen years of age to the custody
of the department of corrections and community supervision in accordance
with this section and no medical consent has been obtained prior to said
commitment, the commitment order shall be deemed to grant the capacity
to consent to routine medical, dental and mental health services and
treatment to the person so committed.
(d) Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a parent or legal
guardian of an incarcerated individual who is not yet eighteen years of
age from making a motion on notice to the department of corrections and
community supervision pursuant to article twenty-two of the civil
practice law and rules and section one hundred forty of the correction
law, objecting to routine medical, dental or mental health services and
treatment being provided to such incarcerated individual under the
provisions of paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(e) Nothing in this section shall require that consent be obtained
from the parent or legal guardian, where no consent is necessary or
where the defendant is authorized by law to consent on his or her own
behalf to any medical, dental, and mental health service or treatment.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
2. Definite sentence. Except as provided in subdivision four of this
section, when a definite sentence of imprisonment is imposed, the court
shall commit the defendant to the county or regional correctional
institution for the term of his sentence and until released in
accordance with the law.
2-a. Sentence of life imprisonment without parole. When a sentence of
life imprisonment without parole is imposed, the court shall commit the
defendant to the custody of the state department of corrections and
community supervision for the remainder of the life of the defendant.
* 3. Undischarged imprisonment in other jurisdiction. When a defendant
who is subject to an undischarged term of imprisonment, imposed at a
previous time by a court of another jurisdiction, is sentenced to an
additional term or terms of imprisonment by a court of this state to run
concurrently with such undischarged term, as provided in subdivision
four of section 70.25, the return of the defendant to the custody of the
appropriate official of the other jurisdiction shall be deemed a
commitment for such portion of the term or terms of the sentence imposed
by the court of this state as shall not exceed the said undischarged
term. The defendant shall be committed to the custody of the state
department of corrections and community supervision if the additional
term or terms are indeterminate or determinate or to the appropriate
county or regional correctional institution if the said term or terms
are definite for such portion of the term or terms of the sentence
imposed as shall exceed such undischarged term or until released in
accordance with law. If such additional term or terms imposed shall run
consecutively to the said undischarged term, the defendant shall be
committed as provided in subdivisions one and two of this section.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. Undischarged imprisonment in other jurisdiction. When a defendant
who is subject to an undischarged term of imprisonment, imposed at a
previous time by a court of another jurisdiction, is sentenced to an
additional term or terms of imprisonment by a court of this state to run
concurrently with such undischarged term, as provided in subdivision
four of section 70.25, the return of the defendant to the custody of the
appropriate official of the other jurisdiction shall be deemed a
commitment for such portion of the term or terms of the sentence imposed
by the court of this state as shall not exceed the said undischarged
term. The defendant shall be committed to the custody of the state
department of corrections and community supervision if the additional
term or terms are indeterminate or to the appropriate county or regional
correctional institution if the said term or terms are definite for such
portion of the term or terms of the sentence imposed as shall exceed
such undischarged term or until released in accordance with law. If such
additional term or terms imposed shall run consecutively to the said
undischarged term, the defendant shall be committed as provided in
subdivisions one and two of this section.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
4. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a
juvenile offender, adolescent offender, or a juvenile offender or
adolescent offender who is adjudicated a youthful offender, who is given
an indeterminate, determinate or a definite sentence, and who is under
the age of twenty-one at the time of sentencing, shall be committed to
the custody of the commissioner of the office of children and family
services who shall arrange for the confinement of such offender in
secure facilities of the office; provided, however if an adolescent
offender who committed a crime on or after the youth's sixteenth
birthday receives a definite sentence not exceeding one year, the judge
may order that the adolescent offender serve such sentence in a
specialized secure juvenile detention facility for older youth certified
by the office of children and family services in conjunction with the
state commission of correction and operated pursuant to section two
hundred eighteen-a of the county law. The release or transfer of such
juvenile offenders or adolescent offenders from the office of children
and family services shall be governed by section five hundred eight of
the executive law.
(a-2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a
person sixteen years of age who commits a vehicle and traffic law
offense that does not constitute an adolescent offender offense on or
after October first, two thousand eighteen and a person seventeen years
of age who commits such an offense on or after October first, two
thousand nineteen who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment who is
under the age of twenty-one at the time he or she is sentenced shall be
committed to a specialized secure detention facility for older youth
certified by the office of children and family services in conjunction
with the state commission of correction.
(b) The court in committing a juvenile offender and youthful offender
to the custody of the office of children and family services shall
inquire as to whether the parents or legal guardian of the youth, if
present, will consent for the office of children and family services to
provide routine medical, dental and mental health services and
treatment.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subdivision, where the court
commits an offender to the custody of the office of children and family
services in accordance with this section and no medical consent has been
obtained prior to said commitment, the commitment order shall be deemed
to grant consent for the office of children and family services to
provide for routine medical, dental and mental health services and
treatment to the offender so committed.
(d) Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a parent or legal
guardian of an offender who is not yet eighteen years of age from making
a motion on notice to the office of children and family services
pursuant to article twenty-two of the civil practice law and rules
objecting to routine medical, dental or mental health services and
treatment being provided to such offender under the provisions of
paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(e) Nothing in this section shall require that consent be obtained
from the parent or legal guardian, where no consent is necessary or
where the offender is authorized by law to consent on his or her own
behalf to any medical, dental and mental health service or treatment.
5. Subject to regulations of the department of health, routine
medical, dental and mental health services and treatment is defined for
the purposes of this section to mean any routine diagnosis or treatment,
including without limitation the administration of medications or
nutrition, the extraction of bodily fluids for analysis, and dental care
performed with a local anesthetic. Routine mental health treatment shall
not include psychiatric administration of medication unless it is part
of an ongoing mental health plan or unless it is otherwise authorized by
law.
Concurrent and consecutive terms of imprisonment.
1. Except as provided in subdivisions two, two-a and five of this
section, when multiple sentences of imprisonment are imposed on a person
at the same time, or when a person who is subject to any undischarged
term of imprisonment imposed at a previous time by a court of this state
is sentenced to an additional term of imprisonment, the sentence or
sentences imposed by the court shall run either concurrently or
consecutively with respect to each other and the undischarged term or
terms in such manner as the court directs at the time of sentence. If
the court does not specify the manner in which a sentence imposed by it
is to run, the sentence shall run as follows:
* (a) An indeterminate or determinate sentence shall run concurrently
with all other terms; and
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (a) An indeterminate sentence shall run concurrently with all other
terms; and
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
(b) A definite sentence shall run concurrently with any sentence
imposed at the same time and shall be consecutive to any other term.
2. When more than one sentence of imprisonment is imposed on a person
for two or more offenses committed through a single act or omission, or
through an act or omission which in itself constituted one of the
offenses and also was a material element of the other, the sentences,
except if one or more of such sentences is for a violation of section
270.20 of this chapter, must run concurrently.
* 2-a. When an indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment
is imposed pursuant to section 70.04, 70.06, 70.07, 70.08, 70.10,
subdivision three or four of section 70.70, subdivision three or four of
section 70.71 or subdivision five of section 70.80 of this article, or
is imposed for a class A-I felony pursuant to section 70.00 of this
article, and such person is subject to an undischarged indeterminate or
determinate sentence of imprisonment imposed prior to the date on which
the present crime was committed, the court must impose a sentence to run
consecutively with respect to such undischarged sentence.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 2-a. When an indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment
is imposed pursuant to section 70.04, 70.06, 70.07, 70.08, 70.10,
subdivision three or four of section 70.70, subdivision three or four of
section 70.71 or subdivision five of section 70.80 of this article, or
is imposed for a class A-I felony pursuant to section 70.00 of this
article, and such person is subject to an undischarged indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment imposed prior to the date on which the present
crime was committed, the court must impose a sentence to run
consecutively with respect to such undischarged sentence.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* 2-b. When a person is convicted of a violent felony offense
committed after arraignment and while released on recognizance or bail,
but committed prior to the imposition of sentence on a pending felony
charge, and if an indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment
is imposed in each case, such sentences shall run consecutively.
Provided, however, that the court may, in the interest of justice, order
a sentence to run concurrently in a situation where consecutive
sentences are required by this subdivision if it finds either mitigating
circumstances that bear directly upon the manner in which the crime was
committed or, where the defendant was not the sole participant in the
crime, the defendant's participation was relatively minor although not
so minor as to constitute a defense to the prosecution. The defendant
and the district attorney shall have an opportunity to present relevant
information to assist the court in making this determination and the
court may, in its discretion, conduct a hearing with respect to any
issue bearing upon such determination. If the court determines that
consecutive sentences should not be ordered, it shall make a statement
on the record of the facts and circumstances upon which such
determination is based.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 2-b. When a person is convicted of a violent felony offense
committed after arraignment and while released on recognizance or bail,
but committed prior to the imposition of sentence on a pending felony
charge, and if an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment is imposed in
each case, such sentences shall run consecutively. Provided, however,
that the court may, in the interest of justice, order a sentence to run
concurrently in a situation where consecutive sentences are required by
this subdivision if it finds either mitigating circumstances that bear
directly upon the manner in which the crime was committed or, where the
defendant was not the sole participant in the crime, the defendant's
participation was relatively minor although not so minor as to
constitute a defense to the prosecution. The defendant and the district
attorney shall have an opportunity to present relevant information to
assist the court in making this determination and the court may, in its
discretion, conduct a hearing with respect to any issue bearing upon
such determination. If the court determines that consecutive sentences
should not be ordered, it shall make a statement on the record of the
facts and circumstances upon which such determination is based.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
2-c. When a person is convicted of bail jumping in the second degree
as defined in section 215.56 or bail jumping in the first degree as
defined in section 215.57 committed after arraignment and while released
on recognizance or bail in connection with a pending indictment or
information charging one or more felonies, at least one of which he is
subsequently convicted, and if an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment
is imposed in each case, such sentences shall run consecutively.
Provided, however, that the court may, in the interest of justice, order
a sentence to run concurrently in a situation where consecutive
sentences are required by this subdivision if it finds mitigating
circumstances that bear directly upon the manner in which the crime was
committed. The defendant and the district attorney shall have an
opportunity to present relevant information to assist the court in
making this determination and the court may, in its discretion, conduct
a hearing with respect to any issue bearing upon such determination. If
the court determines that consecutive sentences should not be ordered,
it shall make a statement on the record of the facts and circumstances
upon which such determination is based.
2-d. When a person is convicted of escape in the second degree as
defined in section 205.10 or escape in the first degree as defined in
section 205.15 committed after issuance of a securing order, as defined
in subdivision five of section 500.10 of the criminal procedure law, in
connection with a pending indictment or information charging one or more
felonies, at least one of which he is subsequently convicted, and if an
indeterminate sentence of imprisonment is imposed in each case, such
sentences shall run consecutively. Provided, however, that the court
may, in the interest of justice, order a sentence to run concurrently in
a situation where consecutive sentences are required by this subdivision
if it finds mitigating circumstances that bear directly upon the manner
in which the crime was committed. The defendant and the district
attorney shall have an opportunity to present relevant information to
assist the court in making this determination and the court may, in its
discretion, conduct a hearing with respect to any issue bearing upon
such determination. If the court determines that consecutive sentences
should not be ordered, it shall make a statement on the record of the
facts and circumstances upon which such determination is based.
2-e. Whenever a person is convicted of course of sexual conduct
against a child in the first degree as defined in section 130.75 or
course of sexual conduct against a child in the second degree as defined
in section 130.80 and any other crime under article one hundred thirty
committed against the same child and within the period charged under
section 130.75 or 130.80, the sentences must run concurrently.
2-f. Whenever a person is convicted of facilitating a sex offense with
a controlled substance as defined in section 130.90 of this chapter, the
sentence imposed by the court for such offense may be ordered to run
consecutively to any sentence imposed upon conviction of an offense
defined in article one hundred thirty of this chapter arising from the
same criminal transaction.
2-g. Whenever a person is convicted of unlawful manufacture of
methamphetamine in the third degree as defined in section 220.73 of this
chapter, unlawful manufacture of methamphetamine in the second degree as
defined in section 220.74 of this chapter, or unlawful manufacture of
methamphetamine in the first degree as defined in section 220.75 of this
chapter, or any attempt to commit any of such offenses, and such person
is also convicted, with respect to such unlawful methamphetamine
laboratory, of unlawful disposal of methamphetamine laboratory material
as defined in section 220.76 of this chapter, the sentences must run
concurrently.
3. Where consecutive definite sentences of imprisonment are not
prohibited by subdivision two of this section and are imposed on a
person for offenses which were committed as parts of a single incident
or transaction, the aggregate of the terms of such sentences shall not
exceed one year.
4. When a person, who is subject to any undischarged term of
imprisonment imposed at a previous time by a court of another
jurisdiction, is sentenced to an additional term or terms of
imprisonment by a court of this state, the sentence or sentences imposed
by the court of this state, subject to the provisions of subdivisions
one, two and three of this section, shall run either concurrently or
consecutively with respect to such undischarged term in such manner as
the court directs at the time of sentence. If the court of this state
does not specify the manner in which a sentence imposed by it is to run,
the sentence or sentences shall run consecutively.
5. * (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, when
a person is convicted of assault in the second degree, as defined in
subdivision seven of section 120.05 of this chapter, any definite,
indeterminate or determinate term of imprisonment which may be imposed
as a sentence upon such conviction shall run consecutively to any
undischarged term of imprisonment to which the defendant was subject and
for which he was confined at the time of the assault.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, when a
person is convicted of assault in the second degree, as defined in
subdivision seven of section 120.05 of this chapter, any definite or
indeterminate term of imprisonment which may be imposed as a sentence
upon such conviction shall run consecutively to any undischarged term of
imprisonment to which the defendant was subject and for which he was
confined at the time of the assault.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, when a
person is convicted of assault in the second degree, as defined in
subdivision seven of section 120.05 of this chapter, any definite,
indeterminate or determinate term of imprisonment which may be imposed
as a sentence upon such conviction shall run consecutively to any term
of imprisonment which was previously imposed or which may be
prospectively imposed where the person was confined within a detention
facility at the time of the assault upon a charge which culminated in
such sentence of imprisonment.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, when a
person is convicted of assault in the second degree, as defined in
subdivision seven of section 120.05 of this chapter, any definite or
indeterminate term of imprisonment which may be imposed as a sentence
upon such conviction shall run consecutively to any term of imprisonment
which was previously imposed or which may be prospectively imposed where
the person was confined within a detention facility at the time of the
assault upon a charge which culminated in such sentence of imprisonment.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this
subdivision, a term of imprisonment imposed upon a conviction to assault
in the second degree as defined in subdivision seven of section 120.05
of this chapter may run concurrently to any other term of imprisonment,
in the interest of justice, provided the court sets forth in the record
its reasons for imposing a concurrent sentence. Nothing in this section
shall require the imposition of a sentence of imprisonment where it is
not otherwise required by law.
Calculation of terms of imprisonment.
1. * Indeterminate or determinate sentences.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* Indeterminate sentences.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* An indeterminate or determinate sentence of imprisonment commences
when the prisoner is received in an institution under the jurisdiction
of the state department of corrections and community supervision. Where
a person is under more than one indeterminate or determinate sentence,
the sentences shall be calculated as follows:
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* An indeterminate sentence of imprisonment commences when the
prisoner is received in an institution under the jurisdiction of the
state department of corrections and community supervision. Where a
person is under more than one indeterminate sentence, the sentences
shall be calculated as follows:
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (a) If the sentences run concurrently, the time served under
imprisonment on any of the sentences shall be credited against the
minimum periods of all the concurrent indeterminate sentences and
against the terms of all the concurrent determinate sentences. The
maximum term or terms of the indeterminate sentences and the term or
terms of the determinate sentences shall merge in and be satisfied by
discharge of the term which has the longest unexpired time to run;
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (a) If the sentences run concurrently, the time served under
imprisonment on any of the sentences shall be credited against the
minimum periods of all the concurrent sentences, and the maximum terms
merge in and are satisfied by discharge of the term which has the
longest unexpired time to run;
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (b) If the defendant is serving two or more indeterminate sentences
which run consecutively, the minimum periods of imprisonment are added
to arrive at an aggregate minimum period of imprisonment equal to the
sum of all the minimum periods, and the maximum terms are added to
arrive at an aggregate maximum term equal to the sum of all the maximum
terms, provided, however, that both the aggregate maximum term and the
aggregate minimum period of imprisonment shall be subject to the
limitations set forth in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this subdivision,
where applicable;
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (b) If the sentences run consecutively, the minimum periods of
imprisonment are added to arrive at an aggregate minimum period of
imprisonment equal to the sum of all the minimum periods, and the
maximum terms are added to arrive at an aggregate maximum term equal to
the sum of all the maximum terms, provided, however, that both the
aggregate maximum term and the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment
shall be subject to the limitations set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d)
of this subdivision, where applicable;
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (c) If the defendant is serving two or more determinate sentences of
imprisonment which run consecutively, the terms of the determinate
sentences are added to arrive at an aggregate maximum term of
imprisonment, provided, however, that the aggregate maximum term of
imprisonment shall be subject to the limitations set forth in paragraphs
(e) and (f) of this subdivision, where applicable.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (c) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (ii) or (iii) of this
paragraph, the aggregate maximum term of consecutive sentences imposed
for two or more crimes, other than two or more crimes that include a
class A felony, committed prior to the time the person was imprisoned
under any of such sentences shall, if it exceeds twenty years, be deemed
to be twenty years, unless one of the sentences was imposed for a class
B felony, in which case the aggregate maximum term shall, if it exceeds
thirty years, be deemed to be thirty years. Where the aggregate maximum
term of two or more consecutive sentences is reduced by calculation made
pursuant to this paragraph, the aggregate minimum period of
imprisonment, if it exceeds one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so
reduced, shall be deemed to be one-half of the aggregate maximum term as
so reduced;
(ii) Notwithstanding subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the aggregate
maximum term of consecutive sentences imposed for the conviction of two
violent felony offenses committed prior to the time the person was
imprisoned under any of such sentences and one of which is a class B
violent felony offense, shall, if it exceeds forty years, be deemed to
be forty years;
(iii) Notwithstanding subparagraphs (i) and (ii) of this paragraph,
the aggregate maximum term of consecutive sentences imposed for the
conviction of three or more violent felony offenses committed prior to
the time the person was imprisoned under any of such sentences and one
of which is a class B violent felony offense, shall, if it exceeds fifty
years, be deemed to be fifty years;
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (d) If the defendant is serving one or more indeterminate sentences
of imprisonment and one or more determinate sentence of imprisonment
which run consecutively, the minimum term or terms of the indeterminate
sentence or sentences and the term or terms of the determinate sentence
or sentences are added to arrive at an aggregate maximum term of
imprisonment, provided, however, (i) that in no event shall the
aggregate maximum so calculated be less than the term or maximum term of
imprisonment of the sentence which has the longest unexpired time to
run; and (ii) that the aggregate maximum term of imprisonment shall be
subject to the limitations set forth in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this
subdivision, where applicable.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (d) The aggregate maximum term of consecutive sentences imposed upon
a juvenile offender for two or more crimes, not including a class A
felony, committed before he has reached the age of sixteen, shall, if it
exceeds ten years, be deemed to be ten years. If consecutive
indeterminate sentences imposed upon a juvenile offender include a
sentence for the class A felony of arson in the first degree or for the
class A felony of kidnapping in the first degree, then the aggregate
maximum term of such sentences shall, if it exceeds fifteen years, be
deemed to be fifteen years. Where the aggregate maximum term of two or
more consecutive sentences is reduced by a calculation made pursuant to
this paragraph, the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment, if it
exceeds one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so reduced, shall be
deemed to be one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so reduced.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (e) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (ii), (iii), (iv), (v),
(vi) or (vii) of this paragraph, the aggregate maximum term of
consecutive sentences, all of which are indeterminate sentences or all
of which are determinate sentences, imposed for two or more crimes,
other than two or more crimes that include a class A felony, committed
prior to the time the person was imprisoned under any of such sentences
shall, if it exceeds twenty years, be deemed to be twenty years, unless
one of the sentences was imposed for a class B felony, in which case the
aggregate maximum term shall, if it exceeds thirty years, be deemed to
be thirty years. Where the aggregate maximum term of two or more
indeterminate consecutive sentences is reduced by calculation made
pursuant to this paragraph, the aggregate minimum period of
imprisonment, if it exceeds one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so
reduced, shall be deemed to be one-half of the aggregate maximum term as
so reduced;
(ii) Where the aggregate maximum term of two or more consecutive
sentences, one or more of which is a determinate sentence and one or
more of which is an indeterminate sentence, imposed for two or more
crimes, other than two or more crimes that include a class A felony,
committed prior to the time the person was imprisoned under any of such
sentences, exceeds twenty years, and none of the sentences was imposed
for a class B felony, the following rules shall apply:
(A) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences exceeds twenty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving to a determinate sentence of twenty years.
(B) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences is less than twenty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum term of which shall be
deemed to be twenty years. In such instances, the minimum sentence shall
be deemed to be ten years or six-sevenths of the term or aggregate
maximum term of the determinate sentence or sentences, whichever is
greater.
(iii) Where the aggregate maximum term of two or more consecutive
sentences, one or more of which is a determinate sentence and one or
more of which is an indeterminate sentence, imposed for two or more
crimes, other than two or more crimes that include a class A felony,
commmitted prior to the time the person was imprisoned under any of such
sentences, exceeds thirty years, and one of the sentences was imposed
for a class B felony, the following rules shall apply:
(A) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences exceeds thirty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving a determinate sentence of thirty years;
(B) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences is less than thirty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum term of which shall be
deemed to be thirty years. In such instances, the minimum sentence shall
be deemed to be fifteen years or six-sevenths of the term or aggregate
maximum term of the determinate sentence or sentences, whichever is
greater.
(iv) Notwithstanding subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the aggregate
maximum term of consecutive sentences, all of which are indeterminate
sentences or all of which are determinate sentences, imposed for the
conviction of two violent felony offenses committed prior to the time
the person was imprisoned under any of such sentences and one of which
is a class B violent felony offense, shall, if it exceeds forty years,
be deemed to be forty years
(v) Notwithstanding subparagraphs (ii) and (iii) of this paragraph,
where the aggregate maximum term of two or more consecutive sentences,
one or more of which is a determinate sentence and one or more of which
is an indeterminate sentence, and where such sentences are imposed for
the conviction of two violent felony offenses committed prior to the
time the person was imprisoned under any such sentences and where one of
which is a class B violent felony offense, the following rules shall
apply:
(A) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences exceeds forty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving a determinate sentence of forty years;
(B) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences is less than forty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum term of which shall be
deemed to be forty years. In such instances, the minimum sentence shall
be deemed to be twenty years or six-sevenths of the term or aggregate
maximum term of the determinate sentence or sentences, whichever is
greater.
(vi) Notwithstanding subparagraphs (i) and (iv) of this paragraph, the
aggregate maximum term of consecutive sentences, all of which are
indeterminate or all of which are determinate sentences, imposed for the
conviction of three or more violent felony offenses committed prior to
the time the person was imprisoned under any of such sentences and one
of which is a class B violent felony offense, shall, if it exceeds fifty
years, be deemed to be fifty years;
(vii) Notwithstanding subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (v) of this
paragraph, where the aggregate maximum term of two or more consecutive
sentences, one or more of which is a determinate sentence and one or
more of which is an indeterminate sentence, and where such sentences are
imposed for the conviction of three or more violent felony offenses
committed prior to the time the person was imprisoned under any such
sentences and one of which is a class B violent felony offense, the
following rules shall apply:
(A) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences exceeds fifty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving a determinate sentence of fifty years.
(B) if the aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or
sentences is less than fifty years, the defendant shall be deemed to be
serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum term of which shall be
deemed to be fifty years. In such instances, the minimum sentence shall
be deemed to be twenty-five years or six-sevenths of the term or
aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence or sentences,
whichever is greater.
(viii) Notwithstanding any provision of this subdivision to the
contrary where a person is serving two or more consecutive sentences,
one or more of which is an indeterminate sentence and one or more of
which is a determinate sentence, and if he would be eligible for a
reduction provision pursuant to this subdivision if the maximum term or
aggregate maximum term of the indeterminate sentence or sentences were
added to the term or aggregate maximum term of the determinate sentence
or sentences, the person shall be deemed to be eligible for the
applicable reduction provision and the rules set forth in this
subdivision shall apply.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (f) The aggregate maximum term of consecutive sentences imposed upon
a juvenile offender for two or more crimes, not including a class A
felony, committed before he has reached the age of sixteen, shall, if it
exceeds ten years, be deemed to be ten years. If consecutive
indeterminate sentences imposed upon a juvenile offender include a
sentence for the class A felony of arson in the first degree or for the
class A felony of kidnapping in the first degree, then the aggregate
maximum term of such sentences shall, if it exceeds fifteen years, be
deemed to be fifteen years. Where the aggregate maximum term of two or
more consecutive sentences is reduced by a calculation made pursuant to
this paragraph, the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment, if it
exceeds one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so reduced, shall be
deemed to be one-half of the aggregate maximum term as so reduced.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
2. Definite sentences. A definite sentence of imprisonment commences
when the prisoner is received in the institution named in the
commitment. Where a person is under more than one definite sentence, the
sentences shall be calculated as follows:
(a) If the sentences run concurrently and are to be served in a single
institution, the terms merge in and are satisfied by discharge of the
term which has the longest unexpired time to run;
(b) If the sentences run consecutively and are to be served in a
single institution, the terms are added to arrive at an aggregate term
and are satisfied by discharge of such aggregate term, or by service of
two years imprisonment plus any term imposed for an offense committed
while the person is under the sentences, whichever is less;
(c) If the sentences run concurrently and are to be served in more
than one institution, the term of each such sentence shall be credited
with the portion of any concurrent term served after that sentence was
imposed;
(d) If the sentences run consecutively and are to be served in more
than one institution, the aggregate of the time served in all of the
institutions shall not exceed two years plus any term imposed for an
offense committed while the person is under the sentences.
2-a. Undischarged imprisonment in other jurisdiction. Where a person
who is subject to an undischarged term of imprisonment imposed at a
previous time by a court of another jurisdiction is sentenced to an
additional term or terms of imprisonment by a court of this state, to
run concurrently with such undischarged term, such additional term or
terms shall be deemed to commence when the said person is returned to
the custody of the appropriate official of such other jurisdiction where
the undischarged term of imprisonment is being served. If the additional
term or terms imposed shall run consecutively to the said undischarged
term, such additional term or terms shall commence when the prisoner is
received in the appropriate institution as provided in subdivisions one
and two of this section. The term or terms of such imprisonment shall be
calculated and such other pertinent provisions of this section applied
in the same manner as where a person is under more than one sentence in
this state as provided in this section.
* 3. Jail time. The term of a definite sentence, a determinate
sentence, or the maximum term of an indeterminate sentence imposed on a
person shall be credited with and diminished by the amount of time the
person spent in custody prior to the commencement of such sentence as a
result of the charge that culminated in the sentence. In the case of an
indeterminate sentence, if the minimum period of imprisonment has been
fixed by the court or by the board of parole, the credit shall also be
applied against the minimum period. The credit herein provided shall be
calculated from the date custody under the charge commenced to the date
the sentence commences and shall not include any time that is credited
against the term or maximum term of any previously imposed sentence or
period of post-release supervision to which the person is subject. Where
the charge or charges culminate in more than one sentence, the credit
shall be applied as follows:
(a) If the sentences run concurrently, the credit shall be applied
against each such sentence;
(b) If the sentences run consecutively, the credit shall be applied
against the aggregate term or aggregate maximum term of the sentences
and against the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment.
In any case where a person has been in custody due to a charge that
culminated in a dismissal or an acquittal, the amount of time that would
have been credited against a sentence for such charge, had one been
imposed, shall be credited against any sentence that is based on a
charge for which a warrant or commitment was lodged during the pendency
of such custody.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 3. Jail time. The term of a definite sentence or the maximum term of
an indeterminate sentence imposed on a person shall be credited with and
diminished by the amount of time the person spent in custody prior to
the commencement of such sentence as a result of the charge that
culminated in the sentence. In the case of an indeterminate sentence, if
the minimum period of imprisonment has been fixed by the court or by the
board of parole, the credit shall also be applied against the minimum
period. The credit herein provided shall be calculated from the date
custody under the charge commenced to the date the sentence commences
and shall not include any time that is credited against the term or
maximum term of any previously imposed sentence or period of
post-release supervision to which the person is subject. Where the
charge or charges culminate in more than one sentence, the credit shall
be applied as follows:
(a) If the sentences run concurrently, the credit shall be applied
against each such sentence;
(b) If the sentences run consecutively, the credit shall be applied
against the aggregate term or aggregate maximum term of the sentences
and against the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment.
In any case where a person has been in custody due to a charge that
culminated in a dismissal or an acquittal, the amount of time that would
have been credited against a sentence for such charge, had one been
imposed, shall be credited against any sentence that is based on a
charge for which a warrant or commitment was lodged during the pendency
of such custody.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* 4. Good behavior time. Time allowances earned for good behavior,
pursuant to the provisions of the correction law, shall be computed and
applied as follows:
(a) In the case of a person serving an indeterminate or determinate
sentence, the total of such allowances shall be calculated as provided
in section eight hundred three of the correction law and the allowances
shall be applied as provided in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of
section 70.40;
(b) In the case of a person serving a definite sentence, the total of
such allowances shall not exceed one-third of his term or aggregate term
and the allowances shall be applied as a credit against such term.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 4. Good behavior time. Time allowances earned for good behavior,
pursuant to the provisions of the correction law, shall be computed and
applied as follows:
(a) In the case of a person serving an indeterminate sentence, the
total of such allowances shall not exceed one-third of his maximum or
aggregate maximum term and the allowances shall be applied as provided
in subdivision one (b) of section 70.40;
(b) In the case of a person serving a definite sentence, the total of
such allowances shall not exceed one-third of his term or aggregate term
and the allowances shall be applied as a credit against such term.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
5. Time served under vacated sentence. When a sentence of imprisonment
that has been imposed on a person is vacated and a new sentence is
imposed on such person for the same offense, or for an offense based
upon the same act, the new sentence shall be calculated as if it had
commenced at the time the vacated sentence commenced, and all time
credited against the vacated sentence shall be credited against the new
sentence. In any case where a vacated sentence also includes a period of
post-release supervision, all time credited against the period of
post-release supervision shall be credited against the period of
post-release supervision included with the new sentence. In the event a
period of post-release supervision is not included with the new
sentence, such period shall be credited against the new sentence.
6. Escape. When a person who is serving a sentence of imprisonment
escapes from custody, the escape shall interrupt the sentence and such
interruption shall continue until the return of the person to the
institution in which the sentence was being served or, if the sentence
was being served in an institution under the jurisdiction of the state
department of corrections and community supervision, to an institution
under the jurisdiction of that department. Any time spent by such person
in custody from the date of escape to the date the sentence resumes
shall be credited against the term or maximum term of the interrupted
sentence, provided:
(a) That such custody was due to an arrest or surrender based upon the
escape; or
(b) That such custody arose from an arrest on another charge which
culminated in a dismissal or an acquittal; or
(c) That such custody arose from an arrest on another charge which
culminated in a conviction, but in such case, if a sentence of
imprisonment was imposed, the credit allowed shall be limited to the
portion of the time spent in custody that exceeds the period, term or
maximum term of imprisonment imposed for such conviction.
* 7. Absconding from temporary release or furlough program. When a
person who is serving a sentence of imprisonment is permitted to leave
an institution to participate in a program of work release or furlough
program as such term is defined in section six hundred thirty-one of the
correction law, or in the case of an institution under the jurisdiction
of the state department of corrections and community supervision or a
facility under the jurisdiction of the state office of children and
family services to participate in a program of temporary release, fails
to return to the institution or facility at or before the time
prescribed for his or her return, such failure shall interrupt the
sentence and such interruption shall continue until the return of the
person to the institution in which the sentence was being served or, if
the sentence was being served in an institution under the jurisdiction
of the state department of corrections and community supervision or a
facility under the jurisdiction of the state office of children and
family services to an institution under the jurisdiction of that
department or a facility under the jurisdiction of that office. Any time
spent by such person in an institution from the date of his or her
failure to return to the date his or her sentence resumes shall be
credited against the term or maximum term of the interrupted sentence,
provided:
(a) That such incarceration was due to an arrest or surrender based
upon the failure to return; or
(b) That such incarceration arose from an arrest on another charge
which culminated in a dismissal or an acquittal; or
(c) That such custody arose from an arrest on another charge which
culminated in a conviction, but in such case, if a sentence of
imprisonment was imposed, the credit allowed shall be limited to the
portion of the time spent in custody that exceeds the period, term or
maximum term of imprisonment imposed for such conviction.
* NB Expires September 1, 2027
* § 70.35 Merger of certain definite and indeterminate or determinate
sentences.
The service of an indeterminate or determinate sentence of
imprisonment shall satisfy any definite sentence of imprisonment imposed
on a person for an offense committed prior to the time the indeterminate
or determinate sentence was imposed, except as provided in paragraph (b)
of subdivision five of section 70.25 of this article. A person who is
serving a definite sentence at the time an indeterminate or determinate
sentence is imposed shall be delivered to the custody of the state
department of corrections and community supervision to commence service
of the indeterminate or determinate sentence immediately unless the
person is serving a definite sentence pursuant to paragraph (b) of
subdivision five of section 70.25 of this article. In any case where the
indeterminate or determinate sentence is revoked or vacated, the person
shall receive credit against the definite sentence for each day spent in
the custody of the state department of corrections and community
supervision.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* § 70.35 Merger of certain definite and indeterminate sentences.
The service of an indeterminate sentence of imprisonment shall satisfy
any definite sentence of imprisonment imposed on a person for an offense
committed prior to the time the indeterminate sentence was imposed,
except as provided in paragraph (b) of subdivision five of section 70.25
of this article. A person who is serving a definite sentence at the time
an indeterminate sentence is imposed shall be delivered to the custody
of the state department of corrections and community supervision to
commence service of the indeterminate sentence immediately unless the
person is serving a definite sentence pursuant to paragraph (b) of
subdivision five of section 70.25 of this article. In any case where the
indeterminate sentence is revoked or vacated, the person shall receive
credit against the definite sentence for each day spent in the custody
of the state department of corrections and community supervision.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
Release on parole; conditional release; presumptive release.
1. Indeterminate sentence.
* (a) Release on parole shall be in the discretion of the state board
of parole, and such person shall continue service of his or her sentence
or sentences while on parole, in accordance with and subject to the
provisions of the executive law and the correction law.
(i) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment may be paroled from the institution in which he
or she is confined at any time after the expiration of the minimum or
the aggregate minimum period of the sentence or sentences or, where
applicable, the minimum or aggregate minimum period reduced by the merit
time allowance granted pursuant to paragraph (d) of subdivision one of
section eight hundred three of the correction law.
(ii) A person who is serving one or more than one determinate sentence
of imprisonment shall be ineligible for discretionary release on parole.
(iii) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment and one or more than one determinate sentence
of imprisonment, which run concurrently may be paroled at any time after
the expiration of the minimum period of imprisonment of the
indeterminate sentence or sentences, or upon the expiration of
six-sevenths of the term of imprisonment of the determinate sentence or
sentences, whichever is later.
(iv) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment and one or more than one determinate sentence
of imprisonment which run consecutively may be paroled at any time after
the expiration of the sum of the minimum or aggregate minimum period of
the indeterminate sentence or sentences and six-sevenths of the term or
aggregate term of imprisonment of the determinate sentence or sentences.
(v) Notwithstanding any other subparagraph of this paragraph, a person
may be paroled from the institution in which he or she is confined at
any time on medical parole pursuant to section two hundred fifty-nine-r
or section two hundred fifty-nine-s of the executive law or for
deportation pursuant to paragraph (d) of subdivision two of section two
hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law or after the successful
completion of a shock incarceration program pursuant to article
twenty-six-A of the correction law.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (a) (i) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment may be paroled from the institution in which he
or she is confined at any time after the expiration of the minimum or
the aggregate minimum period of imprisonment of the sentence or
sentences or after the successful completion of a shock incarceration
program, as defined in article twenty-six-A of the correction law,
whichever is sooner. Release on parole shall be in the discretion of the
state board of parole, and such person shall continue service of his or
her sentence or sentences while on parole, in accordance with and
subject to the provisions of the executive law and the correction law.
(ii) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment may be paroled from the institution in which he
or she is confined at any time after the expiration of the minimum or
the aggregate minimum period of the sentence or sentences.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (b) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate or
determinate sentence of imprisonment shall, if he or she so requests, be
conditionally released from the institution in which he or she is
confined when the total good behavior time allowed to him or her,
pursuant to the provisions of the correction law, is equal to the
unserved portion of his or her term, maximum term or aggregate maximum
term; provided, however, that (i) in no event shall a person serving one
or more indeterminate sentence of imprisonment and one or more
determinate sentence of imprisonment which run concurrently be
conditionally released until serving at least six-sevenths of the
determinate term of imprisonment which has the longest unexpired time to
run and (ii) in no event shall a person be conditionally released prior
to the date on which such person is first eligible for discretionary
parole release. The conditions of release, including those governing
post-release supervision, shall be such as may be imposed by the state
board of parole in accordance with the provisions of the executive law.
Every person so released shall be under the supervision of the state
department of corrections and community supervision for a period equal
to the unserved portion of the term, maximum term, aggregate maximum
term, or period of post-release supervision.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* (b) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment shall, if he or she so requests, be
conditionally released from the institution in which he or she is
confined when the total good behavior time allowed to him or her,
pursuant to the provisions of the correction law, is equal to the
unserved portion of his or her maximum or aggregate maximum term. The
conditions of release, including those governing post-release
supervision, shall be such as may be imposed by the state board of
parole in accordance with the provisions of the executive law.
Every person so released shall be under the supervision of the
department of corrections and community supervision for a period equal
to the unserved portion of the maximum, aggregate maximum term, or
period of post-release supervision.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
* (c) A person who is serving one or more than one indeterminate
sentence of imprisonment shall, if he or she so requests, be released
from the institution in which he or she is confined if granted
presumptive release pursuant to section eight hundred six of the
correction law. The conditions of release shall be such as may be
imposed by the state board of parole in accordance with the provisions
of the executive law. Every person so released shall be under the
supervision of the department of corrections and community supervision
for a period equal to the unserved portion of his or her maximum or
aggregate maximum term unless discharged in accordance with law.
* NB Repealed September 1, 2027
2. Definite sentence. A person who is serving one or more than one
definite sentence of imprisonment with a term or aggregate term in
excess of ninety days, and is eligible for release according to the
criteria set forth in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of subdivision one of
section two hundred seventy-three of the correction law, may, if he or
she so requests, be conditionally released from the institution in which
he or she is confined at any time after service of sixty days of that
term, exclusive of credits allowed under subdivisions four and six of
section 70.30. In computing service of sixty days, the credit allowed
for jail time under subdivision three of section 70.30 shall be
calculated as time served. Conditional release from such institution
shall be in the discretion of the parole board, or a local conditional
release commission established pursuant to article twelve of the
correction law, provided, however that where such release is by a local
conditional release commission, the person must be serving a definite
sentence with a term in excess of one hundred twenty days and may only
be released after service of ninety days of such term. In computing
service of ninety days, the credit allowed for jail time under
subdivision three of section 70.30 of this article shall be calculated
as time served. A conditional release granted under this subdivision
shall be upon such conditions as may be imposed by the parole board, in
accordance with the provisions of the executive law, or a local
conditional release commission in accordance with the provisions of the
correction law.
Conditional release shall interrupt service of the sentence or
sentences and the remaining portion of the term or aggregate term shall
be held in abeyance. Every person so released shall be under the
supervision of the department of corrections and community supervision
or a local probation department and in the custody of the local
conditional release commission in accordance with article twelve of the
correction law, for a period of one year. The local probation department
shall cause complete records to be kept of every person released to its
supervision pursuant to this subdivision. The department of corrections
and community supervision may supply to a local probation department and
the local conditional release commission custody information and records
maintained on persons under the supervision of such local probation
department to aid in the performance of its supervision
responsibilities. Compliance with the conditions of release during the
period of supervision shall satisfy the portion of the term or aggregate
term that has been held in abeyance.
3. Delinquency. (a) When a person is alleged to have violated the
terms of presumptive release or parole by absconding, and the state
board of parole has declared such person to be delinquent, the
declaration of delinquency shall interrupt the person's sentence as of
the date of the delinquency and such interruption shall continue until
the releasee's appearance in response to a notice of violation or the
date of the execution of a warrant, whichever is earlier.
(b) When a person is alleged to have violated the terms of his or her
conditional release or post-release supervision by absconding and has
been declared delinquent by the parole board or the local conditional
release commission having supervision over such person, the declaration
of delinquency shall interrupt the period of supervision or post-release
supervision as of the date of the delinquency. For a conditional
release, such interruption shall continue until the releasee's
appearance in response to a notice of violation or the date of the
execution of a warrant, whichever is earlier. For a person released to
post-release supervision, the provisions of section 70.45 of this
article shall apply.
(c) Any time spent by a person in custody from the time of execution
of a warrant pursuant to paragraph (a) of subdivision three of section
two hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law to the time service of the
sentence resumes shall be credited against the term or maximum term of
the interrupted sentence.
4. Earned time credits. (a) Any person subject to community
supervision shall be awarded earned time credits. The calculation of
earned time credit periods shall begin on the releasee's first day of
community supervision and shall be awarded after each completed thirty
day period in compliance with the terms of their community supervision.
Any such awarded earned time credits shall be applied against such
person's unserved portion of the maximum term, aggregate maximum term or
period of post-release supervision for any current sentence. Persons
subject to a sentence with a maximum term of life imprisonment or
lifetime supervision shall not be eligible to receive earned time
credits under this section.
(b) After a person has begun a period of community supervision
pursuant to this section and section 70.45 of this article, such period
of community supervision shall be reduced by thirty days for every
thirty days that such person does not violate a condition of and remains
in compliance with all conditions of his or her community supervision,
provided, however, that the person is not subject to any sentence with a
maximum term of life imprisonment or lifetime supervision. When a person
is subject to more than one period of community supervision, the
reduction authorized in this subdivision shall be applied to every such
period of parole or conditional release to which the person is subject.
(c) Retroactive earned time credits shall be awarded to eligible
persons subject to community supervision at the time this legislation
becomes effective, provided, however, that the maximum allowable
retroactive earned time credit awarded shall not exceed a period of two
years. Retroactive earned time credits shall not be awarded to any
releasee serving a term of reincarceration for a sustained parole
violation at the time of the effective date of the chapter of the laws
of two thousand twenty-one that added this subdivision until the
releasee is returned to community supervision. Persons subject to a
sentence with a maximum term of life imprisonment or lifetime
supervision shall not be eligible to receive retroactive earned time
credits under this section.
(d) If a releasee's current period of community supervision has been
interrupted by a period of reincarceration prior to the effective date
of the chapter of the laws of two thousand twenty-one that added this
subdivision, no earned time credits shall be awarded for such period of
reincarceration. The department shall calculate retroactive earned time
credits within one year after the bill shall have become law and shall
prioritize earned time credit calculations for releasees whose terms of
community supervision are due to terminate before June first, two
thousand twenty-two.
(e) Earned time credits may be withheld or revoked for the thirty-day
period commencing from the date of violative behavior as sustained at a
final revocation hearing, or for the period during which a releasee
absconded from supervision, as sustained at a final revocation hearing.
Earned time credits may not be earned and shall be suspended: (i) during
a period of reincarceration imposed for any sustained violation; (ii)
during the period in which the individual has absconded; or (iii)
pending the outcome of a preliminary or final revocation hearing. If, at
the preliminary hearing, there is no finding by a preponderance of the
evidence of a violation of a condition of release in an important
respect or a violation is not sustained at the final revocation hearing,
then the individual shall be deemed to have been in compliance with the
terms of release and shall be awarded earned time credits from the
period in which the accrual was suspended. If a violation is sustained,
the calculation of an earned time credit period shall recommence on the
thirty-first day after the date of the violative behavior or, if the
sustained violation or conviction resulted in a term of reincarceration,
on the day the releasee is restored to community supervision, whichever
is later.
(f) At least every one hundred eighty days from the first date of a
person's release to community supervision, and every one hundred eighty
days thereafter, the department of corrections and community supervision
shall provide each person on community supervision a report indicating
the total earned time credits received, the total earned time credits
received in the prior one hundred eighty days, the total earned time
credits withheld, the total earned time credits withheld in the prior
one hundred eighty days, the total amount of time reduced from the
person's sentence, and the person's earliest release date based on the
amount of earned time credits received. The department shall provide the
report in written or electronic form.
Determinate sentence; post-release supervision.
1. In general. When a court imposes a determinate sentence it shall in
each case state not only the term of imprisonment, but also an
additional period of post-release supervision as determined pursuant to
this article. Such period shall commence as provided in subdivision five
of this section and a violation of any condition of supervision
occurring at any time during such period of post-release supervision
shall subject the defendant to a further period of imprisonment up to
the balance of the remaining period of post-release supervision, not to
exceed five years; provided, however, that a defendant serving a term of
post-release supervision for a conviction of a felony sex offense, as
defined in section 70.80 of this article, may be subject to a further
period of imprisonment up to the balance of the remaining period of
post-release supervision. Such maximum limits shall not preclude a
longer period of further imprisonment for a violation where the
defendant is subject to indeterminate and determinate sentences.
1-a. When, following a final hearing, a time assessment has been
imposed upon a person convicted of a felony sex offense who owes three
years or more on a period of post-release supervision, imposed pursuant
to subdivision two-a of this section, such defendant, after serving
three years of the time assessment, shall be reviewed by the board of
parole and may be re-released to post-release supervision only upon a
determination by the board of parole made in accordance with subdivision
two of section two hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law. If
re-release is not granted, the board shall specify a date not more than
twenty-four months from such determination for reconsideration, and the
procedures to be followed upon reconsideration shall be the same. If a
time assessment of less than three years is imposed upon such a
defendant, the defendant shall be released upon the expiration of such
time assessment, unless he or she is subject to further imprisonment or
confinement under any provision of law.
2. Period of post-release supervision for other than felony sex
offenses. The period of post-release supervision for a determinate
sentence, other than a determinate sentence imposed for a felony sex
offense as defined in paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section 70.80
of this article, shall be five years except that:
(a) such period shall be one year whenever a determinate sentence of
imprisonment is imposed pursuant to subdivision two of section 70.70 of
this article or subdivision nine of section 60.12 of this title upon a
conviction of a class D or class E felony offense;
(b) such period shall be not less than one year nor more than two
years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed
pursuant to subdivision two of section 70.70 of this article or
subdivision nine of section 60.12 of this title upon a conviction of a
class B or class C felony offense;
(c) such period shall be not less than one year nor more than two
years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed
pursuant to subdivision three or four of section 70.70 of this article
upon conviction of a class D or class E felony offense or subdivision
ten of section 60.12 of this title;
(d) such period shall be not less than one and one-half years nor more
than three years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is
imposed pursuant to subdivision three or four of section 70.70 of this
article upon conviction of a class B felony or class C felony offense or
subdivision eleven of section 60.12 of this title;
(e) such period shall be not less than one and one-half years nor more
than three years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is
imposed pursuant to subdivision three of section 70.02 of this article
or subdivision two or eight of section 60.12 of this title upon a
conviction of a class D or class E violent felony offense or subdivision
four, five, six, or seven of section 60.12 of this title;
(f) such period shall be not less than two and one-half years nor more
than five years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is
imposed pursuant to subdivision three of section 70.02 of this article
or subdivision two or eight of section 60.12 of this title upon a
conviction of a class B or class C violent felony offense.
2-a. Periods of post-release supervision for felony sex offenses. The
period of post-release supervision for a determinate sentence imposed
for a felony sex offense as defined in paragraph (a) of subdivision one
of section 70.80 of this article shall be as follows:
(a) not less than three years nor more than ten years whenever a
determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed pursuant to subdivision
four of section 70.80 of this article upon a conviction of a class D or
class E felony sex offense;
(b) not less than five years nor more than fifteen years whenever a
determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed pursuant to subdivision
four of section 70.80 of this article upon a conviction of a class C
felony sex offense;
(c) not less than five years nor more than twenty years whenever a
determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed pursuant to subdivision
four of section 70.80 of this article upon a conviction of a class B
felony sex offense;
(d) not less than three years nor more than ten years whenever a
determinate sentence is imposed pursuant to subdivision three of section
70.02 of this article upon a conviction of a class D or class E violent
felony sex offense as defined in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of
section 70.80 of this article;
(e) not less than five years nor more than fifteen years whenever a
determinate sentence is imposed pursuant to subdivision three of section
70.02 of this article upon a conviction of a class C violent felony sex
offense as defined in section 70.80 of this article;
(f) not less than five years nor more than twenty years whenever a
determinate sentence is imposed pursuant to subdivision three of section
70.02 of this article upon a conviction of a class B violent felony sex
offense as defined in section 70.80 of this article;
(g) not less than five years nor more than fifteen years whenever a
determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed pursuant to either
section 70.04, section 70.06, or subdivision five of section 70.80 of
this article upon a conviction of a class D or class E violent or
non-violent felony sex offense as defined in section 70.80 of this
article;
(h) not less than seven years nor more than twenty years whenever a
determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed pursuant to either
section 70.04, section 70.06, or subdivision five of section 70.80 of
this article upon a conviction of a class C violent or non-violent
felony sex offense as defined in section 70.80 of this article;
(i) such period shall be not less than ten years nor more than
twenty-five years whenever a determinate sentence of imprisonment is
imposed pursuant to either section 70.04, section 70.06, or subdivision
five of section 70.80 of this article upon a conviction of a class B
violent or non-violent felony sex offense as defined in section 70.80 of
this article; and
(j) such period shall be not less than ten years nor more than twenty
years whenever any determinate sentence of imprisonment is imposed
pursuant to subdivision four of section 70.07 of this article.
3. Conditions of post-release supervision. The board of parole shall
establish and impose conditions of post-release supervision in the same
manner and to the same extent as it may establish and impose conditions
in accordance with the executive law upon persons who are granted parole
or conditional release; provided that, notwithstanding any other
provision of law, the board of parole may impose as a condition of
post-release supervision that for a period not exceeding six months
immediately following release from the underlying term of imprisonment
the person be transferred to and participate in the programs of a
residential treatment facility as that term is defined in subdivision
six of section two of the correction law. Upon release from the
underlying term of imprisonment, the person shall be furnished with a
written statement setting forth the conditions of post-release
supervision in sufficient detail to provide for the person's conduct and
supervision.
4. Revocation of post-release supervision. An alleged violation of any
condition of post-release supervision shall be initiated, heard and
determined in accordance with the provisions of subdivisions three and
four of section two hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law.
5. Calculation of service of period of post-release supervision. A
period or periods of post-release supervision shall be calculated and
served as follows:
(a) A period of post-release supervision shall commence upon the
person's release from imprisonment to supervision by the department of
corrections and community supervision and shall interrupt the running of
the determinate sentence or sentences of imprisonment and the
indeterminate sentence or sentences of imprisonment, if any. The
remaining portion of any maximum or aggregate maximum term shall then be
held in abeyance until the successful completion of the period of
post-release supervision or the person's return to the custody of the
department of corrections and community supervision, whichever occurs
first.
(b) Upon the completion of the period of post-release supervision, the
running of such sentence or sentences of imprisonment shall resume and
only then shall the remaining portion of any maximum or aggregate
maximum term previously held in abeyance be credited with and diminished
by such period of post-release supervision. The person shall then be
under the jurisdiction of the department of corrections and community
supervision for the remaining portion of such maximum or aggregate
maximum term.
(c) When a person is subject to two or more periods of post-release
supervision, such periods shall merge with and be satisfied by discharge
of the period of post-release supervision having the longest unexpired
time to run; provided, however, any time served upon one period of
post-release supervision shall not be credited to any other period of
post-release supervision except as provided in subdivision five of
section 70.30 of this article.
(d) When a person is alleged to have violated a condition of
post-release supervision by absconding and the department of corrections
and community supervision has declared such person to be delinquent: (i)
the declaration of delinquency shall interrupt the period of
post-release supervision; (ii) such interruption shall continue until
the person is restored to post-release supervision; (iii) if the person
is restored to post-release supervision without being returned to the
department of corrections and community supervision, any time spent in
custody from the date of delinquency until restoration to post-release
supervision shall first be credited to the maximum or aggregate maximum
term of the sentence or sentences of imprisonment, but only to the
extent authorized by subdivision three of section 70.40 of this article.
Any time spent in custody solely pursuant to such delinquency after
completion of the maximum or aggregate maximum term of the sentence or
sentences of imprisonment shall be credited to the period of
post-release supervision, if any; and (iv) if the person is ordered
returned to the department of corrections and community supervision, the
person shall be required to serve the time assessment before being
re-released to post-release supervision. If the person is detained
pursuant to paragraph (a) of subdivision three of section two hundred
fifty-nine-i of the executive law pending a preliminary or final
revocation hearing, the time assessment imposed following such hearing
shall commence upon the execution of the warrant. If a warrant was
executed pursuant to paragraph (a) of subdivision three of section two
hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law but a court released the
person pending a preliminary or final revocation hearing, the time
assessment shall commence upon the issuance of a determination after a
final hearing that the person has violated one or more conditions of
community supervision in an important respect, and shall include the
time period between execution of the warrant and release of the person
pending a preliminary or final revocation hearing. If a releasee is
committed to the custody of the sheriff pursuant to article five hundred
thirty of the criminal procedure law, the time assessment, if any, shall
include any time the releasee spent in such custody. If a notice of
violation was issued pursuant to subdivision three of section two
hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law, the time assessment shall
commence upon the issuance of a determination after a final hearing that
the person has violated one or more conditions of supervision. While
serving such assessment, the person shall not receive any good behavior
allowance pursuant to section eight hundred three of the correction law.
Any time spent in custody from the date of delinquency until return to
the department of corrections and community supervision shall first be
credited to the maximum or aggregate maximum term of the sentence or
sentences of imprisonment, but only to the extent authorized by
subdivision three of section 70.40 of this article. The maximum or
aggregate maximum term of the sentence or sentences of imprisonment
shall run while the person is serving such time assessment in the
custody of the department of corrections and community supervision. Any
time spent in custody solely pursuant to such delinquency after
completion of the maximum or aggregate maximum term of the sentence or
sentences of imprisonment shall be credited to the period of
post-release supervision, if any.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this subdivision, in the event a
person is sentenced to one or more additional indeterminate or
determinate term or terms of imprisonment prior to the completion of the
period of post-release supervision, such period of post-release
supervision shall be held in abeyance and the person shall be committed
to the custody of the department of corrections and community
supervision in accordance with the requirements of the prior and
additional terms of imprisonment.
(f) When a person serving a period of post-release supervision is
returned to the department of corrections and community supervision
pursuant to an additional consecutive sentence of imprisonment and
without a declaration of delinquency, such period of post-release
supervision shall be held in abeyance while the person is in the custody
of the department of corrections and community supervision. Such period
of post-release supervision shall resume running upon the person's
re-release.
Sentence of imprisonment for felony drug offender other than a
class A felony.
1. For the purposes of this section, the following terms shall mean:
(a) "Felony drug offender" means a defendant who stands convicted of
any felony, defined in article two hundred twenty or two hundred
twenty-two of this chapter other than a class A felony.
(b) "Second felony drug offender" means a second felony offender as
that term is defined in subdivision one of section 70.06 of this
article, who stands convicted of any felony, defined in article two
hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-two of this chapter other than a
class A felony.
(c) "Violent felony" shall have the same meaning as that term is
defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of this article.
2. Except as provided in subdivision three or four of this section, a
sentence of imprisonment for a felony drug offender shall be a
determinate sentence as provided in paragraph (a) of this subdivision.
(a) Term of determinate sentence. Except as provided in paragraph (b)
or (c) of this subdivision, the court shall impose a determinate term of
imprisonment upon a felony drug offender which shall be imposed by the
court in whole or half years, which shall include as a part thereof a
period of post-release supervision in accordance with section 70.45 of
this article. The terms of imprisonment authorized for such determinate
sentences are as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term shall be at least one year and
shall not exceed nine years, except that for the class B felony of
criminal sale of a controlled substance in or near school grounds as
defined in subdivision two of section 220.44 of this chapter or on a
school bus as defined in subdivision seventeen of section 220.00 of this
chapter or criminal sale of a controlled substance to a child as defined
in section 220.48 of this chapter, the term shall be at least two years
and shall not exceed nine years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term shall be at least one year and
shall not exceed five and one-half years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term shall be at least one year and
shall not exceed two and one-half years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term shall be at least one year and
shall not exceed one and one-half years.
(b) Probation. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court
may sentence a defendant convicted of a class B, class C, class D or
class E felony offense defined in article two hundred twenty or two
hundred twenty-two of this chapter to probation in accordance with the
provisions of sections 60.04 and 65.00 of this chapter.
(c) Alternative definite sentence for class B, class C, class D, and
class E felonies. If the court, having regard to the nature and
circumstances of the crime and to the history and character of the
defendant, is of the opinion that a sentence of imprisonment is
necessary but that it would be unduly harsh to impose a determinate
sentence upon a person convicted of a class C, class D or class E felony
offense defined in article two hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-two
of this chapter, or a class B felony defined in article two hundred
twenty of this chapter, other than the class B felony defined in section
220.48 of this chapter, as added by a chapter of the laws of two
thousand nine the court may impose a definite sentence of imprisonment
and fix a term of one year or less.
(d) The court may direct that a determinate sentence imposed on a
defendant convicted of a class B felony, other than the class B felony
defined in section 220.48 of this chapter, pursuant to this subdivision
be executed as a sentence of parole supervision in accordance with
section 410.91 of the criminal procedure law.
3. Sentence of imprisonment for second felony drug offender.
(a) Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a second felony
drug offender whose prior felony conviction was not a violent felony.
(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d) and (e) of this
subdivision, when the court has found pursuant to the provisions of
section 400.21 of the criminal procedure law that a defendant is a
second felony drug offender who stands convicted of a class B, class C,
class D or class E felony offense defined in article two hundred twenty
or two hundred twenty-two of this chapter the court shall impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment. Such determinate sentence shall
include as a part thereof a period of post-release supervision in
accordance with section 70.45 of this article. The terms of such
determinate sentence shall be imposed by the court in whole or half
years as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term shall be at least two years and
shall not exceed twelve years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term shall be at least one and one-half
years and shall not exceed eight years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term shall be at least one and
one-half years and shall not exceed four years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term shall be at least one and one-half
years and shall not exceed two years.
(c) Probation. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court
may sentence a second felony drug offender convicted of a class B felony
to lifetime probation in accordance with the provisions of section 65.00
of this chapter and may sentence a second felony drug offender convicted
of a class C, class D or class E felony to probation in accordance with
the provisions of section 65.00 of this chapter.
(d) Sentence of parole supervision. In the case of a person sentenced
for a specified offense or offenses as defined in subdivision five of
section 410.91 of the criminal procedure law, who stands convicted of no
other felony offense, who has not previously been convicted of either a
violent felony offense as defined in section 70.02 of this article, a
class A felony offense or a class B felony offense, and is not under the
jurisdiction of or awaiting delivery to the department of corrections
and community supervision, the court may direct that a determinate
sentence imposed pursuant to this subdivision shall be executed as a
parole supervision sentence as defined in and pursuant to the procedures
prescribed in section 410.91 of the criminal procedure law.
(e) Alternate definite sentence for class C, class D and class E
felonies. If the court, having regard to the nature and circumstances of
the crime and to the history and character of the defendant, is of the
opinion that a sentence of imprisonment is necessary but that it would
be unduly harsh to impose a determinate sentence upon a person convicted
of a class C, class D or class E felony offense defined in article two
hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-two of this chapter, the court may
impose a definite sentence of imprisonment and fix a term of one year or
less.
4. Sentence of imprisonment for second felony drug offender previously
convicted of a violent felony.
(a) Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a second felony
drug offender whose prior felony conviction was a violent felony.
(b) Authorized sentence. When the court has found pursuant to the
provisions of section 400.21 of the criminal procedure law that a
defendant is a second felony drug offender whose prior felony conviction
was a violent felony, who stands convicted of a class B, class C, class
D or class E felony offense defined in article two hundred twenty or two
hundred twenty-two of this chapter, the court shall impose a determinate
sentence of imprisonment. Such determinate sentence shall include as a
part thereof a period of post-release supervision in accordance with
section 70.45 of this article. The terms of such determinate sentence
shall be imposed by the court in whole or half years as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term shall be at least six years and
shall not exceed fifteen years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term shall be at least three and
one-half years and shall not exceed nine years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term shall be at least two and
one-half years and shall not exceed four and one-half years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term shall be at least two years and
shall not exceed two and one-half years.
Sentence of imprisonment for a class A felony drug offender.
1. For the purposes of this section, the following terms shall mean:
(a) "Felony drug offender" means a defendant who stands convicted of
any class A felony as defined in article two hundred twenty of this
chapter.
(b) "Second felony drug offender" means a second felony offender as
that term is defined in subdivision one of section 70.06 of this
article, who stands convicted of and is to be sentenced for any class A
felony as defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter.
(c) "Violent felony offense" shall have the same meaning as that term
is defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of this article.
2. Sentence of imprisonment for a first felony drug offender.
(a) Applicability. Except as provided in subdivision three, four or
five of this section, this subdivision shall apply to a person convicted
of a class A felony as defined in article two hundred twenty of this
chapter.
(b) Authorized sentence. The court shall impose a determinate term of
imprisonment which shall be imposed by the court in whole or half years
and which shall include as a part thereof a period of post-release
supervision in accordance with section 70.45 of this article. The terms
authorized for such determinate sentences are as follows:
(i) for a class A-I felony, the term shall be at least eight years and
shall not exceed twenty years;
(ii) for a class A-II felony, the term shall be at least three years
and shall not exceed ten years.
(c) Lifetime probation. Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
the court may sentence a defendant convicted of a class A-II felony
defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter to lifetime
probation in accordance with the provisions of section 65.00 of this
chapter.
3. Sentence of imprisonment for a second felony drug offender.
(a) Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a second felony
drug offender whose prior felony conviction or convictions did not
include one or more violent felony offenses.
(b) Authorized sentence. When the court has found pursuant to the
provisions of section 400.21 of the criminal procedure law that a
defendant is a second felony drug offender who stands convicted of a
class A felony as defined in article two hundred twenty or two hundred
twenty-one of this chapter, the court shall impose a determinate
sentence of imprisonment. Such determinate sentence shall include as a
part thereof a period of post-release supervision in accordance with
section 70.45 of this article. Such determinate sentence shall be
imposed by the court in whole or half years as follows:
(i) for a class A-I felony, the term shall be at least twelve years
and shall not exceed twenty-four years;
(ii) for a class A-II felony, the term shall be at least six years and
shall not exceed fourteen years.
(c) Lifetime probation. Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
the court may sentence a defendant convicted of a class A-II felony
defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter to lifetime
probation in accordance with the provisions of section 65.00 of this
chapter.
4. Sentence of imprisonment for a second felony drug offender
previously convicted of a violent felony offense.
(a) Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a second felony
drug offender whose prior felony conviction was a violent felony.
(b) Authorized sentence. When the court has found pursuant to the
provisions of section 400.21 of the criminal procedure law that a
defendant is a second felony drug offender whose prior felony conviction
was a violent felony, who stands convicted of a class A felony as
defined in article two hundred twenty or two hundred twenty-one of this
chapter, the court shall impose a determinate sentence of imprisonment.
Such determinate sentence shall include as a part thereof a period of
post-release supervision in accordance with section 70.45 of this
article. Such determinate sentence shall be imposed by the court in
whole or half years as follows:
(i) for a class A-I felony, the term shall be at least fifteen years
and shall not exceed thirty years;
(ii) for a class A-II felony, the term shall be at least eight years
and shall not exceed seventeen years.
5. Sentence of imprisonment for operating as a major trafficker.
(a) Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a person convicted
of the class A-I felony of operating as a major trafficker as defined in
section 220.77 of this chapter.
(b) Authorized sentence. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this
subdivision, the court shall impose an indeterminate term of
imprisonment for an A-I felony, in accordance with the provisions of
section 70.00 of this article.
(c) Alternative determinate sentence. If a defendant stands convicted
of violating section 220.77 of this chapter, and if the court, having
regard to the nature and circumstances of the crime and the history and
character of the defendant, is of the opinion that a sentence of
imprisonment is necessary but that it would be unduly harsh to impose
the indeterminate sentence for a class A-I felony specified under
section 70.00 of this article, the court may instead impose the
determinate sentence of imprisonment authorized by clause (i) of
subparagraph (b) of subdivision two of this section for a class A-I drug
felony; in such case, the reasons for the court's opinion shall be set
forth on the record.
Sentences of imprisonment for conviction of a felony sex
offense.
1. Definitions. (a) For the purposes of this section, a "felony sex
offense" means a conviction of any felony defined in article one hundred
thirty of this chapter, including a sexually motivated felony, or
patronizing a person for prostitution in the first degree as defined in
section 230.06 of this chapter, patronizing a person for prostitution in
the second degree as defined in section 230.05 of this chapter,
aggravated patronizing a minor for prostitution in the third degree as
defined in section 230.11 of this chapter, aggravated patronizing a
minor for prostitution in the second degree as defined in section 230.12
of this chapter, aggravated patronizing a minor for prostitution in the
first degree as defined in section 230.13 of this chapter, incest in the
second degree as defined in section 255.26 of this chapter, or incest in
the first degree as defined in section 255.27 of this chapter, or a
felony attempt or conspiracy to commit any of the above.
(b) A felony sex offense shall be deemed a "violent felony sex
offense" if it is for an offense defined as a violent felony offense in
section 70.02 of this article, or for a sexually motivated felony as
defined in section 130.91 of this chapter where the specified offense is
a violent felony offense as defined in section 70.02 of this article.
(c) For the purposes of this section, a "predicate felony sex
offender" means a person who stands convicted of any felony sex offense
as defined in paragraph (a) of this subdivision, other than a class A-I
felony, after having previously been subjected to one or more predicate
felony convictions as defined in subdivision one of section 70.06 or
subdivision one of section 70.04 of this article.
(d) For purposes of this section, a "violent felony offense" is any
felony defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of this article, and
a "non-violent felony offense" is any felony not defined therein.
2. In imposing a sentence within the authorized statutory range for
any felony sex offense, the court may consider all relevant factors set
forth in section 1.05 of this chapter, and in particular, may consider
the defendant's criminal history, if any, including any history of sex
offenses; any mental illness or mental abnormality from which the
defendant may suffer; the defendant's ability or inability to control
his sexual behavior; and, if the defendant has difficulty controlling
such behavior, the extent to which that difficulty may pose a threat to
society.
3. Except as provided by subdivision four, five, six, seven or eight
of this section, or when a defendant is being sentenced for a conviction
of the class A-II felonies of predatory sexual assault and predatory
sexual assault against a child as defined in sections 130.95 and 130.96
of this chapter, or for any class A-I sexually motivated felony for
which a life sentence or a life without parole sentence must be imposed,
a sentence imposed upon a defendant convicted of a felony sex offense
shall be a determinate sentence. The determinate sentence shall be
imposed by the court in whole or half years, and shall include as a part
thereof a period of post-release supervision in accordance with
subdivision two-a of section 70.45 of this article. Persons eligible for
sentencing under section 70.07 of this article governing second child
sexual assault felonies shall be sentenced under such section and
paragraph (j) of subdivision two-a of section 70.45 of this article.
4. (a) Sentences of imprisonment for felony sex offenses. Except as
provided in subdivision five, six, seven, or eight of this section, the
term of the determinate sentence must be fixed by the court as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term must be at least five years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term must be at least three and
one-half years and must not exceed fifteen years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term must be at least two years and
must not exceed seven years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term must be at least one and one-half
years and must not exceed four years.
(b) Probation. The court may sentence a defendant convicted of a class
D or class E felony sex offense to probation in accordance with the
provisions of section 65.00 of this title.
(c) Alternative definite sentences for class D and class E felony sex
offenses. If the court, having regard to the nature and circumstances of
the crime and to the history and character of the defendant, is of the
opinion that a sentence of imprisonment is necessary but that it would
be unduly harsh to impose a determinate sentence upon a person convicted
of a class D or class E felony sex offense, the court may impose a
definite sentence of imprisonment and fix a term of one year or less.
5. Sentence of imprisonment for a predicate felony sex offender. (a)
Applicability. This subdivision shall apply to a predicate felony sex
offender who stands convicted of a non-violent felony sex offense and
who was previously convicted of one or more felonies.
(b) Non-violent predicate felony offense. When the court has found,
pursuant to the provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person
is a predicate felony sex offender, and the person's predicate
conviction was for a non-violent felony offense, the court must impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment, the term of which must be fixed by
the court as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term must be at least eight years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term must be at least five years and
must not exceed fifteen years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term must be at least three years and
must not exceed seven years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term must be at least two years and
must not exceed four years.
(c) Violent predicate felony offense. When the court has found,
pursuant to the provisions of the criminal procedure law, that a person
is a predicate felony sex offender, and the person's predicate
conviction was for a violent felony offense, the court must impose a
determinate sentence of imprisonment, the term of which must be fixed by
the court as follows:
(i) for a class B felony, the term must be at least nine years and
must not exceed twenty-five years;
(ii) for a class C felony, the term must be at least six years and
must not exceed fifteen years;
(iii) for a class D felony, the term must be at least four years and
must not exceed seven years; and
(iv) for a class E felony, the term must be at least two and one-half
years and must not exceed four years.
(d) A defendant who stands convicted of a non-violent felony sex
offense, other than a class A-I or class A-II felony, who is adjudicated
a persistent felony offender under section 70.10 of this article, shall
be sentenced pursuant to the provisions of section 70.10 or pursuant to
this subdivision.
6. Sentence of imprisonment for a violent felony sex offense. Except
as provided in subdivisions seven and eight of this section, a defendant
who stands convicted of a violent felony sex offense must be sentenced
pursuant to the provisions of section 70.02, section 70.04, subdivision
six of section 70.06, section 70.08, or section 70.10 of this article,
as applicable.
7. Sentence for a class A felony sex offense. When a person stands
convicted of a sexually motivated felony pursuant to section 130.91 of
this chapter and the specified offense is a class A felony, the court
must sentence the defendant in accordance with the provisions of:
(a) section 60.06 of this chapter and section 70.00 of this article,
as applicable, if such offense is a class A-I felony; and
(b) section 70.00, 70.06 or 70.08 of this article, as applicable, if
such offense is a class A-II felony.
8. Whenever a juvenile offender stands convicted of a felony sex
offense, he or she must be sentenced pursuant to the provisions of
sections 60.10 and 70.05 of this chapter.
9. Every determinate sentence for a felony sex offense, as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of this section, imposed pursuant to
any section of this article, shall include as a part thereof a period of
post-release supervision in accordance with subdivision two-a of section
70.45 of this article.
Transitional exception to determinate sentencing laws.
This section shall apply only to cases in which a determinate sentence
was imposed between September first, nineteen hundred ninety-eight, and
the effective date of this section, and was required by law to include a
term of post-release supervision, but the court did not explicitly state
such a term when pronouncing sentence. When such a case is again before
the court pursuant to section six hundred one-d of the correction law or
otherwise, for consideration of whether to resentence, the court may,
notwithstanding any other provision of law but only on consent of the
district attorney, re-impose the originally imposed determinate sentence
of imprisonment without any term of post-release supervision, which then
shall be deemed a lawful sentence.
ARTICLE 80 Fines
ARTICLE 85 Sentence of Intermittent Imprisonment
Sentence of intermittent imprisonment.
1. Definition. A sentence of intermittent imprisonment is a revocable
sentence of imprisonment to be served on days or during certain periods
of days, or both, specified by the court as part of the sentence. A
person who receives a sentence of intermittent imprisonment shall be
incarcerated in the institution to which he is committed at such times
as are specified by the court in the sentence.
2. Authorization for use of sentence. The court may impose a sentence
of intermittent imprisonment in any case where:
(a) the court is imposing sentence, upon a person other than a second
or persistent felony offender, for a class D or class E felony or for
any offense that is not a felony; and
(b) the court is not imposing any other sentence of imprisonment upon
the defendant at the same time; and
(c) the defendant is not under any other sentence of imprisonment with
a term in excess of fifteen days imposed by any other court; and
3. Duration of sentence. A sentence of intermittent imprisonment may
be for any term that could be imposed as a definite sentence of
imprisonment for the offense for which such sentence is imposed. The
term of the sentence shall commence on the day it is imposed and shall
be calculated upon the basis of the duration of its term, rather than
upon the basis of the days spent in confinement, so that no person shall
be subject to any such sentence for a period that is longer than a
period that commences on the date the sentence is imposed and ends on
the date the term of the longest definite sentence for the offense would
have expired, after deducting the credit that would have been applicable
to a definite sentence for jail time but without regard to any credit
authorized to be allowed against the term of a definite sentence for
good behavior. The provisions of section five hundred-l of the
correction law shall not be applicable to a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment.
4. Imposition of sentence. (a) When the court imposes a sentence of
intermittent imprisonment the court shall specify in the sentence:
(i) that the court is imposing a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment;
(ii) the term of such sentence;
(iii) the days or parts of days on which the sentence is to be served,
but except as provided in paragraph (iv) hereof such specification need
not include the dates on which such days fall; and
(iv) the first and last dates on which the defendant is to be
incarcerated under the sentence.
(b) The court, in its discretion, may specify any day or days or parts
thereof on which the defendant shall be confined and may specify a
period to commence at the commencement of the sentence and not to exceed
fifteen days during which the defendant is to be continuously confined.
Modification and revocation of sentences of intermittent
imprisonment.
1. Authorization. A sentence of intermittent imprisonment may be
modified by the court in its discretion upon application of the
defendant; and the court on its own motion may modify or revoke any such
sentence if:
(a) the court is satisfied during the term of the sentence that the
defendant has committed another offense during such term;
(b) the defendant has failed to report to the institution to which he
has been committed, or to the institution designated by the head of the
agency to which he has been committed, on a day or dates specified in
the commitment and is unable or unwilling to furnish a reasonable and
acceptable explanation for such failure; or
(c) the defendant has violated a rule or regulation of the institution
or agency to which he has been committed and the head of such
institution or agency or someone delegated by him has reported such
violation in writing to the court.
2. Interruption of sentence. In any case where the defendant fails to
report to the institution or to an institution of the agency to which he
has been committed, the term of the sentence shall be interrupted and
such interruption shall continue until the defendant either reports to
such institution or appears before the court that imposed the sentence,
whichever occurs first. If the defendant reports to the institution
before he appears before the court, he shall be brought before the
court.
3. Action by court. The court shall not modify or revoke a sentence of
intermittent imprisonment unless the defendant has been afforded an
opportunity to be heard. Any modification of a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment:
(a) may provide (i) for different or additional or fewer days or parts
of days on which the defendant is to be confined, or (ii) where the
defendant has failed to report as specified in the sentence, an
extension of the term of the sentence for the period during which it was
interrupted, or (iii) for both; and
(b) shall be by written order of the court and shall be delivered and
filed in the same manner as the original sentence, as specified in
subdivision two of section 85.10 of this article.
4. Jail time. Where a sentence of intermittent imprisonment is revoked
and a sentence of imprisonment is imposed in its place for the same
offense, time spent in confinement under the sentence of intermittent
imprisonment shall be calculated as jail time under subdivision three of
section 70.30 of this chapter and shall be added to any jail time
accrued against such sentence prior to imposition thereof.
Commitment; notifications; warrants.
1. Commitment. Commitment under a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment and execution of the judgment shall be in accordance with
the procedure applicable to a definite sentence of imprisonment, except
that: (a) detention of the defendant under the judgment shall be
executed during the times specified in the sentence; and (b) the court
may provide that the defendant is to report to a specified institution
on a specified date at a specified time to commence service of the
sentence and in such case the defendant need not be taken into or
retained in custody when sentence is imposed.
2. Notifications. A written copy of the sentence imposed by the court
signed by the judge who imposed the sentence shall be delivered to the
defendant and shall be annexed to the commitment and to each copy of the
commitment required to be delivered or filed. When the defendant is not
taken into or retained in custody at the time sentence is imposed, the
commitment and copy of the sentence shall forthwith be delivered to the
person whose duty it is to execute the judgment. If at any time the
defendant fails to report for confinement as provided in the sentence
the officer in charge of the institution or department to which such
commitment is made or someone designated by such officer shall forthwith
notify the court in writing of such failure to report.
3. Warrants. Upon receipt of any such notification the court may issue
a warrant to an appropriate police officer or peace officer directing
him to take the defendant into custody and bring him before the court.
The court may then commit such person to custody or fix bail or release
him on his own recognizance for future appearance before the court.
Subsequent sentences.
* 1. Indeterminate and determinate sentences. The service of an
indeterminate or a determinate sentence of imprisonment shall satisfy
any sentence of intermittent imprisonment imposed on a person for an
offense committed prior to the time the indeterminate or determinate
sentence was imposed. A person who is serving a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment at the time an indeterminate or a determinate sentence of
imprisonment is imposed shall be delivered to the custody of the state
department of corrections and community supervision to commence service
of the indeterminate or determinate sentence immediately.
* NB Effective until September 1, 2027
* 1. Indeterminate and reformatory sentences. The service of an
indeterminate or a reformatory sentence of imprisonment shall satisfy
any sentence of intermittent imprisonment imposed on a person for an
offense committed prior to the time the indeterminate or reformatory
sentence was imposed. A person who is serving a sentence of intermittent
imprisonment at the time an indeterminate or a reformatory sentence of
imprisonment is imposed shall be delivered to the custody of the state
department of corrections and community supervision to commence service
of the indeterminate or reformatory sentence immediately.
* NB Effective September 1, 2027
2. Definite sentences. If a definite sentence of imprisonment is
imposed on a person who is under a previously imposed sentence of
intermittent imprisonment, such person shall commence service of the
definite sentence immediately. Where such definite sentence is for a
term in excess of thirty days, the service of such sentence shall
satisfy the sentence of intermittent imprisonment unless the sentence of
intermittent imprisonment is revoked, or a warrant is issued pursuant to
subdivision three of section 85.10 of this article and prior to
satisfaction of, or conditional release under, such definite sentence of
imprisonment.
PART 3 Specific Offenses
TITLE G Anticipatory Offenses
ARTICLE 100 Criminal Solicitation
Criminal solicitation in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal solicitation in the fifth degree when,
with intent that another person engage in conduct constituting a crime,
he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise attempts to
cause such other person to engage in such conduct.
Criminal solicitation in the fifth degree is a violation.
Criminal solicitation in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal solicitation in the fourth degree when:
1. with intent that another person engage in conduct constituting a
felony, he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise
attempts to cause such other person to engage in such conduct; or
2. being over eighteen years of age, with intent that another person
under sixteen years of age engage in conduct that would constitute a
crime, he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise attempts
to cause such other person to engage in such conduct.
Criminal solicitation in the fourth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal solicitation in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal solicitation in the third degree when,
being over eighteen years of age, with intent that another person under
sixteen years of age engage in conduct that would constitute a felony,
he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise attempts to
cause such other person to engage in such conduct.
Criminal solicitation in the third degree is a class E felony.
Criminal solicitation in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal solicitation in the second degree when,
with intent that another person engage in conduct constituting a class A
felony, he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise
attempts to cause such other person to engage in such conduct.
Criminal solicitation in the second degree is a class D felony.
Criminal solicitation in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal solicitation in the first degree when,
being over eighteen years of age, with intent that another person under
sixteen years of age engage in conduct that would constitute a class A
felony, he solicits, requests, commands, importunes or otherwise
attempts to cause such other person to engage in such conduct.
Criminal solicitation in the first degree is a class C felony.
Criminal solicitation; no defense.
It is no defense to a prosecution for criminal solicitation that the
person solicited could not be guilty of the crime solicited owing to
criminal irresponsibility or other legal incapacity or exemption, or to
unawareness of the criminal nature of the conduct solicited or of the
defendant's criminal purpose or to other factors precluding the mental
state required for the commission of the crime in question.
Criminal solicitation; exemption.
A person is not guilty of criminal solicitation when his solicitation
constitutes conduct of a kind that is necessarily incidental to the
commission of the crime solicited. When under such circumstances the
solicitation constitutes an offense other than criminal solicitation
which is related to but separate from the crime solicited, the actor is
guilty of such related and separate offense only and not of criminal
solicitation.
ARTICLE 105 Conspiracy
Conspiracy in the sixth degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the sixth degree when, with intent
that conduct constituting a crime be performed, he agrees with one or
more persons to engage in or cause the performance of such conduct.
Conspiracy in the sixth degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Conspiracy in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the fifth degree when, with intent
that conduct constituting:
1. a felony be performed, he agrees with one or more persons to engage
in or cause the performance of such conduct; or
2. a crime be performed, he, being over eighteen years of age, agrees
with one or more persons under sixteen years of age to engage in or
cause the performance of such conduct.
Conspiracy in the fifth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Conspiracy in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the fourth degree when, with
intent that conduct constituting:
1. a class B or class C felony be performed, he or she agrees with one
or more persons to engage in or cause the performance of such conduct;
or
2. a felony be performed, he or she, being over eighteen years of age,
agrees with one or more persons under sixteen years of age to engage in
or cause the performance of such conduct; or
3. the felony of money laundering in the third degree as defined in
section 470.10 of this chapter, be performed, he or she agrees with one
or more persons to engage in or cause the performance of such conduct.
Conspiracy in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Conspiracy in the third degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the third degree when, with intent
that conduct constituting a class B or a class C felony be performed,
he, being over eighteen years of age, agrees with one or more persons
under sixteen years of age to engage in or cause the performance of such
conduct.
Conspiracy in the third degree is a class D felony.
Conspiracy in the second degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the second degree when, with
intent that conduct constituting a class A felony be performed, he
agrees with one or more persons to engage in or cause the performance of
such conduct.
Conspiracy in the second degree is a class B felony.
Conspiracy in the first degree.
A person is guilty of conspiracy in the first degree when, with intent
that conduct constituting a class A felony be performed, he, being over
eighteen years of age, agrees with one or more persons under sixteen
years of age to engage in or cause the performance of such conduct.
Conspiracy in the first degree is a class A-I felony.
Conspiracy; pleading and proof; necessity of overt act.
A person shall not be convicted of conspiracy unless an overt act is
alleged and proved to have been committed by one of the conspirators in
furtherance of the conspiracy.
Conspiracy; jurisdiction and venue.
1. A person may be prosecuted for conspiracy in the county in which he
entered into such conspiracy or in any county in which an overt act in
furtherance thereof was committed.
2. An agreement made within this state to engage in or cause the
performance of conduct in another jurisdiction is punishable herein as a
conspiracy only when such conduct would constitute a crime both under
the laws of this state if performed herein and under the laws of the
other jurisdiction if performed therein.
3. An agreement made in another jurisdiction to engage in or cause the
performance of conduct within this state, which would constitute a crime
herein, is punishable herein only when an overt act in furtherance of
such conspiracy is committed within this state. Under such
circumstances, it is no defense to a prosecution for conspiracy that the
conduct which is the objective of the conspiracy would not constitute a
crime under the laws of the other jurisdiction if performed therein.
Conspiracy; no defense.
It is no defense to a prosecution for conspiracy that, owing to
criminal irresponsibility or other legal incapacity or exemption, or to
unawareness of the criminal nature of the agreement or the object
conduct or of the defendant's criminal purpose or to other factors
precluding the mental state required for the commission of conspiracy or
the object crime, one or more of the defendant's co-conspirators could
not be guilty of conspiracy or the object crime.
Conspiracy; enterprise corruption: applicability.
For purposes of this article, conspiracy to commit the crime of
enterprise corruption in violation of section 460.20 of this chapter
shall not constitute an offense.
ARTICLE 110 Attempt
Attempt to commit a crime.
A person is guilty of an attempt to commit a crime when, with intent
to commit a crime, he engages in conduct which tends to effect the
commission of such crime.
Attempt to commit a crime; punishment.
An attempt to commit a crime is a:
1. Class A-I felony when the crime attempted is the A-I felony of
murder in the first degree, aggravated murder as defined in subdivision
one of section 125.26 of this chapter, criminal possession of a
controlled substance in the first degree, criminal sale of a controlled
substance in the first degree, criminal possession of a chemical or
biological weapon in the first degree or criminal use of a chemical or
biological weapon in the first degree;
2. Class A-II felony when the crime attempted is a class A-II felony;
3. Class B felony when the crime attempted is a class A-I felony
except as provided in subdivision one hereof;
4. Class C felony when the crime attempted is a class B felony;
5. Class D felony when the crime attempted is a class C felony;
6. Class E felony when the crime attempted is a class D felony;
7. Class A misdemeanor when the crime attempted is a class E felony;
8. Class B misdemeanor when the crime attempted is a misdemeanor;
9. Class D felony when the crime attempted is bribery in the third
degree as defined in section 200.00 of this chapter, a class C felony
when the crime attempted is bribery in the second degree as defined in
section 200.03 of this chapter and a class B felony when the crime
attempted is bribery in the first degree as defined in subdivision two
of section 200.04 of this chapter.
Attempt to commit a crime; no defense.
If the conduct in which a person engages otherwise constitutes an
attempt to commit a crime pursuant to section 110.00, it is no defense
to a prosecution for such attempt that the crime charged to have been
attempted was, under the attendant circumstances, factually or legally
impossible of commission, if such crime could have been committed had
the attendant circumstances been as such person believed them to be.
ARTICLE 115 Criminal Facilitation
Criminal facilitation in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal facilitation in the fourth degree when,
believing it probable that he is rendering aid:
1. to a person who intends to commit a crime, he engages in conduct
which provides such person with means or opportunity for the commission
thereof and which in fact aids such person to commit a felony; or
2. to a person under sixteen years of age who intends to engage in
conduct which would constitute a crime, he, being over eighteen years of
age, engages in conduct which provides such person with means or
opportunity for the commission thereof and which in fact aids such
person to commit a crime.
Criminal facilitation in the fourth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal facilitation in the third degree.
A person guilty of criminal facilitation in the third degree, when
believing it probable that he is rendering aid to a person under sixteen
years of age who intends to engage in conduct that would constitute a
felony, he, being over eighteen years of age, engages in conduct which
provides such person with means or opportunity for the commission
thereof and which in fact aids such person to commit a felony.
Criminal facilitation in the third degree is a class E felony.
Criminal facilitation in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal facilitation in the second degree when,
believing it probable that he is rendering aid to a person who intends
to commit a class A felony, he engages in conduct which provides such
person with means or opportunity for the commission thereof and which in
fact aids such person to commit such class A felony.
Criminal facilitation in the second degree is a class C felony.
Criminal facilitation in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal facilitation in the first degree when,
believing it probable that he is rendering aid to a person under sixteen
years of age who intends to engage in conduct that would constitute a
class A felony, he, being over eighteen years of age, engages in conduct
which provides such person with means or opportunity for the commission
thereof and which in fact aids such person to commit such a class A
felony.
Criminal facilitation in the first degree is a class B felony.
Criminal facilitation; no defense.
It is no defense to a prosecution for criminal facilitation that:
1. The person facilitated was not guilty of the underlying felony
owing to criminal irresponsibility or other legal incapacity or
exemption, or to unawareness of the criminal nature of the conduct in
question or to other factors precluding the mental state required for
the commission of such felony; or
2. The person facilitated has not been prosecuted for or convicted of
the underlying felony, or has previously been acquitted thereof; or
3. The defendant himself is not guilty of the felony which he
facilitated because he did not act with the intent or other culpable
mental state required for the commission thereof.
Criminal facilitation; corroboration.
A person shall not be convicted of criminal facilitation upon the
testimony of a person who has committed the felony charged to have been
facilitated unless such testimony be corroborated by such other evidence
as tends to connect the defendant with such facilitation.
Criminal facilitation; definitions and construction.
For purposes of this article, such conduct shall include, but not be
limited to, making available, selling, exchanging, giving or disposing
of a community gun, which in fact, aids a person to commit a crime.
"Community gun" shall mean a firearm that is actually shared, made
available, sold, exchanged, given or disposed of among or between two or
more persons, at least one of whom is not authorized pursuant to law to
possess such firearm. "Dispose of" shall have the same meaning as that
term is defined in section 265.00 of this chapter. "Share" and "make
available" shall, in the case of a firearm, be construed to include
knowingly placing such firearm at a location accessible and known to one
or more other persons.
TITLE H Offenses Against the Person Involving Physical Injury, Sexual Conduct, Restraint and Intimidation
ARTICLE 120 Assault and Related Offenses
Assault in the third degree.
A person is guilty of assault in the third degree when:
1. With intent to cause physical injury to another person, he causes
such injury to such person or to a third person; or
2. He recklessly causes physical injury to another person; or
3. With criminal negligence, he causes physical injury to another
person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument.
Assault in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Reckless assault of a child by a child day care provider.
A person is guilty of reckless assault of a child when, being a child
day care provider or an employee thereof, he or she recklessly causes
serious physical injury to a child under the care of such provider or
employee who is less than eleven years of age.
Reckless assault of a child by a child day care provider is a class E
felony.
Reckless assault of a child.
1. A person is guilty of reckless assault of a child when, being
eighteen years of age or more, such person recklessly causes serious
physical injury to the brain of a child less than five years old by
shaking the child, or by slamming or throwing the child so as to impact
the child's head on a hard surface or object.
2. For purposes of subdivision one of this section, the following
shall constitute "serious physical injury":
a. "serious physical injury" as defined in subdivision ten of section
10.00 of this chapter; or
b. extreme rotational cranial acceleration and deceleration and one or
more of the following: (i) subdural hemorrhaging; (ii) intracranial
hemorrhaging; or (iii) retinal hemorrhaging.
Reckless assault of a child is a class D felony.
Vehicular assault in the second degree.
A person is guilty of vehicular assault in the second degree when he
or she causes serious physical injury to another person, and either:
(1) operates a motor vehicle in violation of subdivision two, three,
four or four-a of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and
traffic law or operates a vessel or public vessel in violation of
paragraph (b), (c), (d) or (e) of subdivision two of section
forty-nine-a of the navigation law, and as a result of such intoxication
or impairment by the use of a drug, or by the combined influence of
drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, operates such motor vehicle,
vessel or public vessel in a manner that causes such serious physical
injury to such other person, or
(2) operates a motor vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of
more than eighteen thousand pounds which contains flammable gas,
radioactive materials or explosives in violation of subdivision one of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law, and
such flammable gas, radioactive materials or explosives is the cause of
such serious physical injury, and as a result of such impairment by the
use of alcohol, operates such motor vehicle in a manner that causes such
serious physical injury to such other person, or
(3) operates a snowmobile in violation of paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of
subdivision one of section 25.24 of the parks, recreation and historic
preservation law or operates an all terrain vehicle as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section twenty-two hundred
eighty-one of the vehicle and traffic law and in violation of
subdivision two, three, four, or four-a of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law, and as a result of such
intoxication or impairment by the use of a drug, or by the combined
influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, operates such
snowmobile or all terrain vehicle in a manner that causes such serious
physical injury to such other person.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle,
vessel, public vessel, snowmobile or all terrain vehicle caused such
serious physical injury while unlawfully intoxicated or impaired by the
use of alcohol or a drug, then there shall be a rebuttable presumption
that, as a result of such intoxication or impairment by the use of
alcohol or a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs or of alcohol
and any drug or drugs, such person operated the motor vehicle, vessel,
public vessel, snowmobile or all terrain vehicle in a manner that caused
such serious physical injury, as required by this section.
Vehicular assault in the second degree is a class E felony.
Vehicular assault in the first degree.
A person is guilty of vehicular assault in the first degree when he or
she commits the crime of vehicular assault in the second degree as
defined in section 120.03 of this article, and either:
(1) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while such
person has .18 of one per centum or more by weight of alcohol in such
person's blood as shown by chemical analysis of such person's blood,
breath, urine or saliva made pursuant to the provisions of section
eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law;
(2) commits such crime while knowing or having reason to know that:
(a) his or her license or his or her privilege of operating a motor
vehicle in another state or his or her privilege of obtaining a license
to operate a motor vehicle in another state is suspended or revoked and
such suspension or revocation is based upon a conviction in such other
state for an offense which would, if committed in this state, constitute
a violation of any of the provisions of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law; or (b) his or her license or
his or her privilege of operating a motor vehicle in the state or his or
her privilege of obtaining a license issued by the commissioner of motor
vehicles is suspended or revoked and such suspension or revocation is
based upon either a refusal to submit to a chemical test pursuant to
section eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law or
following a conviction for a violation of any of the provisions of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law;
(3) has previously been convicted of violating any of the provisions
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law
within the preceding ten years, provided that, for the purposes of this
subdivision, a conviction in any other state or jurisdiction for an
offense which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law,
shall be treated as a violation of such law;
(4) causes serious physical injury to more than one other person;
(5) has previously been convicted of violating any provision of this
article or article one hundred twenty-five of this title involving the
operation of a motor vehicle, or was convicted in any other state or
jurisdiction of an offense involving the operation of a motor vehicle
which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation of this
article or article one hundred twenty-five of this title;
(6) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while a child
who is fifteen years of age or less is a passenger in such motor vehicle
and causes serious physical injury to such child; or
(7) commits such crime while operating a vessel in violation of
paragraph (e-1) of subdivision two of section forty-nine-a of the
navigation law while a child who is fifteen years of age or less is a
passenger in such vessel and causes serious physical injury to such
child.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle
caused such serious physical injury or injuries while unlawfully
intoxicated or impaired by the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the
combined influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, then
there shall be a rebuttable presumption that, as a result of such
intoxication or impairment by the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the
combined influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, such
person operated the motor vehicle in a manner that caused such serious
physical injury or injuries, as required by this section and section
120.03 of this article.
Vehicular assault in the first degree is a class D felony.
Aggravated vehicular assault.
A person is guilty of aggravated vehicular assault when he or she
engages in reckless driving as defined by section twelve hundred twelve
of the vehicle and traffic law, and commits the crime of vehicular
assault in the second degree as defined in section 120.03 of this
article, and either:
(1) commits such crimes while operating a motor vehicle while such
person has .18 of one per centum or more by weight of alcohol in such
person's blood as shown by chemical analysis of such person's blood,
breath, urine or saliva made pursuant to the provisions of section
eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law;
(2) commits such crimes while knowing or having reason to know that:
(a) his or her license or his or her privilege of operating a motor
vehicle in another state or his or her privilege of obtaining a license
to operate a motor vehicle in another state is suspended or revoked and
such suspension or revocation is based upon a conviction in such other
state for an offense which would, if committed in this state, constitute
a violation of any of the provisions of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law; or (b) his or her license or
his or her privilege of operating a motor vehicle in this state or his
or her privilege of obtaining a license issued by the commissioner of
motor vehicles is suspended or revoked and such suspension or revocation
is based upon either a refusal to submit to a chemical test pursuant to
section eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law or
following a conviction for a violation of any of the provisions of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law;
(3) has previously been convicted of violating any of the provisions
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law
within the preceding ten years, provided that, for the purposes of this
subdivision, a conviction in any other state or jurisdiction for an
offense which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law,
shall be treated as a violation of such law;
(4) causes serious physical injury to more than one other person;
(5) has previously been convicted of violating any provision of this
article or article one hundred twenty-five of this title involving the
operation of a motor vehicle, or was convicted in any other state or
jurisdiction of an offense involving the operation of a motor vehicle
which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation of this
article or article one hundred twenty-five of this title; or
(6) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while a child
who is fifteen years of age or less is a passenger in such motor vehicle
and causes serious physical injury to such child.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle
caused such serious physical injury or injuries while unlawfully
intoxicated or impaired by the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the
combined influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, then
there shall be a rebuttable presumption that, as a result of such
intoxication or impairment by the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the
combined influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, such
person operated the motor vehicle in a manner that caused such serious
physical injury or injuries, as required by this section and section
120.03 of this article.
Aggravated vehicular assault is a class C felony.
Assault in the second degree.
A person is guilty of assault in the second degree when:
1. With intent to cause serious physical injury to another person, he
causes such injury to such person or to a third person; or
2. With intent to cause physical injury to another person, he causes
such injury to such person or to a third person by means of a deadly
weapon or a dangerous instrument; or
3. With intent to prevent a peace officer, a police officer,
prosecutor as defined in subdivision thirty-one of section 1.20 of the
criminal procedure law, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse,
public health sanitarian, New York city public health sanitarian,
sanitation enforcement agent, New York city sanitation worker, a
firefighter, including a firefighter acting as a paramedic or emergency
medical technician administering first aid in the course of performance
of duty as such firefighter, an emergency medical service paramedic or
emergency medical service technician, or medical or related personnel in
a hospital emergency department, a city marshal, a school crossing guard
appointed pursuant to section two hundred eight-a of the general
municipal law, a traffic enforcement officer, traffic enforcement agent
or employee of any entity governed by the public service law in the
course of performing an essential service, from performing a lawful
duty, by means including releasing or failing to control an animal under
circumstances evincing the actor's intent that the animal obstruct the
lawful activity of such peace officer, police officer, prosecutor as
defined in subdivision thirty-one of section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, public health
sanitarian, New York city public health sanitarian, sanitation
enforcement agent, New York city sanitation worker, firefighter,
paramedic, technician, city marshal, school crossing guard appointed
pursuant to section two hundred eight-a of the general municipal law,
traffic enforcement officer, traffic enforcement agent or employee of an
entity governed by the public service law, he or she causes physical
injury to such peace officer, police officer, prosecutor as defined in
subdivision thirty-one of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law,
registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, public health sanitarian,
New York city public health sanitarian, sanitation enforcement agent,
New York city sanitation worker, firefighter, paramedic, technician or
medical or related personnel in a hospital emergency department, city
marshal, school crossing guard, traffic enforcement officer, traffic
enforcement agent or employee of an entity governed by the public
service law; or
3-a. With intent to prevent an employee of a local social services
district directly involved in investigation of or response to alleged
abuse or neglect of a child, a vulnerable elderly person or an
incompetent or physically disabled person, from performing such
investigation or response, the actor, not being such child, vulnerable
elderly person or incompetent or physically disabled person, or with
intent to prevent an employee of a local social services district
directly involved in providing public assistance and care from
performing his or her job, causes physical injury to such employee
including by means of releasing or failing to control an animal under
circumstances evincing the actor's intent that the animal obstruct the
lawful activities of such employee; or
3-b. With intent to prevent an employee of the New York city housing
authority from performing his or her lawful duties while located on
housing project grounds, real property, or a building owned, managed, or
operated by such authority he or she causes physical injury to such
employee; or
3-c. With intent to prevent an employee providing direct patient care,
who is not a nurse pursuant to title eight of the education law, whose
principal employment responsibility is to carry out direct patient care
for one or more patients in any hospital, nursing home, residential
health care facility, general hospital, government agency including any
chronic disease hospital, maternity hospital, outpatient department,
emergency center or surgical center under article twenty-eight of the
public health law, from performing a lawful duty, he or she causes
physical injury to such employee providing direct patient care; or
4. He recklessly causes serious physical injury to another person by
means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument; or
4-a. He recklessly causes physical injury to another person who is a
child under the age of eighteen by intentional discharge of a firearm,
rifle or shotgun; or
5. For a purpose other than lawful medical or therapeutic treatment,
he intentionally causes stupor, unconsciousness or other physical
impairment or injury to another person by administering to him, without
his consent, a drug, substance or preparation capable of producing the
same; or
6. In the course of and in furtherance of the commission or attempted
commission of a felony, other than a felony defined in article one
hundred thirty which requires corroboration for conviction, or of
immediate flight therefrom, he, or another participant if there be any,
causes physical injury to a person other than one of the participants;
or
7. Having been charged with or convicted of a crime and while confined
in a correctional facility, as defined in subdivision three of section
forty of the correction law, pursuant to such charge or conviction, with
intent to cause physical injury to another person, he causes such injury
to such person or to a third person; or
8. Being eighteen years old or more and with intent to cause physical
injury to a person less than eleven years old, the defendant recklessly
causes serious physical injury to such person; or
9. Being eighteen years old or more and with intent to cause physical
injury to a person less than seven years old, the defendant causes such
injury to such person; or
10. Acting at a place the person knows, or reasonably should know, is
on school grounds and with intent to cause physical injury, he or she:
(a) causes such injury to an employee of a school or public school
district; or
(b) not being a student of such school or public school district,
causes physical injury to another, and such other person is a student of
such school who is attending or present for educational purposes. For
purposes of this subdivision the term "school grounds" shall have the
meaning set forth in subdivision fourteen of section 220.00 of this
chapter; or
11. With intent to cause physical injury to a train operator, ticket
inspector, conductor, signalperson, bus operator, station agent, station
cleaner, terminal cleaner, station customer assistant, traffic checker;
person whose official duties include the sale or collection of tickets,
passes, vouchers, or other revenue payment media for use on a train,
bus, or ferry the collection or handling of revenues therefrom; a person
whose official duties include the maintenance, repair, inspection,
troubleshooting, testing or cleaning of buses or ferries, a transit
signal system, elevated or underground subway tracks, transit station
structure, including fare equipment, escalators, elevators and other
equipment necessary to passenger service, commuter rail tracks or
stations, train yard, revenue train in passenger service, a ferry
station, or a train or bus station or terminal; or a supervisor of such
personnel, employed by any transit or commuter rail agency, authority or
company, public or private, whose operation is authorized by New York
state or any of its political subdivisions, a city marshal, a school
crossing guard appointed pursuant to section two hundred eight-a of the
general municipal law, a traffic enforcement officer, traffic
enforcement agent, prosecutor as defined in subdivision thirty-one of
section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law, sanitation enforcement
agent, New York city sanitation worker, public health sanitarian, New
York city public health sanitarian, registered nurse, licensed practical
nurse, emergency medical service paramedic, or emergency medical service
technician, he or she causes physical injury to such train operator,
ticket inspector, conductor, signalperson, bus operator, station agent,
station cleaner, terminal cleaner, station customer assistant, traffic
checker; person whose official duties include the sale or collection of
tickets, passes, vouchers or other revenue payment media for use on a
train, bus, or ferry or the collection or handling of revenues
therefrom; a person whose official duties include the maintenance,
repair, inspection, troubleshooting, testing or cleaning of buses or
ferries, a transit signal system, elevated or underground subway tracks,
transit station structure, including fare equipment, escalators,
elevators and other equipment necessary to passenger service, commuter
rail tracks or stations, train yard, revenue train in passenger service,
a ferry station, or a train or bus station or terminal; or a supervisor
of such personnel, city marshal, school crossing guard appointed
pursuant to section two hundred eight-a of the general municipal law,
traffic enforcement officer, traffic enforcement agent, prosecutor as
defined in subdivision thirty-one of section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, public health
sanitarian, New York city public health sanitarian, sanitation
enforcement agent, New York city sanitation worker, emergency medical
service paramedic, or emergency medical service technician, while such
employee is performing an assigned duty on, or directly related to, the
operation of a train or bus, cleaning of a train or bus station or
terminal, assisting customers, checking traffic, the sale or collection
of tickets, passes, vouchers, or other revenue media for use on a train,
bus, or ferry or maintenance or cleaning of a train, a bus, a ferry, or
bus station or terminal, signal system, elevated or underground subway
tracks, transit station structure, including fare equipment, escalators,
elevators and other equipment necessary to passenger service, commuter
rail tracks or stations, train yard or revenue train in passenger
service, a ferry station, or such city marshal, school crossing guard,
traffic enforcement officer, traffic enforcement agent, prosecutor as
defined in subdivision thirty-one of section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, public health
sanitarian, New York city public health sanitarian, sanitation
enforcement agent, New York city sanitation worker, emergency medical
service paramedic, or emergency medical service technician is performing
an assigned duty; or
11-a. With intent to cause physical injury to an employee of a local
social services district directly involved in investigation of or
response to alleged abuse or neglect of a child, vulnerable elderly
person or an incompetent or physically disabled person, the actor, not
being such child, vulnerable elderly person or incompetent or physically
disabled person, or with intent to prevent an employee of a local social
services district directly involved in providing public assistance and
care from performing his or her job, causes physical injury to such
employee; or
11-b. With intent to cause physical injury to an employee of the New
York city housing authority performing his or her lawful duties while
located on housing project grounds, real property, or a building owned,
managed, or operated by such authority he or she causes physical injury
to such employee; or
11-c. With intent to cause physical injury to an employee providing
direct patient care, who is not a nurse pursuant to title eight of the
education law, whose principal employment responsibility is to carry out
direct patient care for one or more patients in any hospital, nursing
home, residential health care facility, general hospital, government
agency including any chronic disease hospital, maternity hospital,
outpatient department, emergency center or surgical center under article
twenty-eight of the public health law, he or she causes physical injury
to such employee providing direct patient care while such employee is
performing a lawful duty; or
12. With intent to cause physical injury to a person who is sixty-five
years of age or older, he or she causes such injury to such person, and
the actor is more than ten years younger than such person; or
13. Being confined to a secure treatment facility, as such term is
defined in subdivision (o) of section 10.03 of the mental hygiene law,
and with intent to cause physical injury to an employee of such secure
treatment facility performing his or her duties, he or she causes such
injury to such person; or
14. With intent to prevent or obstruct a process server, as defined in
section eighty-nine-t of the general business law, from performing a
lawful duty pursuant to article three of the civil practice law and
rules, or intentionally, as retaliation against such a process server
for the performance of the process server's duties pursuant to such
article, including by means of releasing or failing to control an animal
evincing the actor's intent that the animal prevent or obstruct the
lawful duty of the process server or as retaliation against the process
server, he or she causes physical injury to such process server.
Assault in the second degree is a class D felony.
Gang assault in the second degree.
A person is guilty of gang assault in the second degree when, with
intent to cause physical injury to another person and when aided by two
or more other persons actually present, he causes serious physical
injury to such person or to a third person.
Gang assault in the second degree is a class C felony.
Gang assault in the first degree.
A person is guilty of gang assault in the first degree when, with
intent to cause serious physical injury to another person and when aided
by two or more other persons actually present, he causes serious
physical injury to such person or to a third person.
Gang assault in the first degree is a class B felony.
Assault on a peace officer, police officer, firefighter or
emergency medical services professional.
A person is guilty of assault on a peace officer, police officer,
firefighter or emergency medical services professional when, with intent
to prevent a peace officer, police officer, a firefighter, including a
firefighter acting as a paramedic or emergency medical technician
administering first aid in the course of performance of duty as such
firefighter, or an emergency medical service paramedic or emergency
medical service technician, from performing a lawful duty, he or she
causes serious physical injury to such peace officer, police officer,
firefighter, paramedic or technician.
Assault on a peace officer, police officer, firefighter or emergency
medical services professional is a class C felony.
Assault on a judge.
A person is guilty of assault on a judge when, with intent to prevent
a judge from performing official judicial duties, such person causes
serious physical injury to such judge. For the purposes of this section,
the term judge shall mean a judge of a court of record or a justice
court.
Assault on a judge is a class C felony.
Aggravated assault on a judge.
A person is guilty of aggravated assault on a judge when, with intent
to cause serious physical injury and prevent a judge from performing
official judicial duties, such person causes serious physical injury to
such judge. For the purposes of this section, the term judge shall mean
a judge of a court of record or a justice court.
Aggravated assault on a judge is a class B felony.
Assault in the first degree.
A person is guilty of assault in the first degree when:
1. With intent to cause serious physical injury to another person, he
causes such injury to such person or to a third person by means of a
deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument; or
2. With intent to disfigure another person seriously and permanently,
or to destroy, amputate or disable permanently a member or organ of his
body, he causes such injury to such person or to a third person; or
3. Under circumstances evincing a depraved indifference to human life,
he recklessly engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of death to
another person, and thereby causes serious physical injury to another
person; or
4. In the course of and in furtherance of the commission or attempted
commission of a felony or of immediate flight therefrom, he, or another
participant if there be any, causes serious physical injury to a person
other than one of the participants.
Assault in the first degree is a class B felony.
Aggravated assault upon a police officer or a peace officer.
A person is guilty of aggravated assault upon a police officer or a
peace officer when, with intent to cause serious physical injury to a
person whom he knows or reasonably should know to be a police officer or
a peace officer engaged in the course of performing his official duties,
he causes such injury by means of a deadly weapon or dangerous
instrument.
Aggravated assault upon a police officer or a peace officer is a class
B felony.
Aggravated assault upon a person less than eleven years old.
A person is guilty of aggravated assault upon a person less than
eleven years old when being eighteen years old or more the defendant
commits the crime of assault in the third degree as defined in section
120.00 of this article upon a person less than eleven years old and has
been previously convicted of such crime upon a person less than eleven
years old within the preceding ten years.
Aggravated assault upon a person less than eleven years old is a class
E felony.
Menacing in the first degree.
A person is guilty of menacing in the first degree when he or she
commits the crime of menacing in the second degree and has been
previously convicted of the crime of menacing in the second degree or
the crime of menacing a police officer or peace officer within the
preceding ten years.
Menacing in the first degree is a class E felony.
Menacing in the second degree.
A person is guilty of menacing in the second degree when:
1. He or she intentionally places or attempts to place another person
in reasonable fear of physical injury, serious physical injury or death
by displaying a deadly weapon, dangerous instrument or what appears to
be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun, machine gun or other firearm; or
2. He or she repeatedly follows a person or engages in a course of
conduct or repeatedly commits acts over a period of time intentionally
placing or attempting to place another person in reasonable fear of
physical injury, serious physical injury or death; or
3. He or she commits the crime of menacing in the third degree in
violation of that part of a duly served order of protection, or such
order which the defendant has actual knowledge of because he or she was
present in court when such order was issued, pursuant to article eight
of the family court act, section 530.12 of the criminal procedure law,
or an order of protection issued by a court of competent jurisdiction in
another state, territorial or tribal jurisdiction, which directed the
respondent or defendant to stay away from the person or persons on whose
behalf the order was issued.
Menacing in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Menacing in the third degree.
A person is guilty of menacing in the third degree when, by physical
menace, he or she intentionally places or attempts to place another
person in fear of death, imminent serious physical injury or physical
injury.
Menacing in the third degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Hazing in the first degree.
A person is guilty of hazing in the first degree when, in the course
of another person's initiation into or affiliation with any
organization, he intentionally or recklessly engages in conduct,
including, but not limited to, making physical contact with or requiring
physical activity of such other person, which creates a substantial risk
of physical injury to such other person or a third person and thereby
causes such injury.
Hazing in the first degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Hazing in the second degree.
A person is guilty of hazing in the second degree when, in the course
of another person's initiation or affiliation with any organization, he
intentionally or recklessly engages in conduct, including, but not
limited to, making physical contact with or requiring physical activity
of such other person, which creates a substantial risk of physical
injury to such other person or a third person.
Hazing in the second degree is a violation.
Menacing a police officer or peace officer.
A person is guilty of menacing a police officer or peace officer when
he or she intentionally places or attempts to place a police officer or
peace officer in reasonable fear of physical injury, serious physical
injury or death by displaying a deadly weapon, knife, pistol, revolver,
rifle, shotgun, machine gun or other firearm, whether operable or not,
where such officer was in the course of performing his or her official
duties and the defendant knew or reasonably should have known that such
victim was a police officer or peace officer.
Menacing a police officer or peace officer is a class D felony.
Assault on a retail worker.
1. A person is guilty of assault on a retail worker when, with the
intent to prevent a retail worker from performing an act within the
scope of such worker's employment, such person causes physical injury to
such retail worker and the person knew or reasonably should have known
that such individual was a retail worker.
2. For the purposes of this section:
a. "Retail worker" shall mean any person whose usual place of work is
a retail establishment. This shall include, but is not limited to, an
employee of the retail establishment, an owner of the retail
establishment, or a person who works in the retail establishment under
arrangements made between the person and the establishment.
b. "Retail establishment" shall mean any physical business or
commercial entity engaged in the sale of goods, merchandise, or services
directly to consumers.
Assault on a retail worker is a class E felony.
Reckless endangerment in the second degree.
A person is guilty of reckless endangerment in the second degree when
he recklessly engages in conduct which creates a substantial risk of
serious physical injury to another person.
Reckless endangerment in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Reckless endangerment in the first degree.
A person is guilty of reckless endangerment in the first degree when,
under circumstances evincing a depraved indifference to human life, he
recklessly engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of death to
another person.
Reckless endangerment in the first degree is a class D felony.
Promoting a suicide attempt.
A person is guilty of promoting a suicide attempt when he
intentionally causes or aids another person to attempt suicide.
Promoting a suicide attempt is a class E felony.
Promoting a suicide attempt; when punishable as attempt to
commit murder.
A person who engages in conduct constituting both the offense of
promoting a suicide attempt and the offense of attempt to commit murder
may not be convicted of attempt to commit murder unless he causes or
aids the suicide attempt by the use of duress or deception.
Definitions.
For purposes of sections 120.45, 120.50, 120.55 and 120.60 of this
article:
1. "Kidnapping" shall mean a kidnapping crime defined in article one
hundred thirty-five of this chapter.
2. "Unlawful imprisonment" shall mean an unlawful imprisonment felony
crime defined in article one hundred thirty-five of this chapter.
3. "Sex offense" shall mean a felony defined in article one hundred
thirty of this chapter, sexual misconduct, as defined in section 130.20
of this chapter, sexual abuse in the third degree as defined in section
130.55 of this chapter or sexual abuse in the second degree as defined
in section 130.60 of this chapter.
4. "Immediate family" means the spouse, former spouse, parent, child,
sibling, or any other person who regularly resides or has regularly
resided in the household of a person.
5. "Specified predicate crime" means:
a. a violent felony offense;
b. a crime defined in section 130.20, 130.25, 130.30, 130.55, 130.60,
130.70, 255.25, 255.26 or 255.27, or formerly defined in section 130.40
or 130.45;
c. assault in the third degree, as defined in section 120.00; menacing
in the first degree, as defined in section 120.13; menacing in the
second degree, as defined in section 120.14; coercion in the first
degree, as defined in section 135.65; coercion in the second degree, as
defined in section 135.61; coercion in the third degree, as defined in
section 135.60; aggravated harassment in the second degree, as defined
in section 240.30; harassment in the first degree, as defined in section
240.25; menacing in the third degree, as defined in section 120.15;
criminal mischief in the third degree, as defined in section 145.05;
criminal mischief in the second degree, as defined in section 145.10,
criminal mischief in the first degree, as defined in section 145.12;
criminal tampering in the first degree, as defined in section 145.20;
arson in the fourth degree, as defined in section 150.05; arson in the
third degree, as defined in section 150.10; criminal contempt in the
first degree, as defined in section 215.51; endangering the welfare of a
child, as defined in section 260.10; or
d. stalking in the fourth degree, as defined in section 120.45;
stalking in the third degree, as defined in section 120.50; stalking in
the second degree, as defined in section 120.55; or
e. an offense in any other jurisdiction which includes all of the
essential elements of any such crime for which a sentence to a term of
imprisonment in excess of one year or a sentence of death was authorized
and is authorized in this state irrespective of whether such sentence
was imposed.
Stalking in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of stalking in the fourth degree when he or she
intentionally, and for no legitimate purpose, engages in a course of
conduct directed at a specific person, and knows or reasonably should
know that such conduct:
1. is likely to cause reasonable fear of material harm to the physical
health, safety or property of such person, a member of such person's
immediate family or a third party with whom such person is acquainted;
or
2. causes material harm to the mental or emotional health of such
person, where such conduct consists of following, telephoning or
initiating communication or contact with such person, a member of such
person's immediate family or a third party with whom such person is
acquainted, and the actor was previously clearly informed to cease that
conduct; or
3. is likely to cause such person to reasonably fear that his or her
employment, business or career is threatened, where such conduct
consists of appearing, telephoning or initiating communication or
contact at such person's place of employment or business, and the actor
was previously clearly informed to cease that conduct.
For the purposes of subdivision two of this section, "following" shall
include the unauthorized tracking of such person's movements or location
through the use of a global positioning system or other device.
Stalking in the fourth degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Stalking in the third degree.
A person is guilty of stalking in the third degree when he or she:
1. Commits the crime of stalking in the fourth degree in violation of
section 120.45 of this article against three or more persons, in three
or more separate transactions, for which the actor has not been
previously convicted; or
2. Commits the crime of stalking in the fourth degree in violation of
section 120.45 of this article against any person, and has previously
been convicted, within the preceding ten years of a specified predicate
crime, as defined in subdivision five of section 120.40 of this article,
and the victim of such specified predicate crime is the victim, or an
immediate family member of the victim, of the present offense; or
3. With intent to harass, annoy or alarm a specific person,
intentionally engages in a course of conduct directed at such person
which is likely to cause such person to reasonably fear physical injury
or serious physical injury, the commission of a sex offense against, or
the kidnapping, unlawful imprisonment or death of such person or a
member of such person's immediate family; or
4. Commits the crime of stalking in the fourth degree and has
previously been convicted within the preceding ten years of stalking in
the fourth degree.
Stalking in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Stalking in the second degree.
A person is guilty of stalking in the second degree when he or she:
1. Commits the crime of stalking in the third degree as defined in
subdivision three of section 120.50 of this article and in the course of
and in furtherance of the commission of such offense: (i) displays, or
possesses and threatens the use of, a firearm, pistol, revolver, rifle,
shotgun, machine gun, electronic dart gun, electronic stun gun, cane
sword, billy, blackjack, bludgeon, plastic knuckles, metal knuckles,
chuka stick, sand bag, sandclub, slingshot, slungshot, shuriken,
throwing star, dagger, dangerous knife, dirk, razor, stiletto, imitation
pistol, dangerous instrument, deadly instrument or deadly weapon; or
(ii) displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm; or
2. Commits the crime of stalking in the third degree in violation of
subdivision three of section 120.50 of this article against any person,
and has previously been convicted, within the preceding five years, of a
specified predicate crime as defined in subdivision five of section
120.40 of this article, and the victim of such specified predicate crime
is the victim, or an immediate family member of the victim, of the
present offense; or
3. Commits the crime of stalking in the fourth degree and has
previously been convicted of stalking in the third degree as defined in
subdivision four of section 120.50 of this article against any person;
or
4. Being twenty-one years of age or older, repeatedly follows a person
under the age of fourteen or engages in a course of conduct or
repeatedly commits acts over a period of time intentionally placing or
attempting to place such person who is under the age of fourteen in
reasonable fear of physical injury, serious physical injury or death; or
5. Commits the crime of stalking in the third degree, as defined in
subdivision three of section 120.50 of this article, against ten or more
persons, in ten or more separate transactions, for which the actor has
not been previously convicted.
Stalking in the second degree is a class E felony.
Stalking in the first degree.
A person is guilty of stalking in the first degree when he or she
commits the crime of stalking in the third degree as defined in
subdivision three of section 120.50 or stalking in the second degree as
defined in section 120.55 of this article and, in the course and
furtherance thereof, he or she:
1. intentionally or recklessly causes physical injury to the victim of
such crime; or
2. commits a class A misdemeanor defined in article one hundred thirty
of this chapter, or a class E felony defined in section 130.25, former
section 130.40 or section 130.85 of this chapter, or a class D felony
defined in former section 130.45 or section 130.30 of this chapter.
Stalking in the first degree is a class D felony.
Luring a child.
1. A person is guilty of luring a child when he or she lures a child
into a motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, isolated area, building, or
part thereof, for the purpose of committing against such child any of
the following offenses: an offense as defined in section 70.02 of this
chapter; an offense as defined in section 125.25 or 125.27 of this
chapter; a felony offense that is a violation of article one hundred
thirty of this chapter; an offense as defined in section 135.25 of this
chapter; an offense as defined in sections 230.30, 230.33, 230.34 or
230.34-a of this chapter; an offense as defined in sections 255.25,
255.26, or 255.27 of this chapter; or an offense as defined in sections
263.05, 263.10, or 263.15 of this chapter. For purposes of this
subdivision "child" means a person less than seventeen years of age.
Nothing in this section shall be deemed to preclude, if the evidence
warrants, a conviction for the commission or attempted commission of any
crime, including but not limited to a crime defined in article one
hundred thirty-five of this chapter.
2. Luring a child is a class E felony, provided, however, that if the
underlying offense the actor intended to commit against such child
constituted a class A or a class B felony, then the offense of luring a
child in violation of this section shall be deemed respectively, a class
C felony or class D felony.
ARTICLE 121 Strangulation and Related Offenses
ARTICLE 125 Homicide and Related Offenses
Homicide defined.
Homicide means conduct which causes the death of a person under
circumstances constituting murder, manslaughter in the first degree,
manslaughter in the second degree, or criminally negligent homicide.
Homicide and related offenses; definition.
The following definition is applicable to this article:
"Person," when referring to the victim of a homicide, means a human
being who has been born and is alive.
Criminally negligent homicide.
A person is guilty of criminally negligent homicide when, with
criminal negligence, he causes the death of another person.
Criminally negligent homicide is a class E felony.
Aggravated criminally negligent homicide.
A person is guilty of aggravated criminally negligent homicide when,
with criminal negligence, he or she causes the death of a police officer
or peace officer where such officer was in the course of performing his
or her official duties and the defendant knew or reasonably should have
known that such victim was a police officer or peace officer.
Aggravated criminally negligent homicide is a class C felony.
Vehicular manslaughter in the second degree.
A person is guilty of vehicular manslaughter in the second degree when
he or she causes the death of another person, and either:
(1) operates a motor vehicle in violation of subdivision two, three,
four or four-a of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and
traffic law or operates a vessel or public vessel in violation of
paragraph (b), (c), (d) or (e) of subdivision two of section
forty-nine-a of the navigation law, and as a result of such intoxication
or impairment by the use of a drug, or by the combined influence of
drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, operates such motor vehicle,
vessel or public vessel in a manner that causes the death of such other
person, or
(2) operates a motor vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of
more than eighteen thousand pounds which contains flammable gas,
radioactive materials or explosives in violation of subdivision one of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law, and
such flammable gas, radioactive materials or explosives is the cause of
such death, and as a result of such impairment by the use of alcohol,
operates such motor vehicle in a manner that causes the death of such
other person, or
(3) operates a snowmobile in violation of paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of
subdivision one of section 25.24 of the parks, recreation and historic
preservation law or operates an all terrain vehicle as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section twenty-two hundred
eighty-one of the vehicle and traffic law in violation of subdivision
two, three, four, or four-a of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the
vehicle and traffic law, and as a result of such intoxication or
impairment by the use of a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs
or of alcohol and any drug or drugs, operates such snowmobile or all
terrain vehicle in a manner that causes the death of such other person.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle,
vessel, public vessel, snowmobile or all terrain vehicle caused such
death while unlawfully intoxicated or impaired by the use of alcohol or
a drug, then there shall be a rebuttable presumption that, as a result
of such intoxication or impairment by the use of alcohol or a drug, or
by the combined influence of drugs or of alcohol and any drug or drugs,
such person operated the motor vehicle, vessel, public vessel,
snowmobile or all terrain vehicle in a manner that caused such death, as
required by this section.
Vehicular manslaughter in the second degree is a class D felony.
Vehicular manslaughter in the first degree.
A person is guilty of vehicular manslaughter in the first degree when
he or she commits the crime of vehicular manslaughter in the second
degree as defined in section 125.12 of this article, and either:
(1) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while such
person has .18 of one per centum or more by weight of alcohol in such
person's blood as shown by chemical analysis of such person's blood,
breath, urine or saliva made pursuant to the provisions of section
eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law;
(2) commits such crime while knowing or having reason to know that:
(a) his or her license or his or her privilege of operating a motor
vehicle in another state or his or her privilege of obtaining a license
to operate a motor vehicle in another state is suspended or revoked and
such suspension or revocation is based upon a conviction in such other
state for an offense which would, if committed in this state, constitute
a violation of any of the provisions of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law; or (b) his or her license or
his or her privilege of operating a motor vehicle in the state or his or
her privilege of obtaining a license issued by the commissioner of motor
vehicles is suspended or revoked and such suspension or revocation is
based upon either a refusal to submit to a chemical test pursuant to
section eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law or
following a conviction for a violation of any of the provisions of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law;
(3) has previously been convicted of violating any of the provisions
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law
within the preceding ten years, provided that, for the purposes of this
subdivision, a conviction in any other state or jurisdiction for an
offense which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law,
shall be treated as a violation of such law;
(4) causes the death of more than one other person;
(5) has previously been convicted of violating any provision of this
article or article one hundred twenty of this title involving the
operation of a motor vehicle, or was convicted in any other state or
jurisdiction of an offense involving the operation of a motor vehicle
which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation of this
article or article one hundred twenty of this title;
(6) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while a child
who is fifteen years of age or less is a passenger in such motor vehicle
and causes the death of such child; or
(7) commits such crime while operating a vessel in violation of
paragraph (e-1) of subdivision two of section forty-nine-a of the
navigation law while a child who is fifteen years of age or less is a
passenger in such vessel and causes the death of such child.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle
caused such death or deaths while unlawfully intoxicated or impaired by
the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs or
of alcohol and any drug or drugs, then there shall be a rebuttable
presumption that, as a result of such intoxication or impairment by the
use of alcohol or a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs or of
alcohol and any drug or drugs, such person operated the motor vehicle in
a manner that caused such death or deaths, as required by this section
and section 125.12 of this article.
Vehicular manslaughter in the first degree is a class C felony.
Aggravated vehicular homicide.
A person is guilty of aggravated vehicular homicide when he or she
engages in reckless driving as defined by section twelve hundred twelve
of the vehicle and traffic law, and commits the crime of vehicular
manslaughter in the second degree as defined in section 125.12 of this
article, and either:
(1) commits such crimes while operating a motor vehicle while such
person has .18 of one per centum or more by weight of alcohol in such
person's blood as shown by chemical analysis of such person's blood,
breath, urine or saliva made pursuant to the provisions of section
eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law;
(2) commits such crimes while knowing or having reason to know that:
(a) his or her license or his or her privilege of operating a motor
vehicle in another state or his or her privilege of obtaining a license
to operate a motor vehicle in another state is suspended or revoked and
such suspension or revocation is based upon a conviction in such other
state for an offense which would, if committed in this state, constitute
a violation of any of the provisions of section eleven hundred
ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law; or (b) his or her license or
his or her privilege of operating a motor vehicle in this state or his
or her privilege of obtaining a license issued by the commissioner of
motor vehicles is suspended or revoked and such suspension or revocation
is based upon either a refusal to submit to a chemical test pursuant to
section eleven hundred ninety-four of the vehicle and traffic law or
following a conviction for a violation of any of the provisions of
section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law;
(3) has previously been convicted of violating any of the provisions
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law
within the preceding ten years, provided that, for the purposes of this
subdivision, a conviction in any other state or jurisdiction for an
offense which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation
of section eleven hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law,
shall be treated as a violation of such law;
(4) causes the death of more than one other person;
(5) causes the death of one person and the serious physical injury of
at least one other person;
(6) has previously been convicted of violating any provision of this
article or article one hundred twenty of this title involving the
operation of a motor vehicle, or was convicted in any other state or
jurisdiction of an offense involving the operation of a motor vehicle
which, if committed in this state, would constitute a violation of this
article or article one hundred twenty of this title; or
(7) commits such crime while operating a motor vehicle while a child
who is fifteen years of age or less is a passenger in such motor vehicle
and causes the death of such child.
If it is established that the person operating such motor vehicle
caused such death or deaths while unlawfully intoxicated or impaired by
the use of alcohol or a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs or
of alcohol and any drug or drugs, then there shall be a rebuttable
presumption that, as a result of such intoxication or impairment by the
use of alcohol or a drug, or by the combined influence of drugs or of
alcohol and any drug or drugs, such person operated the motor vehicle in
a manner that caused such death or deaths, as required by this section
and section 125.12 of this article.
Aggravated vehicular homicide is a class B felony.
Manslaughter in the second degree.
A person is guilty of manslaughter in the second degree when:
1. He recklessly causes the death of another person; or
3. He intentionally causes or aids another person to commit suicide.
Manslaughter in the second degree is a class C felony.
Manslaughter in the first degree.
A person is guilty of manslaughter in the first degree when:
1. With intent to cause serious physical injury to another person, he
causes the death of such person or of a third person; or
2. With intent to cause the death of another person, he causes the
death of such person or of a third person under circumstances which do
not constitute murder because he acts under the influence of extreme
emotional disturbance, as defined in paragraph (a) of subdivision one of
section 125.25. The fact that homicide was committed under the influence
of extreme emotional disturbance constitutes a mitigating circumstance
reducing murder to manslaughter in the first degree and need not be
proved in any prosecution initiated under this subdivision; or
4. Being eighteen years old or more and with intent to cause physical
injury to a person less than eleven years old, the defendant recklessly
engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of serious physical injury
to such person and thereby causes the death of such person.
Manslaughter in the first degree is a class B felony.
Aggravated manslaughter in the second degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated manslaughter in the second degree
when he or she recklessly causes the death of a police officer or peace
officer where such officer was in the course of performing his or her
official duties and the defendant knew or reasonably should have known
that such victim was a police officer or peace officer.
Aggravated manslaughter in the second degree is a class C felony.
Aggravated manslaughter in the first degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated manslaughter in the first degree
when:
1. with intent to cause serious physical injury to a police officer or
peace officer, where such officer was in the course of performing his or
her official duties and the defendant knew or reasonably should have
known that such victim was a police officer or a peace officer, he or
she causes the death of such officer or another police officer or peace
officer; or
2. with intent to cause the death of a police officer or peace
officer, where such officer was in the course of performing his or her
official duties and the defendant knew or reasonably should have known
that such victim was a police officer or peace officer, he or she causes
the death of such officer or another police officer or peace officer
under circumstances which do not constitute murder because he or she
acts under the influence of extreme emotional disturbance, as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section 125.25. The fact that
homicide was committed under the influence of extreme emotional
disturbance constitutes a mitigating circumstance reducing murder to
aggravated manslaughter in the first degree or manslaughter in the first
degree and need not be proved in any prosecution initiated under this
subdivision.
Aggravated manslaughter in the first degree is a class B felony.
Murder in the second degree.
A person is guilty of murder in the second degree when:
1. With intent to cause the death of another person, he causes the
death of such person or of a third person; except that in any
prosecution under this subdivision, it is an affirmative defense that:
(a) (i) The defendant acted under the influence of extreme emotional
disturbance for which there was a reasonable explanation or excuse, the
reasonableness of which is to be determined from the viewpoint of a
person in the defendant's situation under the circumstances as the
defendant believed them to be. Nothing contained in this paragraph shall
constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of,
manslaughter in the first degree or any other crime. (ii) It shall not
be a "reasonable explanation or excuse" pursuant to subparagraph (i) of
this paragraph when the defendant's conduct resulted from the discovery,
knowledge or disclosure of the victim's sexual orientation, sex, gender,
gender identity, gender expression or sex assigned at birth; or
(b) The defendant's conduct consisted of causing or aiding, without
the use of duress or deception, another person to commit suicide.
Nothing contained in this paragraph shall constitute a defense to a
prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of, manslaughter in the second
degree or any other crime; or
2. Under circumstances evincing a depraved indifference to human life,
he recklessly engages in conduct which creates a grave risk of death to
another person, and thereby causes the death of another person; or
3. Acting either alone or with one or more other persons, he commits
or attempts to commit robbery, burglary, kidnapping, arson, rape in the
first degree, a crime formerly defined in section 130.50 of this title,
the crime of sexual abuse in the first degree, aggravated sexual abuse,
escape in the first degree, or escape in the second degree, and, in the
course of and in furtherance of such crime or of immediate flight
therefrom, he, or another participant, if there be any, causes the death
of a person other than one of the participants; except that in any
prosecution under this subdivision, in which the defendant was not the
only participant in the underlying crime, it is an affirmative defense
that the defendant:
(a) Did not commit the homicidal act or in any way solicit, request,
command, importune, cause or aid the commission thereof; and
(b) Was not armed with a deadly weapon, or any instrument, article or
substance readily capable of causing death or serious physical injury
and of a sort not ordinarily carried in public places by law-abiding
persons; and
(c) Had no reasonable ground to believe that any other participant was
armed with such a weapon, instrument, article or substance; and
(d) Had no reasonable ground to believe that any other participant
intended to engage in conduct likely to result in death or serious
physical injury; or
4. Under circumstances evincing a depraved indifference to human life,
and being eighteen years old or more the defendant recklessly engages in
conduct which creates a grave risk of serious physical injury or death
to another person less than eleven years old and thereby causes the
death of such person; or
5. Being eighteen years old or more, while in the course of committing
rape in the first, second or third degree, a crime formerly defined in
section 130.50, 130.45 or 130.40 of this title, the crime of sexual
abuse in the first degree, aggravated sexual abuse in the first, second,
third or fourth degree, or incest in the first, second or third degree,
against a person less than fourteen years old, he or she intentionally
causes the death of such person.
Murder in the second degree is a class A-I felony.
Aggravated murder.
A person is guilty of aggravated murder when:
1. With intent to cause the death of another person, he or she causes
the death of such person, or of a third person who was a person
described in subparagraph (i), (ii), (ii-a) or (iii) of paragraph (a) of
this subdivision engaged at the time of the killing in the course of
performing his or her official duties; and
(a) Either:
(i) the intended victim was a police officer as defined in subdivision
thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law who was at the
time of the killing engaged in the course of performing his or her
official duties, and the defendant knew or reasonably should have known
that the victim was a police officer; or
(ii) the intended victim was a peace officer as defined in paragraph a
of subdivision twenty-one, subdivision twenty-three, twenty-four or
sixty-two (employees of the division for youth) of section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law who was at the time of the killing engaged in the
course of performing his or her official duties, and the defendant knew
or reasonably should have known that the victim was such a uniformed
court officer, parole officer, probation officer, or employee of the
division for youth; or
(ii-a) the intended victim was a firefighter, emergency medical
technician, ambulance driver, paramedic, physician or registered nurse
involved in a first response team, or any other individual who, in the
course of official duties, performs emergency response activities and
was engaged in such activities at the time of killing and the defendant
knew or reasonably should have known that the intended victim was such
firefighter, emergency medical technician, ambulance driver, paramedic,
physician or registered nurse; or
(iii) the intended victim was an employee of a state correctional
institution or was an employee of a local correctional facility as
defined in subdivision two of section forty of the correction law, who
was at the time of the killing engaged in the course of performing his
or her official duties, and the defendant knew or reasonably should have
known that the victim was an employee of a state correctional
institution or a local correctional facility; and
(b) The defendant was more than eighteen years old at the time of the
commission of the crime; or
2. (a) With intent to cause the death of a person less than fourteen
years old, he or she causes the death of such person, and the defendant
acted in an especially cruel and wanton manner pursuant to a course of
conduct intended to inflict and inflicting torture upon the victim prior
to the victim's death. As used in this subdivision, "torture" means the
intentional and depraved infliction of extreme physical pain that is
separate and apart from the pain which otherwise would have been
associated with such cause of death; and
(b) The defendant was more than eighteen years old at the time of the
commission of the crime.
3. In any prosecution under subdivision one or two of this section, it
is an affirmative defense that:
(a) (i) The defendant acted under the influence of extreme emotional
disturbance for which there was a reasonable explanation or excuse, the
reasonableness of which is to be determined from the viewpoint of a
person in the defendant's situation under the circumstances as the
defendant believed them to be. Nothing contained in this paragraph shall
constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of,
aggravated manslaughter in the first degree, manslaughter in the first
degree or any other crime except murder in the second degree. (ii) It
shall not be a "reasonable explanation or excuse" pursuant to
subparagraph (i) of this paragraph when the defendant's conduct resulted
from the discovery, knowledge or disclosure of the victim's sexual
orientation, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression or sex
assigned at birth; or
(b) The defendant's conduct consisted of causing or aiding, without
the use of duress or deception, another person to commit suicide.
Nothing contained in this paragraph shall constitute a defense to a
prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of, aggravated manslaughter in
the second degree, manslaughter in the second degree or any other crime
except murder in the second degree.
Aggravated murder is a class A-I felony.
Murder in the first degree.
A person is guilty of murder in the first degree when:
1. With intent to cause the death of another person, he causes the
death of such person or of a third person; and
(a) Either:
(i) the intended victim was a police officer as defined in subdivision
34 of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law who was at the time of
the killing engaged in the course of performing his official duties, and
the defendant knew or reasonably should have known that the intended
victim was a police officer; or
(ii) the intended victim was a peace officer as defined in paragraph a
of subdivision twenty-one, subdivision twenty-three, twenty-four or
sixty-two (employees of the division for youth) of section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law who was at the time of the killing engaged in the
course of performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or
reasonably should have known that the intended victim was such a
uniformed court officer, parole officer, probation officer, or employee
of the division for youth; or
(ii-a) the intended victim was a firefighter, emergency medical
technician, ambulance driver, paramedic, physician or registered nurse
involved in a first response team, or any other individual who, in the
course of official duties, performs emergency response activities and
was engaged in such activities at the time of killing and the defendant
knew or reasonably should have known that the intended victim was such
firefighter, emergency medical technician, ambulance driver, paramedic,
physician or registered nurse; or
(iii) the intended victim was an employee of a state correctional
institution or was an employee of a local correctional facility as
defined in subdivision two of section forty of the correction law, who
was at the time of the killing engaged in the course of performing his
official duties, and the defendant knew or reasonably should have known
that the intended victim was an employee of a state correctional
institution or a local correctional facility; or
(iv) at the time of the commission of the killing, the defendant was
confined in a state correctional institution or was otherwise in custody
upon a sentence for the term of his natural life, or upon a sentence
commuted to one of natural life, or upon a sentence for an indeterminate
term the minimum of which was at least fifteen years and the maximum of
which was natural life, or at the time of the commission of the killing,
the defendant had escaped from such confinement or custody while serving
such a sentence and had not yet been returned to such confinement or
custody; or
(v) the intended victim was a witness to a crime committed on a prior
occasion and the death was caused for the purpose of preventing the
intended victim's testimony in any criminal action or proceeding whether
or not such action or proceeding had been commenced, or the intended
victim had previously testified in a criminal action or proceeding and
the killing was committed for the purpose of exacting retribution for
such prior testimony, or the intended victim was an immediate family
member of a witness to a crime committed on a prior occasion and the
killing was committed for the purpose of preventing or influencing the
testimony of such witness, or the intended victim was an immediate
family member of a witness who had previously testified in a criminal
action or proceeding and the killing was committed for the purpose of
exacting retribution upon such witness for such prior testimony. As used
in this subparagraph "immediate family member" means a husband, wife,
father, mother, daughter, son, brother, sister, stepparent, grandparent,
stepchild or grandchild; or
(vi) the defendant committed the killing or procured commission of the
killing pursuant to an agreement with a person other than the intended
victim to commit the same for the receipt, or in expectation of the
receipt, of anything of pecuniary value from a party to the agreement or
from a person other than the intended victim acting at the direction of
a party to such agreement; or
(vii) the victim was killed while the defendant was in the course of
committing or attempting to commit and in furtherance of robbery,
burglary in the first degree or second degree, kidnapping in the first
degree, arson in the first degree or second degree, rape in the first
degree, a crime formerly defined in section 130.50 of this title, sexual
abuse in the first degree, aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree
or escape in the first degree, or in the course of and furtherance of
immediate flight after committing or attempting to commit any such crime
or in the course of and furtherance of immediate flight after attempting
to commit the crime of murder in the second degree; provided however,
the victim is not a participant in one of the aforementioned crimes and,
provided further that, unless the defendant's criminal liability under
this subparagraph is based upon the defendant having commanded another
person to cause the death of the victim or intended victim pursuant to
section 20.00 of this chapter, this subparagraph shall not apply where
the defendant's criminal liability is based upon the conduct of another
pursuant to section 20.00 of this chapter; or
(viii) as part of the same criminal transaction, the defendant, with
intent to cause serious physical injury to or the death of an additional
person or persons, causes the death of an additional person or persons;
provided, however, the victim is not a participant in the criminal
transaction; or
(ix) prior to committing the killing, the defendant had been convicted
of murder as defined in this section or section 125.25 of this article,
or had been convicted in another jurisdiction of an offense which, if
committed in this state, would constitute a violation of either of such
sections; or
(x) the defendant acted in an especially cruel and wanton manner
pursuant to a course of conduct intended to inflict and inflicting
torture upon the victim prior to the victim's death. As used in this
subparagraph, "torture" means the intentional and depraved infliction of
extreme physical pain; "depraved" means the defendant relished the
infliction of extreme physical pain upon the victim evidencing
debasement or perversion or that the defendant evidenced a sense of
pleasure in the infliction of extreme physical pain; or
(xi) the defendant intentionally caused the death of two or more
additional persons within the state in separate criminal transactions
within a period of twenty-four months when committed in a similar
fashion or pursuant to a common scheme or plan; or
(xii) the intended victim was a judge as defined in subdivision
twenty-three of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law and the
defendant killed such victim because such victim was, at the time of the
killing, a judge; or
(xiii) the victim was killed in furtherance of an act of terrorism, as
defined in paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 490.05 of this
chapter; and
(b) The defendant was more than eighteen years old at the time of the
commission of the crime.
2. In any prosecution under subdivision one, it is an affirmative
defense that:
(a) (i) The defendant acted under the influence of extreme emotional
disturbance for which there was a reasonable explanation or excuse, the
reasonableness of which is to be determined from the viewpoint of a
person in the defendant's situation under the circumstances as the
defendant believed them to be. Nothing contained in this paragraph shall
constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of,
manslaughter in the first degree or any other crime except murder in the
second degree. (ii) It shall not be a "reasonable explanation or excuse"
pursuant to subparagraph (i) of this paragraph when the defendant's
conduct resulted from the discovery, knowledge or disclosure of the
victim's sexual orientation, sex, gender, gender identity, gender
expression or sex assigned at birth; or
(b) The defendant's conduct consisted of causing or aiding, without
the use of duress or deception, another person to commit suicide.
Nothing contained in this paragraph shall constitute a defense to a
prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of, manslaughter in the second
degree or any other crime except murder in the second degree.
Murder in the first degree is a class A-I felony.
ARTICLE 130 Sex Offenses
Sex offenses; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Vaginal sexual contact" means conduct between persons consisting
of contact between the penis and the vagina or vulva.
2. (a) "Oral sexual contact" means conduct between persons consisting
of contact between the mouth and the penis, the mouth and the anus, or
the mouth and the vulva or vagina.
(b) "Anal sexual contact" means conduct between persons consisting of
contact between the penis and anus.
3. "Sexual contact" means any touching of the sexual or other intimate
parts of a person for the purpose of gratifying sexual desire of either
party. It includes the touching of the actor by the victim, as well as
the touching of the victim by the actor, whether directly or through
clothing, as well as the emission of ejaculate by the actor upon any
part of the victim, clothed or unclothed.
4. For the purposes of this article "married" means the existence of
the relationship between the actor and the victim as spouses which is
recognized by law at the time the actor commits an offense proscribed by
this article against the victim.
5. "Mentally disabled" means that a person suffers from a mental
disease or defect which renders him or her incapable of appraising the
nature of his or her conduct.
6. "Mentally incapacitated" means that a person is rendered
temporarily incapable of appraising or controlling his conduct owing to
the influence of a narcotic or intoxicating substance administered to
him without his consent, or to any other act committed upon him without
his consent.
7. "Physically helpless" means that a person is unconscious or for any
other reason is physically unable to communicate unwillingness to an
act.
8. "Forcible compulsion" means to compel by either:
a. use of physical force; or
b. a threat, express or implied, which places a person in fear of
immediate death or physical injury to himself, herself or another
person, or in fear that he, she or another person will immediately be
kidnapped.
9. "Foreign object" means any instrument or article which, when
inserted in the vagina, urethra, penis, rectum or anus, is capable of
causing physical injury.
10. "Sexual conduct" means vaginal sexual contact, oral sexual
contact, anal sexual contact, aggravated sexual contact, or sexual
contact.
11. "Aggravated sexual contact" means inserting, other than for a
valid medical purpose, a foreign object in the vagina, urethra, penis,
rectum or anus of a child, thereby causing physical injury to such
child.
12. "Health care provider" means any person who is, or is required to
be, licensed or registered or holds himself or herself out to be
licensed or registered, or provides services as if he or she were
licensed or registered in the profession of medicine, chiropractic,
dentistry or podiatry under any of the following: article one hundred
thirty-one, one hundred thirty-two, one hundred thirty-three, or one
hundred forty-one of the education law.
13. "Mental health care provider" shall mean a licensed physician,
licensed psychologist, registered professional nurse, licensed clinical
social worker, licensed master social worker under the supervision of a
physician, psychologist or licensed clinical social worker, licensed
mental health counselor or a licensed marriage and family therapist.
Sex offenses; lack of consent.
1. Whether or not specifically stated, it is an element of every
offense defined in this article that the sexual act was committed
without consent of the victim.
2. Lack of consent results from:
(a) Forcible compulsion; or
(b) Incapacity to consent; or
(c) Where the offense charged is sexual abuse or forcible touching,
any circumstances, in addition to forcible compulsion or incapacity to
consent, in which the victim does not expressly or impliedly acquiesce
in the actor's conduct; or
(d) Where the offense charged is rape in the third degree as defined
in subdivision seven, eight or nine of section 130.25, or a crime
formerly defined in subdivision three of section 130.40, in addition to
forcible compulsion, circumstances under which, at the time of the act
of vaginal sexual contact, oral sexual contact or anal sexual contact,
the victim clearly expressed that he or she did not consent to engage in
such act, and a reasonable person in the actor's situation would have
understood such person's words and acts as an expression of lack of
consent to such act under all the circumstances.
3. A person is deemed incapable of consent when he or she is:
(a) less than seventeen years old; or
(b) mentally disabled; or
(c) mentally incapacitated; or
(d) physically helpless; or
(e) committed to the care and custody or supervision of the state
department of corrections and community supervision or a hospital, as
such term is defined in subdivision two of section four hundred of the
correction law, and the actor is an employee who knows or reasonably
should know that such person is committed to the care and custody or
supervision of such department or hospital. For purposes of this
paragraph, "employee" means (i) an employee of the state department of
corrections and community supervision who, as part of his or her
employment, performs duties: (A) in a state correctional facility in
which the victim is confined at the time of the offense consisting of
providing custody, medical or mental health services, counseling
services, educational programs, vocational training, institutional
parole services or direct supervision to incarcerated individuals; or
(B) of supervising persons released on community supervision and
supervises the victim at the time of the offense or has supervised the
victim and the victim is still under community supervision at the time
of the offense; or
(ii) an employee of the office of mental health who, as part of his or
her employment, performs duties in a state correctional facility or
hospital, as such term is defined in subdivision two of section four
hundred of the correction law in which the incarcerated individual is
confined at the time of the offense, consisting of providing custody,
medical or mental health services, or direct supervision to such
incarcerated individuals; or
(iii) a person, including a volunteer, providing direct services to
incarcerated individuals in a state correctional facility in which the
victim is confined at the time of the offense pursuant to a contractual
arrangement with the state department of corrections and community
supervision or, in the case of a volunteer, a written agreement with
such department, provided that the person received written notice
concerning the provisions of this paragraph; or
(f) committed to the care and custody of a local correctional
facility, as such term is defined in subdivision two of section forty of
the correction law, and the actor is an employee, not married to such
person, who knows or reasonably should know that such person is
committed to the care and custody of such facility. For purposes of this
paragraph, "employee" means an employee of the local correctional
facility where the person is committed who performs professional duties
consisting of providing custody, medical or mental health services,
counseling services, educational services, or vocational training for
incarcerated individuals. For purposes of this paragraph, "employee"
shall also mean a person, including a volunteer or a government employee
of the state department of corrections and community supervision or a
local health, education or probation agency, providing direct services
to incarcerated individuals in the local correctional facility in which
the victim is confined at the time of the offense pursuant to a
contractual arrangement with the local correctional department or, in
the case of such a volunteer or government employee, a written agreement
with such department, provided that such person received written notice
concerning the provisions of this paragraph; or
(g) committed to or placed with the office of children and family
services and in residential care, and the actor is an employee, not
married to such person, who knows or reasonably should know that such
person is committed to or placed with such office of children and family
services and in residential care. For purposes of this paragraph,
"employee" means an employee of the office of children and family
services or of a residential facility in which such person is committed
to or placed at the time of the offense who, as part of his or her
employment, performs duties consisting of providing custody, medical or
mental health services, counseling services, educational services,
vocational training, or direct supervision to persons committed to or
placed in a residential facility operated by the office of children and
family services; or
(h) a client or patient and the actor is a health care provider or
mental health care provider charged with rape in the third degree as
defined in section 130.25, a crime formerly defined in section 130.40,
aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree as defined in section
130.65-a, or sexual abuse in the third degree as defined in section
130.55, and the act of sexual conduct occurs during a treatment session,
consultation, interview, or examination; or
(i) a resident or inpatient of a residential facility operated,
licensed or certified by (i) the office of mental health; (ii) the
office for people with developmental disabilities; or (iii) the office
of alcoholism and substance abuse services, and the actor is an employee
of the facility not married to such resident or inpatient. For purposes
of this paragraph, "employee" means either: an employee of the agency
operating the residential facility, who knows or reasonably should know
that such person is a resident or inpatient of such facility and who
provides direct care services, case management services, medical or
other clinical services, habilitative services or direct supervision of
the residents in the facility in which the resident resides; or an
officer or other employee, consultant, contractor or volunteer of the
residential facility, who knows or reasonably should know that the
person is a resident of such facility and who is in direct contact with
residents or inpatients; provided, however, that the provisions of this
paragraph shall only apply to a consultant, contractor or volunteer
providing services pursuant to a contractual arrangement with the agency
operating the residential facility or, in the case of a volunteer, a
written agreement with such facility, provided that the person received
written notice concerning the provisions of this paragraph; provided
further, however, "employee" shall not include a person with a
developmental disability who is or was receiving services and is also an
employee of a service provider and who has sexual contact with another
service recipient who is a consenting adult who has consented to such
contact; or
(j) detained or otherwise in the custody of a police officer, peace
officer, or other law enforcement official and the actor is a police
officer, peace officer or other law enforcement official who either: (i)
is detaining or maintaining custody of such person; or (ii) knows, or
reasonably should know, that at the time of the offense, such person was
detained or in custody.
(k) under the supervision of a local probation department, pursuant to
section two hundred seventy-two of the correction law, or another local
department or agency which fulfills a similar function and the actor is
an employee who knows or reasonably should know that such person is
committed to the supervision of a local probation department. For
purposes of this paragraph, "employee" means an employee of such local
probation department or agency who, as part of his or her employment,
supervises the victim at the time of the offense or has supervised the
victim and the victim is still under supervision of a local probation
department or agency at the time of the offense.
Sex offenses; limitation; defenses.
1. In any prosecution under this article in which the victim's lack of
consent is based solely upon his or her incapacity to consent because he
or she was mentally disabled, mentally incapacitated or physically
helpless, it is an affirmative defense that the defendant, at the time
he or she engaged in the conduct constituting the offense, did not know
of the facts or conditions responsible for such incapacity to consent.
2. Conduct performed for a valid medical or mental health care purpose
shall not constitute a violation of any section of this article in which
incapacity to consent is based on the circumstances set forth in
paragraph (h) of subdivision three of section 130.05 of this article.
3. In any prosecution for the crime of rape in the third degree as
defined in section 130.25, a crime formerly defined in section 130.40,
aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree as defined in section
130.65-a, or sexual abuse in the third degree as defined in section
130.55 in which incapacity to consent is based on the circumstances set
forth in paragraph (h) of subdivision three of section 130.05 of this
article it shall be an affirmative defense that the client or patient
consented to such conduct charged after having been expressly advised by
the health care or mental health care provider that such conduct was not
performed for a valid medical purpose.
4. In any prosecution under this article in which the victim's lack of
consent is based solely on his or her incapacity to consent because he
or she was less than seventeen years old, mentally disabled, a client or
patient and the actor is a health care provider, detained or otherwise
in custody of law enforcement under the circumstances described in
paragraph (j) of subdivision three of section 130.05 of this article, or
committed to the care and custody or supervision of the state department
of corrections and community supervision or a hospital and the actor is
an employee, it shall be a defense that the defendant was married to the
victim as defined in subdivision four of section 130.00 of this article.
Sex offenses; corroboration.
A person shall not be convicted of any offense defined in this article
of which lack of consent is an element but results solely from
incapacity to consent because of the victim's mental defect, or mental
incapacity, or an attempt to commit the same, solely on the testimony of
the victim, unsupported by other evidence tending to:
(a) Establish that an attempt was made to engage the victim in vaginal
sexual contact, oral sexual contact, anal sexual contact, or sexual
contact, as the case may be, at the time of the occurrence; and
(b) Connect the defendant with the commission of the offense or
attempted offense.
Sexual misconduct.
A person is guilty of sexual misconduct when:
1. He or she engages in vaginal sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent; or
2. He or she engages in oral sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent; or
3. He or she engages in anal sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent; or
4. He or she engages in sexual conduct with an animal or a dead human
body.
Sexual misconduct is a class A misdemeanor.
Rape in the third degree.
A person is guilty of rape in the third degree when:
1. He or she engages in vaginal sexual contact with another person who
is incapable of consent by reason of some factor other than being less
than seventeen years old;
2. He or she engages in oral sexual contact with another person who is
incapable of consent by reason of some factor other than being less than
seventeen years old;
3. He or she engages in anal sexual contact with another person who is
incapable of consent by reason of some other factor other than being
less than seventeen years old;
4. Being twenty-one years old or more, he or she engages in vaginal
sexual contact with another person less than seventeen years old;
5. Being twenty-one years old or more, he or she engages in oral
sexual contact with another person less than seventeen years old;
6. Being twenty-one years old or more, he or she engages in anal
sexual contact with another person less than seventeen years old;
7. He or she engages in vaginal sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent where such lack of consent is by reason of
some factor other than incapacity to consent;
8. He or she engages in oral sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent where such lack of consent is by reason of
some factor other than incapacity to consent; or
9. He or she engages in anal sexual contact with another person
without such person's consent where such lack of consent is by reason of
some factor other than the incapacity to consent.
Rape in the third degree is a class E felony.
Rape in the second degree.
A person is guilty of rape in the second degree when:
1. being eighteen years old or more, he or she engages in vaginal
sexual contact with another person less than fifteen years old;
2. being eighteen years old or more, he or she engages in oral sexual
contact with another person less than fifteen years old;
3. being eighteen years old or more, he or she engages in anal sexual
contact with another person less than fifteen years old;
4. he or she engages in vaginal sexual contact with another person who
is incapable of consent by reason of being mentally disabled or mentally
incapacitated;
5. he or she engages in oral sexual contact with another person who is
incapable of consent by reason of being mentally disabled or mentally
incapacitated; or
6. he or she engages in anal sexual contact with another person who is
incapable of consent by reason of being mentally disabled or mentally
incapacitated.
It shall be an affirmative defense to the crime of rape in the second
degree as defined in subdivisions one, two and three of this section
that the defendant was less than four years older than the victim at the
time of the act.
Rape in the second degree is a class D felony.
Rape in the first degree.
A person is guilty of rape in the first degree when:
1. he or she engages in vaginal sexual contact with another person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) Who is incapable of consent by reason of being physically
helpless; or
(c) Who is less than eleven years old; or
(d) Who is less than thirteen years old and the actor is eighteen
years old or more;
2. he or she engages in oral sexual contact with another person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) Who is incapable of consent by reason of being physically
helpless; or
(c) Who is less than eleven years old; or
(d) Who is less than thirteen years old and the actor is eighteen
years old or more; or
3. he or she engages in anal sexual contact with another person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) Who is incapable of consent by reason of being physically
helpless; or
(c) Who is less than eleven years old; or
(d) Who is less than thirteen years old and the actor is eighteen
years old or more.
Rape in the first degree is a class B felony.
Forcible touching.
A person is guilty of forcible touching when such person
intentionally, and for no legitimate purpose:
1. forcibly touches the sexual or other intimate parts of another
person for the purpose of degrading or abusing such person, or for the
purpose of gratifying the actor's sexual desire; or
2. subjects another person to sexual contact for the purpose of
gratifying the actor's sexual desire and with intent to degrade or abuse
such other person while such other person is a passenger on a bus,
train, or subway car operated by any transit agency, authority or
company, public or private, whose operation is authorized by New York
state or any of its political subdivisions.
For the purposes of this section, forcible touching includes
squeezing, grabbing or pinching.
Forcible touching is a class A misdemeanor.
Persistent sexual abuse.
A person is guilty of persistent sexual abuse when he or she commits
the crime of forcible touching, as defined in section 130.52 of this
article, sexual abuse in the third degree, as defined in section 130.55
of this article, or sexual abuse in the second degree, as defined in
section 130.60 of this article, and, within the previous ten year
period, excluding any time during which such person was incarcerated for
any reason, has been convicted two or more times, in separate criminal
transactions for which sentence was imposed on separate occasions, of
forcible touching, as defined in section 130.52 of this article, sexual
abuse in the third degree as defined in section 130.55 of this article,
sexual abuse in the second degree, as defined in section 130.60 of this
article, or any offense defined in this article, of which the commission
or attempted commission thereof is a felony.
Persistent sexual abuse is a class E felony.
Sexual abuse in the third degree.
A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the third degree when he or she
subjects another person to sexual contact without the latter's consent;
except that in any prosecution under this section, it is an affirmative
defense that (a) such other person's lack of consent was due solely to
incapacity to consent by reason of being less than seventeen years old,
and (b) such other person was more than fourteen years old, and (c) the
defendant was less than five years older than such other person.
Sexual abuse in the third degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Sexual abuse in the second degree.
A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the second degree when he or she
subjects another person to sexual contact and when such other person is:
1. Incapable of consent by reason of some factor other than being less
than seventeen years old; or
2. Less than fourteen years old.
Sexual abuse in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Sexual abuse in the first degree.
A person is guilty of sexual abuse in the first degree when he or she
subjects another person to sexual contact:
1. By forcible compulsion; or
2. When the other person is incapable of consent by reason of being
physically helpless; or
3. When the other person is less than eleven years old; or
4. When the other person is less than thirteen years old and the actor
is twenty-one years old or older.
Sexual abuse in the first degree is a class D felony.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree
when:
(a) He or she inserts a foreign object in the vagina, urethra, penis,
rectum or anus of another person and the other person is incapable of
consent by reason of some factor other than being less than seventeen
years old; or
(b) He or she inserts a finger in the vagina, urethra, penis, rectum
or anus of another person causing physical injury to such person and
such person is incapable of consent by reason of some factor other than
being less than seventeen years old.
2. Conduct performed for a valid medical purpose does not violate the
provisions of this section.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree
when he or she inserts a foreign object or a finger in the vagina,
urethra, penis, rectum or anus of another person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) When the other person is incapable of consent by reason of being
physically helpless;
(c) When the other person is less than eleven years old; or
(d) When the other person is less than thirteen years old and the
actor is eighteen years of age or older.
2. A person is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree
when he or she inserts a foreign object in the vagina, urethra, penis,
rectum or anus of another person causing physical injury to such person
and such person is incapable of consent by reason of being mentally
disabled or mentally incapacitated.
3. Conduct performed for a valid medical purpose does not violate the
provisions of this section.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree is a class D felony.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree
when he or she inserts a finger in the vagina, urethra, penis, rectum or
anus of another person causing physical injury to such person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) When the other person is incapable of consent by reason of being
physically helpless; or
(c) When the other person is less than eleven years old.
2. Conduct performed for a valid medical purpose does not violate the
provisions of this section.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree is a class C felony.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree
when he or she inserts a foreign object in the vagina, urethra, penis,
rectum or anus of another person causing physical injury to such person:
(a) By forcible compulsion; or
(b) When the other person is incapable of consent by reason of being
physically helpless; or
(c) When the other person is less than eleven years old.
2. Conduct performed for a valid medical purpose does not violate the
provisions of this section.
Aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree is a class B felony.
Course of sexual conduct against a child in the first degree.
1. A person is guilty of course of sexual conduct against a child in
the first degree when, over a period of time not less than three months
in duration:
(a) he or she engages in two or more acts of sexual conduct, which
includes at least one act of vaginal sexual contact, oral sexual
contact, anal sexual contact or aggravated sexual contact, with a child
less than eleven years old; or
(b) he or she, being eighteen years old or more, engages in two or
more acts of sexual conduct, which include at least one act of vaginal
sexual contact, oral sexual contact, anal sexual contact or aggravated
sexual contact, with a child less than thirteen years old.
2. A person may not be subsequently prosecuted for any other sexual
offense involving the same victim unless the other charged offense
occurred outside the time period charged under this section.
Course of sexual conduct against a child in the first degree is a
class B felony.
Course of sexual conduct against a child in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of course of sexual conduct against a child in
the second degree when, over a period of time not less than three months
in duration:
(a) he or she engages in two or more acts of sexual conduct with a
child less than eleven years old; or
(b) he or she, being eighteen years old or more, engages in two or
more acts of sexual conduct with a child less than thirteen years old.
2. A person may not be subsequently prosecuted for any other sexual
offense involving the same victim unless the other charged offense
occurred outside the time period charged under this section.
Course of sexual conduct against a child in the second degree is a
class D felony.
Female genital mutilation.
1. A person is guilty of female genital mutilation when:
(a) a person knowingly circumcises, excises, or infibulates the whole
or any part of the labia majora or labia minora or clitoris of another
person who has not reached eighteen years of age; or
(b) being a parent, guardian or other person legally responsible and
charged with the care or custody of a child less than eighteen years
old, he or she knowingly consents to the circumcision, excision or
infibulation of whole or part of such child's labia majora or labia
minora or clitoris.
2. Such circumcision, excision, or infibulation is not a violation of
this section if such act is:
(a) necessary to the health of the person on whom it is performed, and
is performed by a person licensed in the place of its performance as a
medical practitioner; or
(b) performed on a person in labor or who has just given birth and is
performed for medical purposes connected with that labor or birth by a
person licensed in the place it is performed as a medical practitioner,
midwife, or person in training to become such a practitioner or midwife.
3. For the purposes of paragraph (a) of subdivision two of this
section, no account shall be taken of the effect on the person on whom
such procedure is to be performed of any belief on the part of that or
any other person that such procedure is required as a matter of custom
or ritual.
Female genital mutilation is a class E felony.
Facilitating a sex offense with a controlled substance.
A person is guilty of facilitating a sex offense with a controlled
substance when he or she:
1. knowingly and unlawfully possesses a controlled substance or any
preparation, compound, mixture or substance that requires a prescription
to obtain and administers such substance or preparation, compound,
mixture or substance that requires a prescription to obtain to another
person without such person's consent and with intent to commit against
such person conduct constituting a felony defined in this article; and
2. commits or attempts to commit such conduct constituting a felony
defined in this article.
Facilitating a sex offense with a controlled substance is a class D
felony.
Sexually motivated felony.
1. A person commits a sexually motivated felony when he or she commits
a specified offense for the purpose, in whole or substantial part, of
his or her own direct sexual gratification.
2. A "specified offense" is a felony offense defined by any of the
following provisions of this chapter: assault in the second degree as
defined in section 120.05, assault in the first degree as defined in
section 120.10, gang assault in the second degree as defined in section
120.06, gang assault in the first degree as defined in section 120.07,
stalking in the first degree as defined in section 120.60, strangulation
in the second degree as defined in section 121.12, strangulation in the
first degree as defined in section 121.13, manslaughter in the second
degree as defined in subdivision one of section 125.15, manslaughter in
the first degree as defined in section 125.20, murder in the second
degree as defined in section 125.25, aggravated murder as defined in
section 125.26, murder in the first degree as defined in section 125.27,
kidnapping in the second degree as defined in section 135.20, kidnapping
in the first degree as defined in section 135.25, burglary in the third
degree as defined in section 140.20, burglary in the second degree as
defined in section 140.25, burglary in the first degree as defined in
section 140.30, arson in the second degree as defined in section 150.15,
arson in the first degree as defined in section 150.20, robbery in the
third degree as defined in section 160.05, robbery in the second degree
as defined in section 160.10, robbery in the first degree as defined in
section 160.15, promoting prostitution in the second degree as defined
in section 230.30, promoting prostitution in the first degree as defined
in section 230.32, compelling prostitution as defined in section 230.33,
sex trafficking of a child as defined in section 230.34-a, disseminating
indecent material to minors in the first degree as defined in section
235.22, use of a child in a sexual performance as defined in section
263.05, promoting an obscene sexual performance by a child as defined in
section 263.10, promoting a sexual performance by a child as defined in
section 263.15, or any felony attempt or conspiracy to commit any of the
foregoing offenses.
Sentencing.
1. When a person is convicted of a sexually motivated felony pursuant
to this article, and the specified felony is a violent felony offense,
as defined in section 70.02 of this chapter, the sexually motivated
felony shall be deemed a violent felony offense.
2. When a person is convicted of a sexually motivated felony pursuant
to this article, the sexually motivated felony shall be deemed to be the
same offense level as the specified offense the defendant committed.
3. Persons convicted of a sexually motivated felony as defined in
section 130.91 of this article, must be sentenced in accordance with the
provisions of section 70.80 of this chapter.
Predatory sexual assault.
A person is guilty of predatory sexual assault when he or she commits
the crime of rape in the first degree, a crime formerly defined in
section 130.50 of this title, the crime of aggravated sexual abuse in
the first degree, or course of sexual conduct against a child in the
first degree, as defined in this article, and when:
1. In the course of the commission of the crime or the immediate
flight therefrom, he or she:
(a) Causes serious physical injury to the victim of such crime; or
(b) Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument; or
2. He or she has engaged in conduct constituting the crime of rape in
the first degree, a crime formerly defined in section 130.50 of this
title, the crime of aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree, or
course of sexual conduct against a child in the first degree, as defined
in this article, against one or more additional persons; or
3. He or she has previously been subjected to a conviction for a
felony defined in this article, incest as defined in section 255.25 of
this chapter or use of a child in a sexual performance as defined in
section 263.05 of this chapter.
Predatory sexual assault is a class A-II felony.
Predatory sexual assault against a child.
A person is guilty of predatory sexual assault against a child when,
being eighteen years old or more, he or she commits the crime of rape in
the first degree, a crime formerly defined in section 130.50 of this
title, the crime of aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree, or
course of sexual conduct against a child in the first degree, as defined
in this article, and the victim is less than thirteen years old.
Predatory sexual assault against a child is a class A-II felony.
ARTICLE 135 Kidnapping, Coercion and Related Offenses
Unlawful imprisonment, kidnapping and custodial interference;
definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Restrain" means to restrict a person's movements intentionally and
unlawfully in such manner as to interfere substantially with his liberty
by moving him from one place to another, or by confining him either in
the place where the restriction commences or in a place to which he has
been moved, without consent and with knowledge that the restriction is
unlawful. A person is so moved or confined "without consent" when such
is accomplished by (a) physical force, intimidation or deception, or (b)
any means whatever, including acquiescence of the victim, if he is a
child less than sixteen years old or an incompetent person and the
parent, guardian or other person or institution having lawful control or
custody of him has not acquiesced in the movement or confinement.
2. "Abduct" means to restrain a person with intent to prevent his
liberation by either (a) secreting or holding him in a place where he is
not likely to be found, or (b) using or threatening to use deadly
physical force.
3. "Relative" means a parent, ancestor, brother, sister, uncle or
aunt.
Unlawful imprisonment in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful imprisonment in the second degree when
he restrains another person.
Unlawful imprisonment in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful imprisonment in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful imprisonment in the first degree when
he restrains another person under circumstances which expose the latter
to a risk of serious physical injury.
Unlawful imprisonment in the first degree is a class E felony.
Unlawful imprisonment; defense.
In any prosecution for unlawful imprisonment, it is an affirmative
defense that (a) the person restrained was a child less than sixteen
years old, and (b) the defendant was a relative of such child, and (c)
his sole purpose was to assume control of such child.
Kidnapping in the second degree.
A person is guilty of kidnapping in the second degree when he abducts
another person.
Kidnapping in the second degree is a class B felony.
Kidnapping in the first degree.
A person is guilty of kidnapping in the first degree when he abducts
another person and when:
1. His intent is to compel a third person to pay or deliver money or
property as ransom, or to engage in other particular conduct, or to
refrain from engaging in particular conduct; or
2. He restrains the person abducted for a period of more than twelve
hours with intent to:
(a) Inflict physical injury upon him or violate or abuse him sexually;
or
(b) Accomplish or advance the commission of a felony; or
(c) Terrorize him or a third person; or
(d) Interfere with the performance of a governmental or political
function; or
3. The person abducted dies during the abduction or before he is able
to return or to be returned to safety. Such death shall be presumed, in
a case where such person was less than sixteen years old or an
incompetent person at the time of the abduction, from evidence that his
parents, guardians or other lawful custodians did not see or hear from
him following the termination of the abduction and prior to trial and
received no reliable information during such period persuasively
indicating that he was alive. In all other cases, such death shall be
presumed from evidence that a person whom the person abducted would have
been extremely likely to visit or communicate with during the specified
period were he alive and free to do so did not see or hear from him
during such period and received no reliable information during such
period persuasively indicating that he was alive.
Kidnapping in the first degree is a class A-I felony.
Kidnapping; defense.
In any prosecution for kidnapping, it is an affirmative defense that
(a) the defendant was a relative of the person abducted, and (b) his
sole purpose was to assume control of such person.
Labor trafficking.
A person is guilty of labor trafficking if he or she compels or
induces another to engage in labor or recruits, entices, harbors, or
transports such other person by means of intentionally:
1. requiring that the labor be performed to retire, repay, or service
a real or purported debt that the actor has caused by a systematic
ongoing course of conduct with intent to defraud such person;
2. withholding, destroying, or confiscating any actual or purported
passport, immigration document, or any other actual or purported
government identification document, of another person with intent to
impair said person's freedom of movement; provided, however, that this
subdivision shall not apply to an attempt to correct a social security
administration record or immigration agency record in accordance with
any local, state, or federal agency requirement, where such attempt is
not made for the purpose of any express or implied threat;
3. using force or engaging in any scheme, plan or pattern to compel or
induce such person to engage in or continue to engage in labor activity
by means of instilling a fear in such person that, if the demand is not
complied with, the actor or another will do one or more of the
following:
(a) cause physical injury, serious physical injury, or death to a
person; or
(b) cause damage to property, other than the property of the actor; or
(c) engage in other conduct constituting a felony or unlawful
imprisonment in the second degree in violation of section 135.05 of this
article; or
(d) accuse some person of a crime or cause criminal charges or
deportation proceedings to be instituted against such person; provided,
however, that it shall be an affirmative defense to this subdivision
that the defendant reasonably believed the threatened charge to be true
and that his or her sole purpose was to compel or induce the victim to
take reasonable action to make good the wrong which was the subject of
such threatened charge; or
(e) expose a secret or publicize an asserted fact, whether true or
false, tending to subject some person to hatred, contempt or ridicule;
or
(f) testify or provide information or withhold testimony or
information with respect to another's legal claim or defense; or
(g) use or abuse his or her position as a public servant by performing
some act within or related to his or her official duties, or by failing
or refusing to perform an official duty, in such manner as to affect
some person adversely.
Labor trafficking is a class D felony.
Labor trafficking; accomplice.
In a prosecution for labor trafficking, a person who has been
compelled or induced or recruited, enticed, harbored or transported to
engage in labor shall not be deemed to be an accomplice.
Aggravated labor trafficking.
A person is guilty of aggravated labor trafficking if he or she
compels or induces another to engage in labor or recruits, entices,
harbors, or transports such other person to engage in labor by means of
intentionally unlawfully providing a controlled substance to such person
with intent to impair said person's judgment.
Aggravated labor trafficking is a class C felony.
Custodial interference in the second degree.
A person is guilty of custodial interference in the second degree
when:
1. Being a relative of a child less than sixteen years old, intending
to hold such child permanently or for a protracted period, and knowing
that he has no legal right to do so, he takes or entices such child from
his lawful custodian; or
2. Knowing that he has no legal right to do so, he takes or entices
from lawful custody any incompetent person or other person entrusted by
authority of law to the custody of another person or institution.
Custodial interference in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Custodial interference in the first degree.
A person is guilty of custodial interference in the first degree when
he commits the crime of custodial interference in the second degree:
1. With intent to permanently remove the victim from this state, he
removes such person from the state; or
2. Under circumstances which expose the victim to a risk that his
safety will be endangered or his health materially impaired.
It shall be an affirmative defense to a prosecution under subdivision
one of this section that the victim had been abandoned or that the
taking was necessary in an emergency to protect the victim because he
has been subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse.
Custodial interference in the first degree is a class E felony.
Substitution of children.
A person is guilty of substitution of children when, having been
temporarily entrusted with a child less than one year old and intending
to deceive a parent, guardian or other lawful custodian of such child,
he substitutes, produces or returns to such parent, guardian or
custodian a child other than the one entrusted.
Substitution of children is a class E felony.
Coercion in the third degree.
A person is guilty of coercion in the third degree when he or she
compels or induces a person to engage in conduct which the latter has a
legal right to abstain from engaging in, or to abstain from engaging in
conduct in which he or she has a legal right to engage, or compels or
induces a person to join a group, organization or criminal enterprise
which such latter person has a right to abstain from joining, or compels
or induces a person to produce, disseminate, or otherwise display an
image or images depicting nudity of such person or depicting such person
engaged in sexual conduct as defined in subdivisions two and three of
section 235.20 of this chapter, by means of instilling in him or her a
fear that, if the demand is not complied with, the actor or another
will:
1. Cause physical injury to a person; or
2. Cause damage to property; or
3. Engage in other conduct constituting a crime; or
4. Accuse some person of a crime or cause criminal charges to be
instituted against him or her; or
5. Expose a secret or publicize an asserted fact, whether true or
false, tending to subject some person to hatred, contempt or ridicule;
or
6. Cause a strike, boycott or other collective labor group action
injurious to some person's business; except that such a threat shall not
be deemed coercive when the act or omission compelled is for the benefit
of the group in whose interest the actor purports to act; or
7. Testify or provide information or withhold testimony or information
with respect to another's legal claim or defense; or
8. Use or abuse his or her position as a public servant by performing
some act within or related to his or her official duties, or by failing
or refusing to perform an official duty, in such manner as to affect
some person adversely; or
9. Perform any other act which would not in itself materially benefit
the actor but which is calculated to harm another person materially with
respect to his or her health, safety, business, calling, career,
financial condition, reputation or personal relationships.
10. Report his or her immigration status or suspected immigration
status.
Coercion in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Coercion in the second degree.
A person is guilty of coercion in the second degree when he or she
commits the crime of coercion in the third degree as defined in section
135.60 of this article and thereby compels or induces a person to engage
in vaginal sexual contact, oral sexual contact or anal sexual contact as
such terms are defined in section 130.00 of this title.
Coercion in the second degree is a class E felony.
Coercion in the first degree.
A person is guilty of coercion in the first degree when he or she
commits the crime of coercion in the third degree, and when:
1. He or she commits such crime by instilling in the victim a fear
that he or she will cause physical injury to a person or cause damage to
property; or
2. He or she thereby compels or induces the victim to:
(a) Commit or attempt to commit a felony; or
(b) Cause or attempt to cause physical injury to a person; or
(c) Violate his or her duty as a public servant.
Coercion in the first degree is a class D felony.
Coercion; no defense.
The crimes of (a) coercion and attempt to commit coercion, and (b)
bribe receiving by a labor official as defined in section 180.20, and
bribe receiving as defined in section 200.05, are not mutually
exclusive, and it is no defense to a prosecution for coercion or an
attempt to commit coercion that, by reason of the same conduct, the
defendant also committed one of such specified crimes of bribe
receiving.
Coercion; defense.
In any prosecution for coercion committed by instilling in the victim
a fear that he or another person would be charged with a crime, it is an
affirmative defense that the defendant reasonably believed the
threatened charge to be true and that his sole purpose was to compel or
induce the victim to take reasonable action to make good the wrong which
was the subject of such threatened charge.
TITLE I Offenses Involving Damage to and Intrusion Upon Property
ARTICLE 140 Burglary and Related Offenses
Criminal trespass and burglary; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Premises" includes the term "building," as defined herein, and any
real property.
2. "Building," in addition to its ordinary meaning, includes any
structure, vehicle or watercraft used for overnight lodging of persons,
or used by persons for carrying on business therein, or used as an
elementary or secondary school, or an inclosed motor truck, or an
inclosed motor truck trailer. Where a building consists of two or more
units separately secured or occupied, each unit shall be deemed both a
separate building in itself and a part of the main building.
3. "Dwelling" means a building which is usually occupied by a person
lodging therein at night.
4. "Night" means the period between thirty minutes after sunset and
thirty minutes before sunrise.
5. "Enter or remain unlawfully." A person "enters or remains
unlawfully" in or upon premises when he is not licensed or privileged to
do so. A person who, regardless of his intent, enters or remains in or
upon premises which are at the time open to the public does so with
license and privilege unless he defies a lawful order not to enter or
remain, personally communicated to him by the owner of such premises or
other authorized person. A license or privilege to enter or remain in a
building which is only partly open to the public is not a license or
privilege to enter or remain in that part of the building which is not
open to the public. A person who enters or remains upon unimproved and
apparently unused land, which is neither fenced nor otherwise enclosed
in a manner designed to exclude intruders, does so with license and
privilege unless notice against trespass is personally communicated to
him by the owner of such land or other authorized person, or unless such
notice is given by posting in a conspicuous manner. A person who enters
or remains in or about a school building without written permission from
someone authorized to issue such permission or without a legitimate
reason which includes a relationship involving custody of or
responsibility for a pupil or student enrolled in the school or without
legitimate business or a purpose relating to the operation of the school
does so without license and privilege.
Trespass.
A person is guilty of trespass when he knowingly enters or remains
unlawfully in or upon premises.
Trespass is a violation.
Criminal trespass in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the third degree when he
knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a building or upon real
property
(a) which is fenced or otherwise enclosed in a manner designed to
exclude intruders; or
(b) where the building is utilized as an elementary or secondary
school or a children's overnight camp as defined in section one thousand
three hundred ninety-two of the public health law or a summer day camp
as defined in section one thousand three hundred ninety-two of the
public health law in violation of conspicuously posted rules or
regulations governing entry and use thereof; or
(c) located within a city with a population in excess of one million
and where the building or real property is utilized as an elementary or
secondary school in violation of a personally communicated request to
leave the premises from a principal, custodian or other person in charge
thereof; or
(d) located outside of a city with a population in excess of one
million and where the building or real property is utilized as an
elementary or secondary school in violation of a personally communicated
request to leave the premises from a principal, custodian, school board
member or trustee, or other person in charge thereof; or
(e) where the building is used as a public housing project in
violation of conspicuously posted rules or regulations governing entry
and use thereof; or
(f) where a building is used as a public housing project in violation
of a personally communicated request to leave the premises from a
housing police officer or other person in charge thereof; or
(g) where the property consists of a right-of-way or yard of a
railroad or rapid transit railroad which has been designated and
conspicuously posted as a no-trespass railroad zone.
Criminal trespass in the third degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal trespass in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the second degree when:
1. he or she knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a dwelling; or
2. being a person required to maintain registration under article
six-C of the correction law and designated a level two or level three
offender pursuant to subdivision six of section one hundred
sixty-eight-l of the correction law, he or she enters or remains in a
public or private elementary, parochial, intermediate, junior high,
vocational or high school knowing that the victim of the offense for
which such registration is required attends or formerly attended such
school. It shall not be an offense subject to prosecution under this
subdivision if: the person is a lawfully registered student at such
school; the person is a lawful student participant in a school sponsored
event; the person is a parent or a legal guardian of a lawfully
registered student at such school and enters the school for the purpose
of attending their child's or dependent's event or activity; such school
is the person's designated polling place and he or she enters such
school building for the limited purpose of voting; or if the person
enters such school building for the limited purposes authorized by the
superintendent or chief administrator of such school.
Criminal trespass in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal trespass in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the first degree when he
knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a building, and when, in the
course of committing such crime, he:
1. Possesses, or knows that another participant in the crime
possesses, an explosive or a deadly weapon; or
2. Possesses a firearm, rifle or shotgun, as those terms are defined
in section 265.00, and also possesses or has readily accessible a
quantity of ammunition which is capable of being discharged from such
firearm, rifle or shotgun; or
3. Knows that another participant in the crime possesses a firearm,
rifle or shotgun under circumstances described in subdivision two.
Criminal trespass in the first degree is a class D felony.
Burglary in the third degree.
A person is guilty of burglary in the third degree when he knowingly
enters or remains unlawfully in a building with intent to commit a crime
therein.
Burglary in the third degree is a class D felony.
Burglary in the second degree.
A person is guilty of burglary in the second degree when he knowingly
enters or remains unlawfully in a building with intent to commit a crime
therein, and when:
1. In effecting entry or while in the building or in immediate flight
therefrom, he or another participant in the crime:
(a) Is armed with explosives or a deadly weapon; or
(b) Causes physical injury to any person who is not a participant in
the crime; or
(c) Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument; or
(d) Displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm; or
2. The building is a dwelling.
Burglary in the second degree is a class C felony.
Burglary in the first degree.
A person is guilty of burglary in the first degree when he knowingly
enters or remains unlawfully in a dwelling with intent to commit a crime
therein, and when, in effecting entry or while in the dwelling or in
immediate flight therefrom, he or another participant in the crime:
1. Is armed with explosives or a deadly weapon; or
2. Causes physical injury to any person who is not a participant in
the crime; or
3. Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument; or
4. Displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm; except that in any prosecution under this
subdivision, it is an affirmative defense that such pistol, revolver,
rifle, shotgun, machine gun or other firearm was not a loaded weapon
from which a shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious
physical injury, could be discharged. Nothing contained in this
subdivision shall constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude
a conviction of, burglary in the second degree, burglary in the third
degree or any other crime.
Burglary in the first degree is a class B felony.
Possession of burglar's tools.
A person is guilty of possession of burglar's tools when he possesses
any tool, instrument or other article adapted, designed or commonly used
for committing or facilitating offenses involving forcible entry into
premises, or offenses involving larceny by a physical taking, or
offenses involving theft of services as defined in subdivisions four,
five and six of section 165.15, under circumstances evincing an intent
to use or knowledge that some person intends to use the same in the
commission of an offense of such character.
Possession of burglar's tools is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful possession of radio devices.
As used in this section, the term "radio device" means any device
capable of receiving a wireless voice transmission on any frequency
allocated for police use, or any device capable of transmitting and
receiving a wireless voice transmission. A person is guilty of unlawful
possession of a radio device when he possesses a radio device with the
intent to use that device in the commission of robbery, burglary,
larceny, gambling or a violation of any provision of article two hundred
twenty of the penal law.
Unlawful possession of a radio device is a class B misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 145 Criminal Mischief and Related Offenses
Criminal mischief in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the fourth degree when,
having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he or
she has such right, he or she:
1. Intentionally damages property of another person; or
2. Intentionally participates in the destruction of an abandoned
building as defined in section one thousand nine hundred seventy-one-a
of the real property actions and proceedings law; or
3. Recklessly damages property of another person in an amount
exceeding two hundred fifty dollars; or
4. With intent to prevent a person from communicating a request for
emergency assistance, intentionally disables or removes telephonic, TTY
or similar communication sending equipment while that person: (a) is
attempting to seek or is engaged in the process of seeking emergency
assistance from police, law enforcement, fire or emergency medical
services personnel; or (b) is attempting to seek or is engaged in the
process of seeking emergency assistance from another person or entity in
order to protect himself, herself or a third person from imminent
physical injury. The fact that the defendant has an ownership interest
in such equipment shall not be a defense to a charge pursuant to this
subdivision.
Criminal mischief in the fourth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal mischief in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the third degree when, with
intent to damage property of another person, and having no right to do
so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he or she has such right,
he or she:
1. damages the motor vehicle of another person, by breaking into such
vehicle when it is locked with the intent of stealing property, and
within the previous ten year period, has been convicted three or more
times, in separate criminal transactions for which sentence was imposed
on separate occasions, of criminal mischief in the fourth degree as
defined in section 145.00, criminal mischief in the third degree as
defined in this section, criminal mischief in the second degree as
defined in section 145.10, or criminal mischief in the first degree as
defined in section 145.12 of this article; or
2. damages property of another person in an amount exceeding two
hundred fifty dollars.
Criminal mischief in the third degree is a class E felony.
Criminal mischief in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the second degree when with
intent to damage property of another person, and having no right to do
so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he has such right, he
damages property of another person in an amount exceeding one thousand
five hundred dollars.
Criminal mischief in the second degree is a class D felony.
Criminal mischief in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the first degree when with
intent to damage property of another person, and having no right to do
so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he has such right, he
damages property of another person by means of an explosive.
Criminal mischief in the first degree is a class B felony.
Definitions.
For the purposes of sections 145.00, 145.05, 145.10 and 145.12 of this
article:
"Property of another" shall include all property in which another
person has an ownership interest, whether or not a person who damages
such property, or any other person, may also have an interest in such
property.
Criminal tampering in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal tampering in the third degree when,
having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he
has such right, he tampers with property of another person with intent
to cause substantial inconvenience to such person or to a third person.
Criminal tampering in the third degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal tampering in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal tampering in the second degree when,
having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he
has such right, he or she tampers or makes connection with property of a
gas, electric, sewer, steam or water-works corporation, telephone or
telegraph corporation, common carrier, nuclear powered electric
generating facility, or public utility operated by a municipality or
district; except that in any prosecution under this section, it is an
affirmative defense that the defendant did not engage in such conduct
for a larcenous or otherwise unlawful or wrongful purpose.
Criminal tampering in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal tampering in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal tampering in the first degree when,
with intent to cause a substantial interruption or impairment of a
service rendered to the public, and having no right to do so nor any
reasonable ground to believe that he or she has such right, he or she
damages or tampers with property of a gas, electric, sewer, steam or
water-works corporation, telephone or telegraph corporation, common
carrier, nuclear powered electric generating facility, or public utility
operated by a municipality or district, and thereby causes such
substantial interruption or impairment of service.
Criminal tampering in the first degree is a class D felony.
Cemetery desecration in the second degree.
A person is guilty of cemetery desecration in the second degree when:
(a) with intent to damage property of another person, and having no
right to do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he has such
right, he damages any real or personal property maintained as a cemetery
plot, grave, burial place or other place of interment of human remains;
or
(b) with intent to steal personal property, he steals personal
property which is located at a cemetery plot, grave, burial place or
other place of interment of human remains and which property is owned by
the person or organization which maintains or owns such place or the
estate, next-of-kin or representatives of the deceased person interred
there.
Cemetery desecration in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Cemetery desecration in the first degree.
A person is guilty of cemetery desecration in the first degree when
with intent to damage property of another person, and having no right to
do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he has such right, he:
(a) damages any real or personal property maintained as a cemetery
plot, grave, burial place or other place of interment of human remains
in an amount exceeding two hundred fifty dollars; or
(b) with intent to steal personal property, he steals personal
property, the value of which exceeds two hundred fifty dollars, which is
located at a cemetery plot, grave, burial place or other place of
interment of human remains and which property is owned by the person or
organization which maintains or owns such place or the estate,
next-of-kin or representatives of the deceased person interred there; or
(c) commits the crime of cemetery desecration in the second degree as
defined in section 145.22 of this article and has been previously
convicted of the crime of cemetery desecration in the second degree
within the preceding five years.
Cemetery desecration in the first degree is a class E felony.
Reckless endangerment of property.
A person is guilty of reckless endangerment of property when he
recklessly engages in conduct which creates a substantial risk of damage
to the property of another person in an amount exceeding two hundred
fifty dollars.
Reckless endangerment of property is a class B misdemeanor.
Aggravated cemetery desecration in the second degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated cemetery desecration in the second
degree when, having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to
believe that he or she has such right, he or she opens a casket, crypt,
or similar vessel containing a human body or human remains which has
been buried or otherwise interred in a cemetery and unlawfully removes
therefrom a body, bodily part, any human remains or any object contained
in such casket, crypt or similar vessel for the purpose of obtaining
unlawful possession of such body, bodily part, human remains or object
for such person or a third person.
Aggravated cemetery desecration in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Aggravated cemetery desecration in the first degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated cemetery desecration in the first
degree when such person commits the crime of aggravated cemetery
desecration in the second degree and has been previously convicted
within the past five years of the crime of cemetery desecration in the
second degree as defined in section 145.22 of this article, cemetery
desecration in the first degree as defined in section 145.23 of this
article or aggravated cemetery desecration in the second degree as
defined in section 145.26 of this article.
Aggravated cemetery desecration in the first degree is a class D
felony.
Unlawfully posting advertisements.
1. A person is guilty of unlawfully posting advertisements when,
having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to believe that he
has such right, he posts, paints or otherwise affixes to the property of
another person any advertisement, poster, notice or other matter
designed to benefit a person other than the owner of the property.
2. Where such matter consists of a commercial advertisement, it shall
be presumed that the vendor of the specified product, service or
entertainment is a person who placed such advertisement or caused it to
be placed upon the property.
Unlawfully posting advertisements is a violation.
Tampering with a consumer product; consumer product defined.
For the purposes of sections 145.40 and 145.45 of this article,
"consumer product" means any drug, food, beverage or thing which is
displayed or offered for sale to the public, for administration into or
ingestion by a human being or for application to any external surface of
a human being.
Tampering with a consumer product in the second degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a consumer product in the second
degree when, having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to
believe that he has such right, and with intent to cause physical injury
to another or with intent to instill in another a fear that he will
cause such physical injury, he alters, adulterates or otherwise
contaminates a consumer product.
Tampering with a consumer product in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Tampering with a consumer product in the first degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a consumer product in the first
degree when, having no right to do so nor any reasonable ground to
believe that he has such right, and with intent to cause physical injury
to another or with intent to instill in another a fear that he will
cause such physical injury, he alters, adulterates or otherwise
contaminates a consumer product and thereby creates a substantial risk
of serious physical injury to one or more persons.
Tampering with a consumer product in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Penalties for littering on railroad tracks and rights-of-way.
1. No person shall throw, dump, or cause to be thrown, dumped,
deposited or placed upon any railroad tracks, or within the limits of
the rights-of-way of any railroad, any refuse, trash, garbage, rubbish,
litter or any nauseous or offensive matter.
2. Where a highway or road lies in whole or part within a railroad
rights-of-way, nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting
the use in a reasonable manner of ashes, sand, salt or other material
for the purpose of reducing the hazard of, or providing traction on
snow, ice or sleet situated on such highway or road.
3. A violation of the provisions of subdivision one of this section
shall be punishable by a fine not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars
and/or a requirement to perform services for a public or not-for-profit
corporation, association, institution or agency not to exceed eight
hours and for any second or subsequent violation by a fine not to exceed
five hundred dollars and/or a requirement to perform services for a
public or not-for-profit corporation, association, institution or agency
not to exceed eight hours.
4. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to apply to a railroad or
its employees when matter deposited by them on the railroad tracks or
rights-of-way is done pursuant to railroad rules, regulations or
procedures.
Making graffiti.
1. For purposes of this section, the term "graffiti" shall mean the
etching, painting, covering, drawing upon or otherwise placing of a mark
upon public or private property with intent to damage such property.
2. No person shall make graffiti of any type on any building, public
or private, or any other property real or personal owned by any person,
firm or corporation or any public agency or instrumentality, without the
express permission of the owner or operator of said property.
Making graffiti is a class A misdemeanor.
Possession of graffiti instruments.
A person is guilty of possession of graffiti instruments when he
possesses any tool, instrument, article, substance, solution or other
compound designed or commonly used to etch, paint, cover, draw upon or
otherwise place a mark upon a piece of property which that person has no
permission or authority to etch, paint, cover, draw upon or otherwise
mark, under circumstances evincing an intent to use same in order to
damage such property.
Possession of graffiti instruments is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of a taximeter accelerating device.
1. For purposes of this section, a "taximeter" means an instrument or
device that automatically calculates and displays the charge to a
passenger in a vehicle that is licensed to transport members of the
public for hire pursuant to local law.
2. For purposes of this section, a "taximeter accelerating device"
means an instrument or device that causes a taximeter to increase the
charge displayed by such taximeter to an amount greater than the maximum
amount permitted by local law.
3. A person is guilty of criminal possession of a taximeter
accelerating device when he knowingly possesses, with intent to use
unlawfully, a taximeter accelerating device. If such a device is
knowingly possessed there is a rebuttable presumption that it is
intended to be used unlawfully.
Criminal possession of a taximeter accelerating device is a class A
misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 150 Arson
Arson; definitions.
As used in this article, 1. "Building", in addition to its ordinary
meaning, includes any structure, vehicle or watercraft used for
overnight lodging of persons, or used by persons for carrying on
business therein. Where a building consists of two or more units
separately secured or occupied, each unit shall not be deemed a separate
building.
2. "Motor vehicle", includes every vehicle operated or driven upon a
public highway which is propelled by any power other than muscular
power, except (a) electrically-driven invalid chairs being operated or
driven by an invalid, (b) vehicles which run only upon rails or tracks,
and (c) snowmobiles as defined in article forty-seven of the vehicle and
traffic law.
Arson in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of arson in the fifth degree when he or she
intentionally damages property of another without consent of the owner
by intentionally starting a fire or causing an explosion.
Arson in the fifth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Arson in the fourth degree.
1. A person is guilty of arson in the fourth degree when he recklessly
damages a building or motor vehicle by intentionally starting a fire or
causing an explosion.
2. In any prosecution under this section, it is an affirmative defense
that no person other than the defendant had a possessory or proprietary
interest in the building or motor vehicle.
Arson in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Arson in the third degree.
1. A person is guilty of arson in the third degree when he
intentionally damages a building or motor vehicle by starting a fire or
causing an explosion.
2. In any prosecution under this section, it is an affirmative defense
that (a) no person other than the defendant had a possessory or
proprietary interest in the building or motor vehicle, or if other
persons had such interests, all of them consented to the defendant's
conduct, and (b) the defendant's sole intent was to destroy or damage
the building or motor vehicle for a lawful and proper purpose, and (c)
the defendant had no reasonable ground to believe that his conduct might
endanger the life or safety of another person or damage another building
or motor vehicle.
Arson in the third degree is a class C felony.
Arson in the second degree.
A person is guilty of arson in the second degree when he intentionally
damages a building or motor vehicle by starting a fire, and when (a)
another person who is not a participant in the crime is present in such
building or motor vehicle at the time, and (b) the defendant knows that
fact or the circumstances are such as to render the presence of such a
person therein a reasonable possibility.
Arson in the second degree is a class B felony.
Arson in the first degree.
1. A person is guilty of arson in the first degree when he
intentionally damages a building or motor vehicle by causing an
explosion or a fire and when (a) such explosion or fire is caused by an
incendiary device propelled, thrown or placed inside or near such
building or motor vehicle; or when such explosion or fire is caused by
an explosive; or when such explosion or fire either (i) causes serious
physical injury to another person other than a participant, or (ii) the
explosion or fire was caused with the expectation or receipt of
financial advantage or pecuniary profit by the actor; and when (b)
another person who is not a participant in the crime is present in such
building or motor vehicle at the time; and (c) the defendant knows that
fact or the circumstances are such as to render the presence of such
person therein a reasonable possibility.
2. As used in this section, "incendiary device" means a breakable
container designed to explode or produce uncontained combustion upon
impact, containing flammable liquid and having a wick or a similar
device capable of being ignited.
Arson in the first degree is a class A-I felony.
TITLE J Offenses Involving Theft
ARTICLE 155 Larceny
Larceny; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this title:
1. "Property" means any money, compensation for labor or services,
personal property, real property, computer data, computer program, thing
in action, evidence of debt or contract, or any article, substance or
thing of value, including any gas, steam, water or electricity, which is
provided for a charge or compensation.
2. "Obtain" includes, but is not limited to, the bringing about of a
transfer or purported transfer of property or of a legal interest
therein, whether to the obtainer or another.
3. "Deprive." To "deprive" another of property means (a) to withhold
it or cause it to be withheld from him permanently or for so extended a
period or under such circumstances that the major portion of its
economic value or benefit is lost to him, or (b) to dispose of the
property in such manner or under such circumstances as to render it
unlikely that an owner will recover such property.
4. "Appropriate." To "appropriate" property of another to oneself or a
third person means (a) to exercise control over it, or to aid a third
person to exercise control over it, permanently or for so extended a
period or under such circumstances as to acquire the major portion of
its economic value or benefit, or (b) to dispose of the property for the
benefit of oneself or a third person.
5. "Owner." When property is taken, obtained or withheld by one person
from another person, an "owner" thereof means any person who has a right
to possession thereof superior to that of the taker, obtainer or
withholder.
A person who has obtained possession of property by theft or other
illegal means shall be deemed to have a right of possession superior to
that of a person who takes, obtains or withholds it from him by
larcenous means.
A joint or common owner of property shall not be deemed to have a
right of possession thereto superior to that of any other joint or
common owner thereof.
In the absence of a specific agreement to the contrary, a person in
lawful possession of property shall be deemed to have a right of
possession superior to that of a person having only a security interest
therein, even if legal title lies with the holder of the security
interest pursuant to a conditional sale contract or other security
agreement.
6. "Secret scientific material" means a sample, culture,
micro-organism, specimen, record, recording, document, drawing or any
other article, material, device or substance which constitutes,
represents, evidences, reflects, or records a scientific or technical
process, invention or formula or any part or phase thereof, and which is
not, and is not intended to be, available to anyone other than the
person or persons rightfully in possession thereof or selected persons
having access thereto with his or their consent, and when it accords or
may accord such rightful possessors an advantage over competitors or
other persons who do not have knowledge or the benefit thereof.
7. "Credit card" means any instrument or article defined as a credit
card in section five hundred eleven of the general business law.
7-a. "Debit card" means any instrument or article defined as a debit
card in section five hundred eleven of the general business law.
7-b. "Public benefit card" means any medical assistance card, food
stamp assistance card, public assistance card, or any other
identification, authorization card or electronic access device issued by
the state or a social services district as defined in subdivision seven
of section two of the social services law, which entitles a person to
obtain public assistance benefits under a local, state or federal
program administered by the state, its political subdivisions or social
services districts.
7-c. "Access device" means any telephone calling card number, credit
card number, account number, mobile identification number, electronic
serial number or personal identification number that can be used to
obtain telephone service.
8. "Service" includes, but is not limited to, labor, professional
service, a computer service, transportation service, the supplying of
hotel accommodations, restaurant services, entertainment, the supplying
of equipment for use, and the supplying of commodities of a public
utility nature such as gas, electricity, steam and water. A ticket or
equivalent instrument which evidences a right to receive a service is
not in itself service but constitutes property within the meaning of
subdivision one.
9. "Cable television service" means any and all services provided by
or through the facilities of any cable television system or closed
circuit coaxial cable communications system, or any microwave or similar
transmission service used in connection with any cable television system
or other similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system.
10. "Workforce" means a group of one or more persons who work in
exchange for wages.
11. "Residential real property" or any derivative word thereof shall
have the same meaning as defined in subdivision three of section 187.00
of this part.
12. "Commercial property" or any derivative word thereof shall mean a
nonresidential property used for the buying, selling or otherwise
providing of goods or services including hotel services, or for other
lawful business, commercial or manufacturing activities.
13. "Mixed-use property" shall have the same meaning as defined in
subdivision twenty-two of section four hundred eighty-nine-aaaa of the
real property tax law.
14. "Incompetent" shall have the same meaning as defined in section
1-2.9 of the estates, powers and trusts law.
15. "Incapacitated person" shall mean a person who, because of mental
disability as defined in subdivision three of section 1.03 of the mental
hygiene law or mental deficiency, is unable to care for their own
property and/or personal needs, and is likely to suffer harm because
such person is unable to understand and appreciate the nature and
consequences of not being able to care for their property and/or
personal needs.
16. "Elderly person" means a person sixty years of age or older.
Larceny; defined.
1. A person steals property and commits larceny when, with intent to
deprive another of property or to appropriate the same to himself or to
a third person, he wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds such property
from an owner thereof.
2. Larceny includes a wrongful taking, obtaining or withholding of
another's property, with the intent prescribed in subdivision one of
this section, committed in any of the following ways:
(a) By conduct heretofore defined or known as common law larceny by
trespassory taking, common law larceny by trick, embezzlement, or
obtaining property by false pretenses;
(b) By acquiring lost property.
A person acquires lost property when he exercises control over
property of another which he knows to have been lost or mislaid, or to
have been delivered under a mistake as to the identity of the recipient
or the nature or amount of the property, without taking reasonable
measures to return such property to the owner;
(c) By committing the crime of issuing a bad check, as defined in
section 190.05;
(d) By false promise.
A person obtains property by false promise when, pursuant to a scheme
to defraud, he obtains property of another by means of a representation,
express or implied, that he or a third person will in the future engage
in particular conduct, and when he does not intend to engage in such
conduct or, as the case may be, does not believe that the third person
intends to engage in such conduct.
In any prosecution for larceny based upon a false promise, the
defendant's intention or belief that the promise would not be performed
may not be established by or inferred from the fact alone that such
promise was not performed. Such a finding may be based only upon
evidence establishing that the facts and circumstances of the case are
wholly consistent with guilty intent or belief and wholly inconsistent
with innocent intent or belief, and excluding to a moral certainty every
hypothesis except that of the defendant's intention or belief that the
promise would not be performed;
(e) By extortion.
A person obtains property by extortion when he compels or induces
another person to deliver such property to himself or to a third person
by means of instilling in him a fear that, if the property is not so
delivered, the actor or another will:
(i) Cause physical injury to some person in the future; or
(ii) Cause damage to property; or
(iii) Engage in other conduct constituting a crime; or
(iv) Accuse some person of a crime or cause criminal charges or
removal proceedings to be instituted against him or her; or
(v) Expose a secret or publicize an asserted fact, whether true or
false, tending to subject some person to hatred, contempt or ridicule;
or
(vi) Cause a strike, boycott or other collective labor group action
injurious to some person's business; except that such a threat shall not
be deemed extortion when the property is demanded or received for the
benefit of the group in whose interest the actor purports to act; or
(vii) Testify or provide information or withhold testimony or
information with respect to another's legal claim or defense; or
(viii) Use or abuse his position as a public servant by performing
some act within or related to his official duties, or by failing or
refusing to perform an official duty, in such manner as to affect some
person adversely; or
(ix) Perform any other act which would not in itself materially
benefit the actor but which is calculated to harm another person
materially with respect to such other person's health, safety, business,
calling, career, financial condition, reputation or personal
relationships;or
(f) By wage theft.
A person obtains property by wage theft when such person hires a
person to perform services and the person performs such services and the
person does not pay wages, at the minimum wage rate and overtime, or
promised wage, if greater than the minimum wage rate and overtime, to
said person for work performed. In a prosecution for wage theft, for the
purposes of venue, it is permissible to aggregate all nonpayments or
underpayments to one person from one person, into one larceny count,
even if the nonpayments or underpayments occurred in multiple counties.
It is also permissible to aggregate nonpayments or underpayments from a
workforce into one larceny count even if such nonpayments or
underpayments occurred in multiple counties; or
(g) By deed theft. A person commits deed theft when such person:
(i) Intentionally alters, falsifies, forges, or misrepresents any
written instrument involved in the conveyance or financing of real
property, such as a residential or commercial deed or title, with the
intent to deceive, defraud, or unlawfully transfer or encumber the
ownership rights or a portion thereof of a residential or commercial
property; or
(ii) with intent to defraud, misrepresents themselves as the owner or
authorized representative of residential or commercial real property to
induce others to rely on such false information in order to obtain
ownership or possession of such real property; or
(iii) with intent to defraud, takes, obtains, or transfers title or
ownership of real property by fraud, misrepresentation, forgery,
larceny, false pretenses, false promise, or any other fraudulent or
deceptive practice.
Larceny; no defense.
The crimes of (a) larceny committed by means of extortion and an
attempt to commit the same, and (b) bribe receiving by a labor official
as defined in section 180.20, and bribe receiving as defined in section
200.05, are not mutually exclusive, and it is no defense to a
prosecution for larceny committed by means of extortion or for an
attempt to commit the same that, by reason of the same conduct, the
defendant also committed one of such specified crimes of bribe
receiving.
Larceny; defenses.
1. In any prosecution for larceny committed by trespassory taking or
embezzlement, it is an affirmative defense that the property was
appropriated under a claim of right made in good faith.
2. In any prosecution for larceny by extortion committed by instilling
in the victim a fear that he or another person would be charged with a
crime, it is an affirmative defense that the defendant reasonably
believed the threatened charge to be true and that his sole purpose was
to compel or induce the victim to take reasonable action to make good
the wrong which was the subject of such threatened charge.
Larceny; value of stolen property.
For the purposes of this title, the value of property shall be
ascertained as follows:
1. Except as otherwise specified in this section, value means the
market value of the property at the time and place of the crime, or if
such cannot be satisfactorily ascertained, the cost of replacement of
the property within a reasonable time after the crime.
2. Whether or not they have been issued or delivered, certain written
instruments, not including those having a readily ascertainable market
value such as some public and corporate bonds and securities, shall be
evaluated as follows:
(a) The value of an instrument constituting an evidence of debt, such
as a check, draft or promissory note, shall be deemed the amount due or
collectable thereon or thereby, such figure ordinarily being the face
amount of the indebtedness less any portion thereof which has been
satisfied.
(b) The value of a ticket or equivalent instrument which evidences a
right to receive a transportation, entertainment or other service shall
be deemed the price stated thereon, if any; and if no price is stated
thereon the value shall be deemed the price of such ticket or equivalent
instrument which the issuer charges the general public.
(c) The value of any other instrument which creates, releases,
discharges or otherwise affects any valuable legal right, privilege or
obligation shall be deemed the greatest amount of economic loss which
the owner of the instrument might reasonably suffer by virtue of the
loss of the instrument.
3. Where the property consists of gas, steam, water or electricity,
which is provided for charge or compensation, the value shall be the
value of the property stolen in any consecutive twelve-month period.
4. When the value of property cannot be satisfactorily ascertained
pursuant to the standards set forth in subdivisions one and two of this
section, its value shall be deemed to be an amount less than two hundred
fifty dollars.
Petit larceny.
A person is guilty of petit larceny when he steals property.
Petit larceny is a class A misdemeanor.
Grand Larceny in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of grand larceny in the fourth degree when he
steals property and when:
1. The value of the property exceeds one thousand dollars; or
2. The property consists of a public record, writing or instrument
kept, filed or deposited according to law with or in the keeping of any
public office or public servant; or
3. The property consists of secret scientific material; or
4. The property consists of a credit card or debit card; or
5. The property, regardless of its nature and value, is taken from the
person of another; or
6. The property, regardless of its nature and value, is obtained by
extortion; or
7. The property consists of one or more firearms, rifles or shotguns,
as such terms are defined in section 265.00 of this chapter; or
8. The value of the property exceeds one hundred dollars and the
property consists of a motor vehicle, as defined in section one hundred
twenty-five of the vehicle and traffic law, other than a motorcycle, as
defined in section one hundred twenty-three of such law; or
9. The property consists of a scroll, religious vestment, a vessel, an
item comprising a display of religious symbols which forms a
representative expression of faith, or other miscellaneous item of
property which:
(a) has a value of at least one hundred dollars; and
(b) is kept for or used in connection with religious worship in any
building, structure or upon the curtilage of such building or structure
used as a place of religious worship by a religious corporation, as
incorporated under the religious corporations law or the education law;
or
10. The property consists of an access device which the person intends
to use unlawfully to obtain telephone service; or
11. The property consists of anhydrous ammonia or liquified ammonia
gas and the actor intends to use, or knows another person intends to
use, such anhydrous ammonia or liquified ammonia gas to manufacture
methamphetamine; or
12. The property consists of retail goods or merchandise stolen
pursuant to a common scheme or plan or a single, ongoing intent to
deprive another or others of the property or to appropriate the property
to the actor or another person and the value of the property exceeds one
thousand dollars, which value may be determined by the aggregate value
of all such property regardless of whether the goods or merchandise were
stolen from the same owner. Nothing in this subdivision shall be read to
limit the ability to aggregate the value of any property or the ability
to charge the larceny of retail goods or merchandise under another
applicable provision of law.
Grand larceny in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Grand larceny in the third degree.
A person is guilty of grand larceny in the third degree when such
person steals property and:
1. when the value of the property exceeds three thousand dollars, or
2. the property is an automated teller machine or the contents of an
automated teller machine, or
** 3. the property consists of retail goods or merchandise stolen
pursuant to a common scheme or plan or a single, ongoing intent to
deprive another or others of the property or to appropriate the property
to the actor or another person and the value of the property exceeds
three thousand dollars, which value may be determined by the aggregate
value of all such property regardless of whether the goods or
merchandise were stolen from the same owner. Nothing in this subdivision
shall be read to limit the ability to aggregate the value of any
property or the ability to charge the larceny of retail goods or
merchandise under another applicable provision of law.
** NB There are 2 sb 3's
* 3. when such person commits deed theft of one commercial real
property, regardless of the value.
** NB There are 2 sb 3's
Grand larceny in the third degree is a class D felony.
Grand larceny in the second degree.
A person is guilty of grand larceny in the second degree when such
person steals property and when:
1. The value of the property exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
2. The property, regardless of its nature and value, is obtained by
extortion committed by instilling in the victim a fear that the actor or
another person will (a) cause physical injury to some person in the
future, or (b) cause damage to property, or (c) use or abuse the actor's
position as a public servant by engaging in conduct within or related to
the actor's official duties, or by failing or refusing to perform an
official duty, in such manner as to affect some person adversely; or
** 3. The property consists of retail goods or merchandise stolen
pursuant to a common scheme or plan or a single, ongoing intent to
deprive another or others of the property or to appropriate the property
to the actor or another person and the value of the property exceeds
fifty thousand dollars, which value may be determined by the aggregate
value of all such property regardless of whether the goods or
merchandise were stolen from the same owner. Nothing in this subdivision
shall be read to limit the ability to aggregate the value of any
property or the ability to charge the larceny of retail goods or
merchandise under another applicable provision of law.
** NB There are 2 sb 3's
** 3. Such person commits deed theft, regardless of the value, of: (a)
one residential real property; or (b) one commercial mixed-use property
with at least one residential unit; or (c) two or more commercial
properties.
** NB There are 2 sb 3's
Grand larceny in the second degree is a class C felony.
* § 155.42 Grand larceny in the first degree.
A person is guilty of grand larceny in the first degree when such
person steals property and when:
1. The value of the property exceeds one million dollars; or
2. The property consists of retail goods or merchandise stolen
pursuant to a common scheme or plan or a single, ongoing intent to
deprive another or others of the property or to appropriate the property
to the actor or another person and the value of the property exceeds one
million dollars, which value may be determined by the aggregate value of
all such property regardless of whether the goods or merchandise were
stolen from the same owner. Nothing in this subdivision shall be read to
limit the ability to aggregate the value of any property or the ability
to charge the larceny of retail goods or merchandise under another
applicable provision of law.
Grand larceny in the first degree is a class B felony.
* NB Separately amended; cannot be put together
* § 155.42 Grand larceny in the first degree.
A person is guilty of grand larceny in the first degree when:
1. such person steals property and when the value of the property
exceeds one million dollars; or
2. such person commits deed theft, regardless of the value, of (a)
residential real property that is occupied as a home by at least one
person; or (b) residential real property that involves a home that is
owned by an elderly person, an incompetent, an incapacitated person, or
physically disabled person; or (c) three or more residential real
properties.
Grand larceny in the first degree is a class B felony.
* NB Separately amended; cannot be put together
Aggravated grand larceny of an automated teller machine.
A person is guilty of aggravated grand larceny of an automated teller
machine when he or she commits the crime of grand larceny in the third
degree, as defined in subdivision two of section 155.35 of this article
and has been previously convicted of grand larceny in the third degree
within the previous five years.
Aggravated grand larceny of an automated teller machine is a class C
felony.
Larceny; pleading and proof.
1. Where it is an element of the crime charged that property was taken
from the person or obtained by extortion, an indictment for larceny must
so specify. In all other cases, an indictment, information or complaint
for larceny is sufficient if it alleges that the defendant stole
property of the nature or value required for the commission of the crime
charged without designating the particular way or manner in which such
property was stolen or the particular theory of larceny involved.
2. Proof that the defendant engaged in any conduct constituting
larceny as defined in section 155.05 is sufficient to support any
indictment, information or complaint for larceny other than one charging
larceny by extortion. An indictment charging larceny by extortion must
be supported by proof establishing larceny by extortion.
ARTICLE 156 Offenses Involving Computers; Definition of Terms
ARTICLE 158 Welfare Fraud
ARTICLE 160 Robbery
Robbery; defined.
Robbery is forcible stealing. A person forcibly steals property and
commits robbery when, in the course of committing a larceny, he uses or
threatens the immediate use of physical force upon another person for
the purpose of:
1. Preventing or overcoming resistance to the taking of the property
or to the retention thereof immediately after the taking; or
2. Compelling the owner of such property or another person to deliver
up the property or to engage in other conduct which aids in the
commission of the larceny.
Robbery in the third degree.
A person is guilty of robbery in the third degree when he forcibly
steals property.
Robbery in the third degree is a class D felony.
Robbery in the second degree.
A person is guilty of robbery in the second degree when he forcibly
steals property and when:
1. He is aided by another person actually present; or
2. In the course of the commission of the crime or of immediate flight
therefrom, he or another participant in the crime:
(a) Causes physical injury to any person who is not a participant in
the crime; or
(b) Displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm; or
3. The property consists of a motor vehicle, as defined in section one
hundred twenty-five of the vehicle and traffic law.
Robbery in the second degree is a class C felony.
Robbery in the first degree.
A person is guilty of robbery in the first degree when he forcibly
steals property and when, in the course of the commission of the crime
or of immediate flight therefrom, he or another participant in the
crime:
1. Causes serious physical injury to any person who is not a
participant in the crime; or
2. Is armed with a deadly weapon; or
3. Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument; or
4. Displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm; except that in any prosecution under this
subdivision, it is an affirmative defense that such pistol, revolver,
rifle, shotgun, machine gun or other firearm was not a loaded weapon
from which a shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious
physical injury, could be discharged. Nothing contained in this
subdivision shall constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude
a conviction of, robbery in the second degree, robbery in the third
degree or any other crime.
Robbery in the first degree is a class B felony.
ARTICLE 165 Other Offenses Relating to Theft
Misapplication of property.
1. A person is guilty of misapplication of property when, knowingly
possessing personal property of another pursuant to an agreement that
the same will be returned to the owner at a future time,
(a) he loans, leases, pledges, pawns or otherwise encumbers such
property without the consent of the owner thereof in such manner as to
create a risk that the owner will not be able to recover it or will
suffer pecuniary loss; or
(b) he intentionally refuses to return personal property valued in
excess of one hundred dollars to the owner pursuant to the terms of the
rental agreement provided that the owner shall have made a written
demand for the return of such personal property in person or by
certified mail at an address indicated in the rental agreement and he
intentionally refuses to return such personal property for a period of
thirty days after such demand has been received or should reasonably
have been received by him. Such written demand shall state: (i) the date
and time at which the personal property was to have been returned under
the rental agreement; (ii) that the owner does not consent to the
continued withholding or retaining of such personal property and demands
its return; and (iii) that the continued withholding or retaining of the
property may constitute a class A misdemeanor punishable by a fine of up
to one thousand dollars or by a sentence to a term of imprisonment for a
period of up to one year or by both such fine and imprisonment.
(c) as used in paragraph (b) of this subdivision and in subdivision
three of this section, the terms owner, personal property, and rental
agreement shall be defined as in subdivision one of section three
hundred ninety-nine-w of the general business law.
2. In any prosecution under paragraph (a) of subdivision one of this
section, it is a defense that, at the time the prosecution was
commenced, (a) the defendant had recovered possession of the property,
unencumbered as a result of the unlawful disposition, and (b) the owner
had suffered no material economic loss as a result of the unlawful
disposition.
3. In any prosecution under paragraph (b) of subdivision one of this
section, it is a defense that at the time the prosecution was commenced,
(a) the owner had recovered possession of the personal property and
suffered no material economic loss as a result of the unlawful
retention; or (b) the defendant is unable to return such personal
property because it has been accidentally destroyed or stolen; or (c)
the owner failed to comply with the provisions of section three hundred
ninety-nine-w of the general business law.
Misapplication of property is a class A misdemeanor.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the third degree.
A person is guilty of unauthorized use of a vehicle in the third
degree when:
1. Knowing that he does not have the consent of the owner, he takes,
operates, exercises control over, rides in or otherwise uses a vehicle.
A person who engages in any such conduct without the consent of the
owner is presumed to know that he does not have such consent; or
2. Having custody of a vehicle pursuant to an agreement between
himself or another and the owner thereof whereby he or another is to
perform for compensation a specific service for the owner involving the
maintenance, repair or use of such vehicle, he intentionally uses or
operates the same, without the consent of the owner, for his own
purposes in a manner constituting a gross deviation from the agreed
purpose; or
3. Having custody of a vehicle pursuant to an agreement with the owner
thereof whereby such vehicle is to be returned to the owner at a
specified time, he intentionally retains or withholds possession
thereof, without the consent of the owner, for so lengthy a period
beyond the specified time as to render such retention or possession a
gross deviation from the agreement.
For purposes of this section "a gross deviation from the agreement"
shall consist of, but not be limited to, circumstances wherein a person
who having had custody of a vehicle for a period of fifteen days or less
pursuant to a written agreement retains possession of such vehicle for
at least seven days beyond the period specified in the agreement and
continues such possession for a period of more than two days after
service or refusal of attempted service of a notice in person or by
certified mail at an address indicated in the agreement stating (i) the
date and time at which the vehicle was to have been returned under the
agreement; (ii) that the owner does not consent to the continued
withholding or retaining of such vehicle and demands its return; and
that continued withholding or retaining of the vehicle may constitute a
class A misdemeanor punishable by a fine of up to one thousand dollars
or by a sentence to a term of imprisonment for a period of up to one
year or by both such fine and imprisonment.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the third degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unauthorized use of a vehicle in the second
degree when:
He commits the crime of unauthorized use of a vehicle in the third
degree as defined in subdivision one of section 165.05 of this article
and has been previously convicted of the crime of unauthorized use of a
vehicle in the third degree as defined in subdivision one of section
165.05 or second degree within the preceding ten years.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Unlawful use of secret scientific material.
A person is guilty of unlawful use of secret scientific material when,
with intent to appropriate to himself or another the use of secret
scientific material, and having no right to do so and no reasonable
ground to believe that he has such right, he makes a tangible
reproduction or representation of such secret scientific material by
means of writing, photographing, drawing, mechanically or electronically
reproducing or recording such secret scientific material.
Unlawful use of secret scientific material is a class E felony.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unauthorized use of a vehicle in the first
degree when knowing that he does not have the consent of the owner, he
takes, operates, exercises control over, rides in or otherwise uses a
vehicle with the intent to use the same in the course of or the
commission of a class A, class B, class C or class D felony or in the
immediate flight therefrom. A person who engages in any such conduct
without the consent of the owner is presumed to know he does not have
such consent.
Unauthorized use of a vehicle in the first degree is a class D felony.
Auto stripping in the third degree.
A person is guilty of auto stripping in the third degree when:
1. He or she removes or intentionally destroys or defaces any part of
a vehicle, other than an abandoned vehicle, as defined in subdivision
one of section one thousand two hundred twenty-four of the vehicle and
traffic law, without the permission of the owner; or
2. He or she removes or intentionally destroys or defaces any part of
an abandoned vehicle, as defined in subdivision one of section one
thousand two hundred twenty-four of the vehicle and traffic law, except
that it is a defense to such charge that such person was authorized to
do so pursuant to law or by permission of the owner.
Auto stripping in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Auto stripping in the second degree.
A person is guilty of auto stripping in the second degree when:
1. He or she commits the offense of auto stripping in the third degree
and when he or she has been previously convicted within the last five
years of having violated the provisions of section 165.09 or this
section; or
2. He or she removes or intentionally destroys, defaces, disguises, or
alters any part of two or more vehicles, other than abandoned vehicles,
as defined in subdivision one of section one thousand two hundred
twenty-four of the vehicle and traffic law, without the permission of
the owner, and the value of the parts of vehicles removed, destroyed,
defaced, disguised, or altered exceeds an aggregate value of one
thousand dollars.
Auto stripping in the second degree is a class E felony.
Auto stripping in the first degree.
A person is guilty of auto stripping in the first degree when he or
she removes or intentionally destroys, defaces, disguises, or alters any
part of three or more vehicles, other than abandoned vehicles, as
defined in subdivision one of section one thousand two hundred
twenty-four of the vehicle and traffic law, without the permission of
the owner, and the value of the parts of vehicles removed, destroyed,
defaced, disguised, or altered exceeds an aggregate value of three
thousand dollars.
Auto stripping in the first degree is a class D felony.
Theft of services.
A person is guilty of theft of services when:
1. He obtains or attempts to obtain a service, or induces or attempts
to induce the supplier of a rendered service to agree to payment
therefor on a credit basis, by the use of a credit card or debit card
which he knows to be stolen.
2. With intent to avoid payment for restaurant services rendered, or
for services rendered to him as a transient guest at a hotel, motel,
inn, tourist cabin, rooming house or comparable establishment, he avoids
or attempts to avoid such payment by unjustifiable failure or refusal to
pay, by stealth, or by any misrepresentation of fact which he knows to
be false. A person who fails or refuses to pay for such services is
presumed to have intended to avoid payment therefor; or
3. With intent to obtain railroad, subway, bus, air, taxi or any other
public transportation service without payment of the lawful charge
therefor, or to avoid payment of the lawful charge for such
transportation service which has been rendered to him, he obtains or
attempts to obtain such service or avoids or attempts to avoid payment
therefor by force, intimidation, stealth, deception or mechanical
tampering, or by unjustifiable failure or refusal to pay; or
4. With intent to avoid payment by himself or another person of the
lawful charge for any telecommunications service, including, without
limitation, cable television service, or any gas, steam, sewer, water,
electrical, telegraph or telephone service which is provided for a
charge or compensation, he obtains or attempts to obtain such service
for himself or another person or avoids or attempts to avoid payment
therefor by himself or another person by means of (a) tampering or
making connection with the equipment of the supplier, whether by
mechanical, electrical, acoustical or other means, or (b) offering for
sale or otherwise making available, to anyone other than the provider of
a telecommunications service for such service provider's own use in the
provision of its service, any telecommunications decoder or descrambler,
a principal function of which defeats a mechanism of electronic signal
encryption, jamming or individually addressed switching imposed by the
provider of any such telecommunications service to restrict the delivery
of such service, or (c) any misrepresentation of fact which he knows to
be false, or (d) any other artifice, trick, deception, code or device.
For the purposes of this subdivision the telecommunications decoder or
descrambler described in paragraph (b) above or the device described in
paragraph (d) above shall not include any non-decoding and
non-descrambling channel frequency converter or any television receiver
type-accepted by the federal communications commission. In any
prosecution under this subdivision, proof that telecommunications
equipment, including, without limitation, any cable television
converter, descrambler, or related equipment, has been tampered with or
otherwise intentionally prevented from performing its functions of
control of service delivery without the consent of the supplier of the
service, or that telecommunications equipment, including, without
limitation, any cable television converter, descrambler, receiver, or
related equipment, has been connected to the equipment of the supplier
of the service without the consent of the supplier of the service, shall
be presumptive evidence that the resident to whom the service which is
at the time being furnished by or through such equipment has, with
intent to avoid payment by himself or another person for a prospective
or already rendered service, created or caused to be created with
reference to such equipment, the condition so existing. A person who
tampers with such a device or equipment without the consent of the
supplier of the service is presumed to do so with intent to avoid, or to
enable another to avoid, payment for the service involved. In any
prosecution under this subdivision, proof that any telecommunications
decoder or descrambler, a principal function of which defeats a
mechanism of electronic signal encryption, jamming or individually
addressed switching imposed by the provider of any such
telecommunications service to restrict the delivery of such service, has
been offered for sale or otherwise made available by anyone other than
the supplier of such service shall be presumptive evidence that the
person offering such equipment for sale or otherwise making it available
has, with intent to avoid payment by himself or another person of the
lawful charge for such service, obtained or attempted to obtain such
service for himself or another person or avoided or attempted to avoid
payment therefor by himself or another person; or
5. With intent to avoid payment by himself or another person of the
lawful charge for any telephone service which is provided for a charge
or compensation he (a) sells, offers for sale or otherwise makes
available, without consent, an existing, canceled or revoked access
device; or (b) uses, without consent, an existing, canceled or revoked
access device; or (c) knowingly obtains any telecommunications service
with fraudulent intent by use of an unauthorized, false, or fictitious
name, identification, telephone number, or access device. For purposes
of this subdivision access device means any telephone calling card
number, credit card number, account number, mobile identification
number, electronic serial number or personal identification number that
can be used to obtain telephone service.
6. With intent to avoid payment by himself or another person for a
prospective or already rendered service the charge or compensation for
which is measured by a meter or other mechanical device, he tampers with
such device or with other equipment related thereto, or in any manner
attempts to prevent the meter or device from performing its measuring
function, without the consent of the supplier of the service. In any
prosecution under this subdivision, proof that a meter or related
equipment has been tampered with or otherwise intentionally prevented
from performing its measuring function without the consent of the
supplier of the service shall be presumptive evidence that the person to
whom the service which is at the time being furnished by or through such
meter or related equipment has, with intent to avoid payment by himself
or another person for a prospective or already rendered service, created
or caused to be created with reference to such meter or related
equipment, the condition so existing. A person who tampers with such a
device or equipment without the consent of the supplier of the service
is presumed to do so with intent to avoid, or to enable another to
avoid, payment for the service involved; or
7. He knowingly accepts or receives the use and benefit of service,
including gas, steam or electricity service, which should pass through a
meter but has been diverted therefrom, or which has been prevented from
being correctly registered by a meter provided therefor, or which has
been diverted from the pipes, wires or conductors of the supplier
thereof. In any prosecution under this subdivision proof that service
has been intentionally diverted from passing through a meter, or has
been intentionally prevented from being correctly registered by a meter
provided therefor, or has been intentionally diverted from the pipes,
wires or conductors of the supplier thereof, shall be presumptive
evidence that the person who accepts or receives the use and benefit of
such service has done so with knowledge of the condition so existing; or
8. With intent to obtain, without the consent of the supplier thereof,
gas, electricity, water, steam or telephone service, he tampers with any
equipment designed to supply or to prevent the supply of such service
either to the community in general or to particular premises; or
9. With intent to avoid payment of the lawful charge for admission to
any theatre or concert hall, or with intent to avoid payment of the
lawful charge for admission to or use of a chair lift, gondola, rope-tow
or similar mechanical device utilized in assisting skiers in
transportation to a point of ski arrival or departure, he obtains or
attempts to obtain such admission without payment of the lawful charge
therefor.
10. Obtaining or having control over labor in the employ of another
person, or of business, commercial or industrial equipment or facilities
of another person, knowing that he is not entitled to the use thereof,
and with intent to derive a commercial or other substantial benefit for
himself or a third person, he uses or diverts to the use of himself or a
third person such labor, equipment or facilities.
11. With intent to avoid payment by himself, herself, or another
person of the lawful charge for use of any computer, computer service,
or computer network which is provided for a charge or compensation he or
she uses, causes to be used, accesses, or attempts to use or access a
computer, computer service, or computer network and avoids or attempts
to avoid payment therefor. In any prosecution under this subdivision
proof that a person overcame or attempted to overcome any device or
coding system a function of which is to prevent the unauthorized use of
said computer or computer service shall be presumptive evidence of an
intent to avoid payment for the computer or computer service.
12. With intent to avoid payment for services rendered by a
barbershop, salon or beauty shop, he or she avoids or attempts to avoid
such payment by unjustifiable failure or refusal to pay, by stealth, or
by any misrepresentation of fact which he or she knows to be false.
Theft of services is a class A misdemeanor, provided, however, that
theft of cable television service as defined by the provisions of
paragraphs (a), (c) and (d) of subdivision four of this section, and
having a value not in excess of one hundred dollars by a person who has
not been previously convicted of theft of services under subdivision
four of this section is a violation, that theft of services under
subdivision nine of this section by a person who has not been previously
convicted of theft of services under subdivision nine of this section is
a violation, that theft of services under subdivision twelve of this
section by a person who has not previously been convicted of theft of
services under subdivision twelve of this section is a violation, and
provided further, however, that theft of services of any telephone
service under paragraph (a) or (b) of subdivision five of this section
having a value in excess of one thousand dollars or by a person who has
been previously convicted within five years of theft of services under
paragraph (a) of subdivision five of this section is a class E felony.
Unauthorized sale of certain transportation services.
1. A person is guilty of unauthorized sale of certain transportation
services when, with intent to avoid payment by another person to the
metropolitan transportation authority, New York city transit authority
or a subsidiary or affiliate of either such authority of the lawful
charge for transportation services on a railroad, subway, bus or mass
transit service operated by either such authority or a subsidiary or
affiliate thereof, he or she, in exchange for value, sells access to
such transportation services to such person, without authorization,
through the use of an unlimited farecard or doctored farecard. This
section shall apply only to such sales that occur in a transportation
facility, as such term is defined in subdivision two of section 240.00
of this chapter, operated by such metropolitan transportation authority,
New York city transit authority or subsidiary or affiliate of such
authority, when public notice of the prohibitions of its section and the
exemptions thereto appears on the face of the farecard or is
conspicuously posted in transportation facilities operated by such
metropolitan transportation authority, New York city transit authority
or such subsidiary or affiliate of such authority.
2. It shall be a defense to a prosecution under this section that a
person, firm, partnership, corporation, or association: (a) selling a
farecard containing value, other than a doctored farecard, relinquished
all rights and privileges thereto upon consummation of the sale; or (b)
sold access to transportation services through the use of a farecard,
other than a doctored farecard, when such sale was made at the request
of the purchaser as an accommodation to the purchaser at a time when a
farecard was not immediately available to the purchaser, provided,
however, that the seller lawfully acquired the farecard and did not, by
means of an unlawful act, contribute to the circumstances that caused
the purchaser to make such request.
3. For purposes of this section:
(a) "farecard" means a value-based, magnetically encoded card
containing stored monetary value from which a specified amount of value
is deducted as payment of a fare;
(b) "unlimited farecard" means a farecard that is time-based,
magnetically encoded and which permits entrance an unlimited number of
times into facilities and conveyances for a specified period of time;
and
(c) "doctored farecard" means a farecard that has been bent or
manipulated or altered so as to facilitate a person's access to
transportation services without paying the lawful charge.
Unauthorized sale of transportation service is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawful use of credit card, debit card or public benefit card.
A person is guilty of unlawful use of credit card, debit card or
public benefit card when in the course of obtaining or attempting to
obtain property or a service, he uses or displays a credit card, debit
card or public benefit card which he knows to be revoked or cancelled.
Unlawful use of a credit card, debit card or public benefit card is a
class A misdemeanor.
Fraudulently obtaining a signature.
A person is guilty of fraudulently obtaining a signature when, with
intent to defraud or injure another or to acquire a substantial benefit
for himself or a third person, he obtains the signature of a person to a
written instrument by means of any misrepresentation of fact which he
knows to be false.
Fraudulently obtaining a signature is a class A misdemeanor.
Jostling.
A person is guilty of jostling when, in a public place, he
intentionally and unnecessarily:
1. Places his hand in the proximity of a person's pocket or handbag;
or
2. Jostles or crowds another person at a time when a third person's
hand is in the proximity of such person's pocket or handbag.
Jostling is a class A misdemeanor.
Fraudulent accosting.
1. A person is guilty of fraudulent accosting when he accosts a person
in a public place with intent to defraud him of money or other property
by means of a trick, swindle or confidence game.
2. A person who, either at the time he accosts another in a public
place or at some subsequent time or at some other place, makes
statements to him or engages in conduct with respect to him of a kind
commonly made or performed in the perpetration of a known type of
confidence game, is presumed to intend to defraud such person of money
or other property.
Fraudulent accosting is a class A misdemeanor.
Fortune telling.
A person is guilty of fortune telling when, for a fee or compensation
which he directly or indirectly solicits or receives, he claims or
pretends to tell fortunes, or holds himself out as being able, by
claimed or pretended use of occult powers, to answer questions or give
advice on personal matters or to exorcise, influence or affect evil
spirits or curses; except that this section does not apply to a person
who engages in the aforedescribed conduct as part of a show or
exhibition solely for the purpose of entertainment or amusement.
Fortune telling is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of stolen property in the
fifth degree when he knowingly possesses stolen property, with intent to
benefit himself or a person other than an owner thereof or to impede the
recovery by an owner thereof.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the fifth degree is a class
A misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of stolen property in the
fourth degree when he knowingly possesses stolen property, with intent
to benefit himself or a person other than an owner thereof or to impede
the recovery by an owner thereof, and when:
1. The value of the property exceeds one thousand dollars; or
2. The property consists of a credit card, debit card or public
benefit card; or
3. He is a collateral loan broker or is in the business of buying,
selling or otherwise dealing in property; or
4. The property consists of one or more firearms, rifles and shotguns,
as such terms are defined in section 265.00 of this chapter; or
5. The value of the property exceeds one hundred dollars and the
property consists of a motor vehicle, as defined in section one hundred
twenty-five of the vehicle and traffic law, other than a motorcycle, as
defined in section one hundred twenty-three of such law; or
6. The property consists of a scroll, religious vestment, vessel or
other item of property having a value of at least one hundred dollars
kept for or used in connection with religious worship in any building or
structure used as a place of religious worship by a religious
corporation, as incorporated under the religious corporations law or the
education law.
7. The property consists of anhydrous ammonia or liquified ammonia gas
and the actor intends to use, or knows another person intends to use,
such anhydrous ammonia or liquified ammonia gas to manufacture
methamphetamine.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the fourth degree is a class
E felony.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of stolen property in the
third degree when he knowingly possesses stolen property, with intent to
benefit himself or a person other than an owner thereof or to impede the
recovery by an owner thereof, and when the value of the property exceeds
three thousand dollars.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the third degree is a class
D felony.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of stolen property in the
second degree when he knowingly possesses stolen property, with intent
to benefit himself or a person other than an owner thereof or to impede
the recovery by an owner thereof, and when the value of the property
exceeds fifty thousand dollars.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the second degree is a class
C felony.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of stolen property in the
first degree when he knowingly possesses stolen property, with intent to
benefit himself or a person other than an owner thereof or to impede the
recovery by an owner, and when the value of the property exceeds one
million dollars.
Criminal possession of stolen property in the first degree is a class
B felony.
Criminal possession of stolen property; presumptions.
1. A person who knowingly possesses stolen property is presumed to
possess it with intent to benefit himself or a person other than an
owner thereof or to impede the recovery by an owner thereof.
2. A collateral loan broker or a person in the business of buying,
selling or otherwise dealing in property who possesses stolen property
is presumed to know that such property was stolen if he obtained it
without having ascertained by reasonable inquiry that the person from
whom he obtained it had a legal right to possess it.
3. A person who possesses two or more stolen credit cards, debit cards
or public benefit cards is presumed to know that such credit cards,
debit cards or public benefit cards were stolen.
4. A person who possesses three or more tickets or equivalent
instrument for air transportation service, which tickets or instruments
were stolen by reason of having been obtained from the issuer or agent
thereof by the use of one or more stolen or forged credit cards, is
presumed to know that such tickets or instruments were stolen.
Criminal possession of stolen property; no defense.
In any prosecution for criminal possession of stolen property, it is
no defense that:
1. The person who stole the property has not been convicted,
apprehended or identified; or
2. The defendant stole or participated in the larceny of the property;
or
3. The larceny of the property did not occur in this state.
Criminal possession of stolen property; corroboration.
1. A person charged with criminal possession of stolen property who
participated in the larceny thereof may not be convicted of criminal
possession of such stolen property solely upon the testimony of an
accomplice in the larceny unsupported by corroborative evidence tending
to connect the defendant with such criminal possession.
2. Unless inconsistent with the provisions of subdivision one of this
section, a person charged with criminal possession of stolen property
may be convicted thereof solely upon the testimony of one from whom he
obtained such property or solely upon the testimony of one to whom he
disposed of such property.
Fostering the sale of stolen goods.
A person is guilty of fostering the sale of stolen goods when such
person, for the purposes of financial gain, acting alone or in concert
with another person or persons:
1. Uses any internet website, application, online marketplace, digital
service, or any other platform or venue, including any physical
building, public or private space, or location to offer for sale retail
goods or merchandise which are stolen or unlawfully obtained; and
2. Knew or should have known that such retail goods or merchandise
were stolen or unlawfully obtained.
Fostering the sale of stolen goods is a class A misdemeanor.
Definitions.
As used in sections 165.71, 165.72, 165.73 and 165.74, the following
terms have the following definitions:
1. The term "trademark" means (a) any word, name, symbol, or device,
or any combination thereof adopted and used by a person to identify
goods made by a person and which distinguish them from those
manufactured or sold by others which is in use and which is registered,
filed or recorded under the laws of this state or of any other state or
is registered in the principal register of the United States patent and
trademark office; or (b) the symbol of the International Olympic
Committee, consisting of five interlocking rings; the emblem of the
United States Olympic Committee, consisting of an escutcheon having a
blue chief and vertically extending red and white bars on the base with
five interlocking rings displayed on the chief; any trademark, trade
name, sign, symbol, or insignia falsely representing association with,
or authorization by, the International Olympic Committee or the United
States Olympic Committee; or the words "Olympic", "Olympiad", "Citius
Altius Fortius", or any combination thereof tending to cause confusion,
to cause mistake, to deceive, or to falsely suggest a connection with
the United States Olympic Committee or any International Olympic
Committee or United States Olympic Committee activity.
2. The term "counterfeit trademark" means a spurious trademark or an
imitation of a trademark that is:
(a) used in connection with trafficking in goods; and
(b) used in connection with the sale, offering for sale or
distribution of goods that are identical with or substantially
indistinguishable from a trademark as defined in subdivision one of this
section.
The term "counterfeit trademark" does not include any mark used in
connection with goods for which the person using such mark was
authorized to use the trademark for the type of goods so manufactured or
produced by the holder of the right to use such mark or designation,
whether or not such goods were manufactured or produced in the United
States or in another country, and does not include imitations of trade
dress or packaging such as color, shape and the like unless those
features have been registered as trademarks as defined in subdivision
one of this section.
3. The term "traffic" means to transport, transfer, or otherwise
dispose of, to another, as consideration for anything of value, or to
obtain control of with intent to so transport, transfer, or otherwise
dispose of.
4. The term "goods" means any products, services, objects, materials,
devices or substances which are identified by the use of a trademark.
Trademark counterfeiting in the third degree.
A person is guilty of trademark counterfeiting in the third degree
when, with the intent to deceive or defraud some other person or with
the intent to evade a lawful restriction on the sale, resale, offering
for sale, or distribution of goods, he or she manufactures, distributes,
sells, or offers for sale goods which bear a counterfeit trademark, or
possesses a trademark knowing it to be counterfeit for the purpose of
affixing it to any goods.
Trademark counterfeiting in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Trademark counterfeiting in the second degree.
A person is guilty of trademark counterfeiting in the second degree
when, with the intent to deceive or defraud some other person or with
the intent to evade a lawful restriction on the sale, resale, offering
for sale, or distribution of goods, he or she manufactures, distributes,
sells, or offers for sale goods which bear a counterfeit trademark, or
possesses a trademark knowing it to be counterfeit for the purpose of
affixing it to any goods, and the retail value of all such goods bearing
counterfeit trademarks exceeds one thousand dollars.
Trademark counterfeiting in the second degree is a class E felony.
Trademark counterfeiting in the first degree.
A person is guilty of trademark counterfeiting in the first degree
when, with the intent to deceive or defraud some other person, or with
the intent to evade a lawful restriction on the sale, resale, offering
for sale, or distribution of goods, he or she manufactures, distributes,
sells, or offers for sale goods which bear a counterfeit trademark, or
possesses a trademark knowing it to be counterfeit for the purpose of
affixing it to any goods, and the retail value of all such goods bearing
counterfeit trademarks exceeds one hundred thousand dollars.
Trademark counterfeiting in the first degree is a class C felony.
Seizure and distribution or destruction of goods bearing
counterfeit trademarks.
Any goods manufactured, sold, offered for sale, distributed or
produced in violation of this article may be seized by any police
officer. The magistrate must, within forty-eight hours after arraignment
of the defendant, determine whether probable cause exists to believe
that the goods had been manufactured, sold, offered for sale,
distributed or produced in violation of this article, and upon a finding
that probable cause exists to believe that the goods had been
manufactured, sold, offered for sale, distributed, or produced in
violation of this article, the court shall authorize such articles to be
retained as evidence pending the trial of the defendant. Upon conviction
of the defendant, the articles in respect whereof the defendant stands
convicted shall be destroyed or donated. Destruction shall not include
auction, sale or distribution of the items in their original form.
Donation of the items shall be made at the court's discretion upon the
request of any law enforcement agency and pursuant to the restrictions
and procedures of section three hundred sixty-m of the general business
law, for the benefit of indigent individuals.
TITLE K Offenses Involving Fraud
ARTICLE 170 Forgery and Related Offenses
Forgery; definitions of terms.
1. "Written instrument" means any instrument or article, including
computer data or a computer program, containing written or printed
matter or the equivalent thereof, used for the purpose of reciting,
embodying, conveying or recording information, or constituting a symbol
or evidence of value, right, privilege or identification, which is
capable of being used to the advantage or disadvantage of some person.
For the purposes of this article, a card provided to a person by a
vaccine provider indicating the date a person received a vaccination
against COVID-19, the type of vaccine and its lot number, and bearing a
government logo or other indication that it is created by a governmental
instrumentality, shall be considered a written instrument.
2. "Complete written instrument" means one which purports to be a
genuine written instrument fully drawn with respect to every essential
feature thereof. An endorsement, attestation, acknowledgment or other
similar signature or statement is deemed both a complete written
instrument in itself and a part of the main instrument in which it is
contained or to which it attaches.
3. "Incomplete written instrument" means one which contains some
matter by way of content or authentication but which requires additional
matter in order to render it a complete written instrument.
4. "Falsely make." A person "falsely makes" a written instrument when
he makes or draws a complete written instrument in its entirety, or an
incomplete written instrument, which purports to be an authentic
creation of its ostensible maker or drawer, but which is not such either
because the ostensible maker or drawer is fictitious or because, if
real, he did not authorize the making or drawing thereof.
5. "Falsely complete." A person "falsely completes" a written
instrument when, by adding, inserting or changing matter, he transforms
an incomplete written instrument into a complete one, without the
authority of anyone entitled to grant it, so that such complete
instrument appears or purports to be in all respects an authentic
creation of or fully authorized by its ostensible maker or drawer.
6. "Falsely alter." A person "falsely alters" a written instrument
when, without the authority of anyone entitled to grant it, he changes a
written instrument, whether it be in complete or incomplete form, by
means of erasure, obliteration, deletion, insertion of new matter,
transposition of matter, or in any other manner, so that such instrument
in its thus altered form appears or purports to be in all respects an
authentic creation of or fully authorized by its ostensible maker or
drawer.
7. "Forged instrument" means a written instrument which has been
falsely made, completed or altered.
8. "Electronic access device" means a mobile identification number or
electronic serial number that can be used to obtain telephone service.
Forgery in the third degree.
A person is guilty of forgery in the third degree when, with intent to
defraud, deceive or injure another, he falsely makes, completes or
alters a written instrument.
Forgery in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Forgery in the second degree.
A person is guilty of forgery in the second degree when, with intent
to defraud, deceive or injure another, he falsely makes, completes or
alters a written instrument which is or purports to be, or which is
calculated to become or to represent if completed:
1. A deed, will, codicil, contract, assignment, commercial instrument,
credit card, as that term is defined in subdivision seven of section
155.00, or other instrument which does or may evidence, create,
transfer, terminate or otherwise affect a legal right, interest,
obligation or status; or
2. A public record, or an instrument filed or required or authorized
by law to be filed in or with a public office or public servant; or
3. A written instrument officially issued or created by a public
office, public servant or governmental instrumentality; or
4. Part of an issue of tokens, public transportation transfers,
certificates or other articles manufactured and designed for use as
symbols of value usable in place of money for the purchase of property
or services; or
5. A prescription of a duly licensed physician or other person
authorized to issue the same for any drug or any instrument or device
used in the taking or administering of drugs for which a prescription is
required by law.
Forgery in the second degree is a class D felony.
Forgery in the first degree.
A person is guilty of forgery in the first degree when, with intent to
defraud, deceive or injure another, he falsely makes, completes or
alters a written instrument which is or purports to be, or which is
calculated to become or to represent if completed:
1. Part of an issue of money, stamps, securities or other valuable
instruments issued by a government or governmental instrumentality; or
2. Part of an issue of stock, bonds or other instruments representing
interests in or claims against a corporate or other organization or its
property.
Forgery in the first degree is a class C felony.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a forged instrument in
the third degree when, with knowledge that it is forged and with intent
to defraud, deceive or injure another, he utters or possesses a forged
instrument.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the third degree is a
class A misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a forged instrument in
the second degree when, with knowledge that it is forged and with intent
to defraud, deceive or injure another, he utters or possesses any forged
instrument of a kind specified in section 170.10.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the second degree is a
class D felony.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the second
degree; presumption.
A person who possesses two or more forged instruments, each of which
purports to be a credit card or debit card, as those terms are defined
in subdivisions seven and seven-a of section 155.00, is presumed to
possess the same with knowledge that they are forged and with intent to
defraud, deceive or injure another.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a forged instrument in
the first degree when, with knowledge that it is forged and with intent
to defraud, deceive or injure another, he utters or possesses any forged
instrument of a kind specified in section 170.15.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the first degree is a
class C felony.
Criminal possession of a forged instrument; no defense.
In any prosecution for criminal possession of a forged instrument, it
is no defense that the defendant forged or participated in the forgery
of the instrument in issue; provided that a person may not be convicted
of both criminal possession of a forged instrument and forgery with
respect to the same instrument.
Criminal possession of forgery devices.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of forgery devices when:
1. He makes or possesses with knowledge of its character any plate,
die or other device, apparatus, equipment, or article specifically
designed for use in counterfeiting or otherwise forging written
instruments; or
2. With intent to use, or to aid or permit another to use, the same
for purposes of forgery, he makes or possesses any device, apparatus,
equipment or article capable of or adaptable to such use.
Criminal possession of forgery devices is a class D felony.
Criminal simulation.
A person is guilty of criminal simulation when:
1. With intent to defraud, he makes or alters any object in such
manner that it appears to have an antiquity, rarity, source or
authorship which it does not in fact possess; or
2. With knowledge of its true character and with intent to defraud, he
utters or possesses an object so simulated.
Criminal simulation is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of an anti-security item.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of an anti-security item,
when with intent to steal property at a retail mercantile establishment
as defined in article twelve-B of the general business law, he knowingly
possesses in such an establishment an item designed for the purpose of
overcoming detection of security markings or attachments placed on
property offered for sale at such an establishment.
Criminal possession of an anti-security item is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawfully using slugs; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to sections 170.55 and
1. "Coin machine" means a coin box, turnstile, vending machine or
other mechanical or electronic device or receptacle designed (a) to
receive a coin or bill or a token made for the purpose, and (b) in
return for the insertion or deposit thereof, automatically to offer, to
provide, to assist in providing or to permit the acquisition of some
property or some service.
2. "Slug" means an object or article which, by virtue of its size,
shape or any other quality, is capable of being inserted or deposited in
a coin machine as an improper substitute for a genuine coin, bill or
token.
3. "Value" of a slug means the value of the coin, bill or token for
which it is capable of being substituted.
Unlawfully using slugs in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawfully using slugs in the second degree
when:
1. With intent to defraud the owner of a coin machine, he inserts or
deposits a slug in such machine; or
2. He makes, possesses or disposes of a slug with intent to enable a
person to insert or deposit it in a coin machine.
Unlawfully using slugs in the second degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawfully using slugs in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawfully using slugs in the first degree when
he makes, possesses or disposes of slugs with intent to enable a person
to insert or deposit them in a coin machine, and the value of such slugs
exceeds one hundred dollars.
Unlawfully using slugs in the first degree is a class E felony.
Forgery of a vehicle identification number.
A person is guilty of forgery of a vehicle identification number when:
(1) He knowingly destroys, covers, defaces, alters or otherwise
changes the form or appearance of a vehicle identification number on any
vehicle or component part thereof, except tires; or
(2) He removes any such number from a vehicle or component part
thereof, except as required by the provisions of the vehicle and traffic
law; or
(3) He affixes a vehicle identification number to a vehicle, except in
accordance with the provisions of the vehicle and traffic law.
(4) He or she, with intent to defraud, knowingly manufactures,
produces or reproduces a vehicle identification number label, sticker or
plate which was not manufactured, produced or reproduced in accordance
with the rules and regulations promulgated by the United States National
Highway Safety Administration and/or in accordance with the provisions
of the state vehicle and traffic law.
Forgery of a vehicle identification number is a class E felony.
Illegal possession of a vehicle identification number.
A person is guilty of illegal possession of a vehicle identification
number when:
(1) He knowingly possesses a vehicle identification number label,
sticker or plate which has been removed from the vehicle or vehicle part
to which such label, sticker or plate was affixed by the manufacturer in
accordance with 49 U.S.C. section 32101, et seq. and regulations
promulgated thereunder or in accordance with the provisions of the
vehicle and traffic law; or
(2) He knowingly possesses a vehicle or vehicle part to which is
attached a vehicle identification number label, sticker or plate or on
which is stamped or embossed a vehicle identification number which has
been destroyed, covered, defaced, altered or otherwise changed, or a
vehicle or vehicle part from which a vehicle identification number
label, sticker or plate has been removed, which label, sticker or plate
was affixed in accordance with 49 U.S.C. section 32101, et seq. or
regulations promulgated thereunder, except when he has complied with the
provisions of the vehicle and traffic law and regulations promulgated
thereunder; or
(3) He knowingly possesses a vehicle, or part of a vehicle to which by
law or regulation must be attached a vehicle identification number,
either (a) with a vehicle identification number label, sticker, or plate
which was not affixed by the manufacturer in accordance with 49 U.S.C.
section 32101, et seq. or regulations promulgated thereunder, or in
accordance with the provisions of the vehicle and traffic law or
regulations promulgated thereunder, or (b) on which is affixed, stamped
or embossed a vehicle identification number which was not affixed,
stamped or embossed by the manufacturer, or in accordance with 49 U.S.C.
section 32101, et seq. or regulations promulgated thereunder or in
accordance with the provisions of the vehicle and traffic law or
regulations promulgated thereunder.
Illegal possession of a vehicle identification number is a class E
felony.
Illegal possession of a vehicle identification number;
presumptions.
(1) A person is presumed to knowingly possess a vehicle or vehicle
part in violation of subdivision two of section 170.70, when he
possesses any combination of five such whole vehicles or individual
vehicle parts, none of which are attached to or contained in the same
vehicle.
(2) A person is presumed to knowingly possess a vehicle or vehicle
part in violation of subdivision three of section 170.70, when he
possesses any combination of five such whole vehicles or individual
vehicle parts, none of which are attached to or contained in the same
vehicle.
Fraudulent making of an electronic access device in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of fraudulent making of an electronic access device
in the second degree when, with intent to defraud, deceive or injure
another, he falsely makes, completes or alters two or more electronic
access devices, as that term is defined in subdivision eight of section
170.00 of this article.
Fraudulent making of an electronic access device in the second degree
is a class D felony.
ARTICLE 175 Offenses Involving False Written Statements
Definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Enterprise" means any entity of one or more persons, corporate or
otherwise, public or private, engaged in business, commercial,
professional, industrial, eleemosynary, social, political or
governmental activity.
2. "Business record" means any writing or article, including computer
data or a computer program, kept or maintained by an enterprise for the
purpose of evidencing or reflecting its condition or activity.
3. "Written instrument" means any instrument or article, including
computer data or a computer program, containing written or printed
matter or the equivalent thereof, used for the purpose of reciting,
embodying, conveying or recording information, or constituting a symbol
or evidence of value, right, privilege or identification, which is
capable of being used to the advantage or disadvantage of some person.
Falsifying business records in the second degree.
A person is guilty of falsifying business records in the second degree
when, with intent to defraud, he:
1. Makes or causes a false entry in the business records of an
enterprise; or
2. Alters, erases, obliterates, deletes, removes or destroys a true
entry in the business records of an enterprise; or
3. Omits to make a true entry in the business records of an enterprise
in violation of a duty to do so which he knows to be imposed upon him by
law or by the nature of his position; or
4. Prevents the making of a true entry or causes the omission thereof
in the business records of an enterprise.
Falsifying business records in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Falsifying business records in the first degree.
A person is guilty of falsifying business records in the first degree
when he commits the crime of falsifying business records in the second
degree, and when his intent to defraud includes an intent to commit
another crime or to aid or conceal the commission thereof.
Falsifying business records in the first degree is a class E felony.
Falsifying business records; defense.
In any prosecution for falsifying business records, it is an
affirmative defense that the defendant was a clerk, bookkeeper or other
employee who, without personal benefit, merely executed the orders of
his employer or of a superior officer or employee generally authorized
to direct his activities.
Tampering with public records in the second degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with public records in the second
degree when, knowing that he does not have the authority of anyone
entitled to grant it, he knowingly removes, mutilates, destroys,
conceals, makes a false entry in or falsely alters any record or other
written instrument filed with, deposited in, or otherwise constituting a
record of a public office or public servant.
Tampering with public records in the second degree is a Class A
misdemeanor.
Tampering with public records in the first degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with public records in the first
degree when, knowing that he does not have the authority of anyone
entitled to grant it, and with intent to defraud, he knowingly removes,
mutilates, destroys, conceals, makes a false entry in or falsely alters
any record or other written instrument filed with, deposited in, or
otherwise constituting a record of a public office or public servant.
Tampering with public records in the first degree is a class D felony.
Offering a false instrument for filing in the second degree.
A person is guilty of offering a false instrument for filing in the
second degree when, knowing that a written instrument contains a false
statement or false information, he offers or presents it to a public
office or public servant with the knowledge or belief that it will be
filed with, registered or recorded in or otherwise become a part of the
records of such public office or public servant.
Offering a false instrument for filing in the second degree is a class
A misdemeanor.
Offering a false instrument for filing in the first degree.
A person is guilty of offering a false instrument for filing in the
first degree when:
1. knowing that a written instrument contains a false statement or
false information, and with intent to defraud the state or any political
subdivision, public authority or public benefit corporation of the
state, he or she offers or presents it to a public office, public
servant, public authority or public benefit corporation with the
knowledge or belief that it will be filed with, registered or recorded
in or otherwise become a part of the records of such public office,
public servant, public authority or public benefit corporation; or
2. (a) he or she commits the crime of offering a false instrument for
filing in the second degree; and
(b) such instrument is a financing statement the contents of which are
prescribed by section 9--502 of the uniform commercial code, the
collateral asserted to be covered in such statement is the property of a
person who is a state or local officer as defined by section two of the
public officers law or who otherwise is a judge or justice of the
unified court system, such financing statement does not relate to an
actual transaction, and he or she filed such financing statement in
retaliation for the performance of official duties by such person.
Offering a false instrument for filing in the first degree is a class
E felony.
Issuing a false certificate.
A person is guilty of issuing a false certificate when, being a public
servant authorized by law to make or issue official certificates or
other official written instruments, and with intent to defraud, deceive
or injure another person, he issues such an instrument, or makes the
same with intent that it be issued, knowing that it contains a false
statement or false information.
Issuing a false certificate is a class E felony.
Issuing a false financial statement.
A person is guilty of issuing a false financial statement when, with
intent to defraud:
1. He knowingly makes or utters a written instrument which purports to
describe the financial condition or ability to pay of some person and
which is inaccurate in some material respect; or
2. He represents in writing that a written instrument purporting to
describe a person's financial condition or ability to pay as of a prior
date is accurate with respect to such person's current financial
condition or ability to pay, whereas he knows it is materially
inaccurate in that respect.
Issuing a false financial statement is a class A misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 176 Insurance Fraud
Insurance fraud; definition of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Insurance policy" has the meaning assigned to insurance contract
by subsection (a) of section one thousand one hundred one of the
insurance law except it shall include reinsurance contracts, purported
insurance policies and purported reinsurance contracts.
2. "Statement" includes, but is not limited to, any notice, proof of
loss, bill of lading, invoice, account, estimate of property damages,
bill for services, diagnosis, prescription, hospital or doctor records,
x-ray, test result, and other evidence of loss, injury or expense.
3. "Person" includes any individual, firm, association or corporation.
4. "Personal insurance" means a policy of insurance insuring a natural
person against any of the following contingencies:
(a) loss of or damage to real property used predominantly for
residential purposes and which consists of not more than four dwelling
units, other than hotels, motels and rooming houses;
(b) loss of or damage to personal property which is not used in the
conduct of a business;
(c) losses or liabilities arising out of the ownership, operation, or
use of a motor vehicle, predominantly used for non-business purposes;
(d) other liabilities for loss of, damage to, or injury to persons or
property, not arising from the conduct of a business;
(e) death, including death by personal injury, or the continuation of
life, or personal injury by accident, or sickness, disease or ailment,
excluding insurance providing disability benefits pursuant to article
nine of the workers' compensation law.
A policy of insurance which insures any of the contingencies listed in
paragraphs (a) through (e) of this subdivision as well as other
contingencies shall be personal insurance if that portion of the annual
premium attributable to the listed contingencies exceeds that portion
attributable to other contingencies.
5. "Commercial insurance" means insurance other than personal
insurance, and shall also include insurance providing disability
benefits pursuant to article nine of the workers' compensation law,
insurance providing workers' compensation benefits pursuant to the
provisions of the workers' compensation law and any program of self
insurance providing similar benefits.
Insurance fraud; defined.
1. A fraudulent insurance act is committed by any person who,
knowingly and with intent to defraud presents, causes to be presented,
or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be presented to or by
an insurer, self insurer, or purported insurer, or purported self
insurer, or any agent thereof:
(a) any written statement as part of, or in support of, an application
for the issuance of, or the rating of a commercial insurance policy, or
certificate or evidence of self insurance for commercial insurance or
commercial self insurance, or a claim for payment or other benefit
pursuant to an insurance policy or self insurance program for commercial
or personal insurance that such person knows to:
(i) contain materially false information concerning any fact material
thereto; or
(ii) conceal, for the purpose of misleading, information concerning
any fact material thereto; or
(b) any written statement or other physical evidence as part of, or in
support of, an application for the issuance of a health insurance
policy, or a policy or contract or other authorization that provides or
allows coverage for, membership or enrollment in, or other services of a
public or private health plan, or a claim for payment, services or other
benefit pursuant to such policy, contract or plan that such person knows
to:
(i) contain materially false information concerning any material fact
thereto; or
(ii) conceal, for the purpose of misleading, information concerning
any fact material thereto.
Such policy or contract or plan or authorization shall include, but
not be limited to, those issued or operating pursuant to any public or
governmentally-sponsored or supported plan for health care coverage or
services or those otherwise issued or operated by entities authorized
pursuant to the public health law. For purposes of this subdivision an
"application for the issuance of a health insurance policy" shall not
include (i) any application for a health insurance policy or contract
approved by the superintendent of financial services pursuant to the
provisions of sections three thousand two hundred sixteen, four thousand
three hundred four, four thousand three hundred twenty-one or four
thousand three hundred twenty-two of the insurance law or any other
application for a health insurance policy or contract approved by the
superintendent of financial services in the individual or direct payment
market; or (ii) any application for a certificate evidencing coverage
under a self-insured plan or under a group contract approved by the
superintendent of financial services.
2. A person who hires, requests, encourages, orchestrates, or invites
another individual to stage a motor vehicle accident, as that term is
defined in section 176.75 of this article, commits a fraudulent
insurance act, and the person who hired, requested, encouraged,
orchestrated, or invited the other to stage a motor vehicle accident
shall be deemed to have wrongfully taken, obtained, or withheld the full
amount of loss to the victim or victims of the fraudulent insurance act.
Insurance fraud in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of insurance fraud in the fifth degree when he
commits a fraudulent insurance act.
Insurance fraud in the fifth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Insurance fraud in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of insurance fraud in the fourth degree when he
commits a fraudulent insurance act and thereby wrongfully takes, obtains
or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take, obtain or withhold
property with a value in excess of one thousand dollars.
Insurance fraud in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Insurance fraud in the third degree.
A person is guilty of insurance fraud in the third degree when he
commits a fraudulent insurance act and thereby wrongfully takes, obtains
or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take, obtain or withhold
property with a value in excess of three thousand dollars.
Insurance fraud in the third degree is a class D felony.
Insurance fraud in the second degree.
A person is guilty of insurance fraud in the second degree when he
commits a fraudulent insurance act and thereby wrongfully takes, obtains
or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take, obtain or withhold
property with a value in excess of fifty thousand dollars.
Insurance fraud in the second degree is a class C felony.
Insurance fraud in the first degree.
A person is guilty of insurance fraud in the first degree when he
commits a fraudulent insurance act and thereby wrongfully takes, obtains
or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take, obtain or withhold
property with a value in excess of one million dollars.
Insurance fraud in the first degree is a class B felony.
Aggravated insurance fraud.
A person is guilty of aggravated insurance fraud in the fourth degree
when he commits a fraudulent insurance act, and has been previously
convicted within the preceding five years of any offense, an essential
element of which is the commission of a fraudulent insurance act.
Aggravated insurance fraud in the fourth degree is a class D felony.
Fraudulent life settlement act; defined.
A fraudulent life settlement act is committed by any person who,
knowingly and with intent to defraud, presents, causes to be presented,
or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be presented to, or
by, a life settlement provider, life settlement broker, life settlement
intermediary, or any agent thereof, or to any owner any written
statement or other physical evidence as part of, or in support of, an
application for a life settlement contract, a claim for payment or other
benefit under a life settlement contract, which the person knows to:
(1) contain materially false information concerning any material fact
thereto; or
(2) conceal, for the purpose of misleading, information concerning any
fact material thereto.
Life settlement fraud in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of life settlement fraud in the fifth degree when
he or she commits a fraudulent life settlement act.
Life settlement fraud in the fifth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Life settlement fraud in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of life settlement fraud in the fourth degree when
he or she commits a fraudulent life settlement act and thereby
wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take,
obtain or withhold property with a value in excess of twenty-five
thousand dollars.
Life settlement fraud in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Life settlement fraud in the third degree.
A person is guilty of life settlement fraud in the third degree when
he or she commits a fraudulent life settlement act and thereby
wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take,
obtain or withhold property with a value in excess of fifty thousand
dollars.
Life settlement fraud in the third degree is a class D felony.
Life settlement fraud in the second degree.
A person is guilty of life settlement fraud in the second degree when
he or she commits a fraudulent life settlement act and thereby
wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take,
obtain or withhold property with a value in excess of one hundred
thousand dollars.
Life settlement fraud in the second degree is a class C felony.
Life settlement fraud in the first degree.
A person is guilty of life settlement fraud in the first degree when
he or she commits a fraudulent life settlement act and thereby
wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds, or attempts to wrongfully take,
obtain or withhold property with a value in excess of one million
dollars.
Life settlement fraud in the first degree is a class B felony.
Aggravated life settlement fraud.
A person is guilty of aggravated life settlement fraud when he or she
commits a fraudulent life settlement act, and has been previously
convicted within the preceding five years of any offense, an essential
element of which is the commission of a fraudulent life settlement act.
Aggravated life settlement fraud is a class D felony.
Staging a motor vehicle accident in the second degree.
A person is guilty of staging a motor vehicle accident in the second
degree when, with intent to commit and in furtherance of a fraudulent
insurance act, he or she operates a motor vehicle and intentionally
causes a collision involving a motor vehicle.
Staging a motor vehicle accident in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Staging a motor vehicle accident in the first degree.
A person is guilty of staging a motor vehicle accident in the first
degree when he or she commits the offense of staging a motor vehicle
accident in the second degree and thereby causes serious physical injury
or death to another person, other than a participant in such offense.
Staging a motor vehicle accident in the first degree is a class D
felony.
ARTICLE 177 Health Care Fraud
Definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Health plan" means any publicly or privately funded health
insurance or managed care plan or contract, under which any health care
item or service is provided, and through which payment may be made to
the person who provided the health care item or service. The state's
medical assistance program (Medicaid) shall be considered a single
health plan. For purposes of this article, a payment made pursuant to
the state's managed care program as defined in paragraph (c) of
subdivision one of section three hundred sixty-four-j of the social
services law shall be deemed a payment by the state's medical assistance
program (Medicaid).
2. "Person" means any individual or entity, other than a recipient of
a health care item or service under a health plan unless such recipient
acts as an accessory to such an individual or entity.
Health care fraud in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of health care fraud in the fifth degree when, with
intent to defraud a health plan, he or she knowingly and willfully
provides materially false information or omits material information for
the purpose of requesting payment from a health plan for a health care
item or service and, as a result of such information or omission, he or
she or another person receives payment in an amount that he, she or such
other person is not entitled to under the circumstances.
Health care fraud in the fifth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Health care fraud in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of health care fraud in the fourth degree when such
person, on one or more occasions, commits the crime of health care fraud
in the fifth degree and the payment or portion of the payment wrongfully
received, as the case may be, from a single health plan, in a period of
not more than one year, exceeds three thousand dollars in the aggregate.
Health care fraud in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Health care fraud in the third degree.
A person is guilty of health care fraud in the third degree when such
person, on one or more occasions, commits the crime of health care fraud
in the fifth degree and the payment or portion of the payment wrongfully
received, as the case may be, from a single health plan, in a period of
not more than one year, exceeds ten thousand dollars in the aggregate.
Health care fraud in the third degree is a class D felony.
Health care fraud in the second degree.
A person is guilty of health care fraud in the second degree when such
person, on one or more occasions, commits the crime of health care fraud
in the fifth degree and the payment or portion of the payment wrongfully
received, as the case may be, from a single health plan, in a period of
not more than one year, exceeds fifty thousand dollars in the aggregate.
Health care fraud in the second degree is a class C felony.
Health care fraud in the first degree.
A person is guilty of health care fraud in the first degree when such
person, on one or more occasions, commits the crime of health care fraud
in the fifth degree and the payment or portion of the payment wrongfully
received, as the case may be, from a single health plan, in a period of
not more than one year, exceeds one million dollars in the aggregate.
Health care fraud in the first degree is a class B felony.
Health care fraud; affirmative defense.
In any prosecution under this article, it shall be an affirmative
defense that the defendant was a clerk, bookkeeper or other employee,
other than an employee charged with the active management and control,
in an executive capacity, of the affairs of the corporation, who,
without personal benefit, merely executed the orders of his or her
employer or of a superior employee generally authorized to direct his or
her activities.
ARTICLE 178 Criminal Diversion of Prescription Medications and Prescriptions
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions; definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Prescription medication or device" means any article for which a
prescription is required in order to be lawfully sold, delivered or
distributed by any person authorized by law to engage in the practice of
the profession of pharmacy.
2. "Prescription" means a direction or authorization by means of a
written prescription form or an oral prescription which permits a person
to lawfully obtain a prescription medication or device from any person
authorized to dispense such prescription medication or device.
3. "Criminal diversion act" means an act or acts in which a person
knowingly:
(a) transfers or delivers, in exchange for anything of pecuniary
value, a prescription medication or device with knowledge or reasonable
grounds to know that the recipient has no medical need for it; or
(b) receives, in exchange for anything of pecuniary value, a
prescription medication or device with knowledge or reasonable grounds
to know that the seller or transferor is not authorized by law to sell
or transfer such prescription medication or device; or
(c) transfers or delivers a prescription in exchange for anything of
pecuniary value; or
(d) receives a prescription in exchange for anything of pecuniary
value.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions; limitation.
1. The provisions of this article shall not apply to:
(a) a duly licensed physician or other person authorized to issue a
prescription acting in good faith in the lawful course of his or her
profession; or
(b) a duly licensed pharmacist acting in good faith in the lawful
course of the practice of pharmacy; or
(c) a person acting in good faith seeking treatment for a medical
condition or assisting another person to obtain treatment for a medical
condition.
2. No provision of this article relating to the sale of a prescription
medication or device shall be deemed to authorize any act prohibited by
article thirty-three of the public health law or article two hundred
twenty of this chapter.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the fourth degree when he or she commits a criminal
diversion act.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and prescriptions in
the fourth degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the third degree when he or she:
1. commits a criminal diversion act, and the value of the benefit
exchanged is in excess of one thousand dollars; or
2. commits the crime of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the fourth degree, and has previously been
convicted of the crime of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the fourth degree.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and prescriptions in
the third degree is a class E felony.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the second degree when he or she commits a criminal
diversion act, and the value of the benefit exchanged is in excess of
three thousand dollars.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and prescriptions in
the second degree is a class D felony.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and
prescriptions in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of prescription medications
and prescriptions in the first degree when he or she commits a criminal
diversion act, and the value of the benefit exchanged is in excess of
fifty thousand dollars.
Criminal diversion of prescription medications and prescriptions in
the first degree is a class C felony.
Fraud and deceit related to controlled substances.
1. No person shall willfully:
(a) obtain or attempt to obtain a controlled substance, a prescription
for a controlled substance or an official New York state prescription
form,
(i) by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation or subterfuge; or
(ii) by the concealment of a material fact; or
(iii) by the use of a false name or the giving of a false address;
(b) make a false statement in any prescription, order, application,
report or record required by article thirty-three of the public health
law;
(c) falsely assume the title of, or represent himself or herself to be
a licensed manufacturer, distributor, pharmacy, pharmacist,
practitioner, researcher, approved institutional dispenser, owner or
employee of a registered outsourcing facility or other authorized
person, for the purpose of obtaining a controlled substance as these
terms are defined in article thirty-three of the public health law;
(d) make or utter any false or forged prescription or false or forged
written order;
(e) affix any false or forged label to a package or receptacle
containing controlled substances; or
(f) imprint on or affix to any controlled substance a false or forged
code number or symbol.
2. Possession of a false or forged prescription for a controlled
substance by any person other than a pharmacist in the lawful pursuance
of his or her profession shall be presumptive evidence of his or her
intent to use the same for the purpose of illegally obtaining a
controlled substance.
3. Possession of a blank official New York state prescription form by
any person to whom it was not lawfully issued shall be presumptive
evidence of such person's intent to use same for the purpose of
illegally obtaining a controlled substance.
4. Any person who, in the course of treatment, is supplied with a
controlled substance or a prescription therefor by one practitioner and
who with the intent to deceive, intentionally withholds or intentionally
fails to disclose the fact, is supplied during such treatment with a
controlled substance or a prescription therefor by another practitioner
shall be guilty of a violation of this article.
5. The provisions of subdivision one of section thirty-three hundred
ninety-six of the public health law shall apply to this section.
Fraud and deceit related to controlled substances is a class A
misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 179 Criminal Diversion of Medical Marihuana
* § 179.00 Criminal diversion of medical cannabis; definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Medical cannabis" means medical cannabis as defined in section
three of the cannabis law.
2. "Certification" means a certification, made under section thirty of
the cannabis law.
* NB Repealed July 5, 2028
* § 179.05 Criminal diversion of medical cannabis; limitations.
The provisions of this article shall not apply to:
1. a practitioner authorized to issue a certification who acted in
good faith in the lawful course of his or her profession; or
2. a registered organization as that term is defined in section
thirty-four of the cannabis law who acted in good faith in the lawful
course of the practice of pharmacy; or
3. a person who acted in good faith seeking treatment for a medical
condition or assisting another person to obtain treatment for a medical
condition.
* NB Repealed July 5, 2028
* § 179.10 Criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the
first degree when he or she is a practitioner, as that term is defined
in section three of the cannabis law, who issues a certification with
knowledge of reasonable grounds to know that (i) the recipient has no
medical need for it, or (ii) it is for a purpose other than to treat a
condition as defined in section three of the cannabis law.
Criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the first degree is a class
E felony.
* NB Repealed July 5, 2028
* § 179.11 Criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the
second degree when he or she sells, trades, delivers, or otherwise
provides medical cannabis to another with knowledge or reasonable
grounds to know that the recipient is not registered under article three
of the cannabis law.
Criminal diversion of medical cannabis in the second degree is a class
B misdemeanor.
* NB Repealed July 5, 2028
* § 179.15 Criminal retention of medical cannabis.
A person is guilty of criminal retention of medical cannabis when,
being a certified patient or designated caregiver, as those terms are
defined in section three of the cannabis law, he or she knowingly
obtains, possesses, stores or maintains an amount of cannabis in excess
of the amount he or she is authorized to possess under the provisions of
article three of the cannabis law.
Criminal retention of medical cannabis shall be punishable as provided
in section 222.25 of this chapter.
* NB Repealed July 5, 2028
ARTICLE 180 Bribery Not Involving Public Servants, and Related Offenses
Commercial bribing in the second degree.
A person is guilty of commercial bribing in the second degree when he
confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon any employee,
agent or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or
principal, with intent to influence his conduct in relation to his
employer's or principal's affairs.
Commercial bribing in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Commercial bribing in the first degree.
A person is guilty of commercial bribing in the first degree when he
confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon any employee,
agent or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or
principal, with intent to influence his conduct in relation to his
employer's or principal's affairs, and when the value of the benefit
conferred or offered or agreed to be conferred exceeds one thousand
dollars and causes economic harm to the employer or principal in an
amount exceeding two hundred fifty dollars.
Commercial bribing in the first degree is a class E felony.
Commercial bribe receiving in the second degree.
An employee, agent or fiduciary is guilty of commercial bribe
receiving in the second degree when, without the consent of his employer
or principal, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from
another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will
influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's
affairs.
Commercial bribe receiving in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Commercial bribe receiving in the first degree.
An employee, agent or fiduciary is guilty of commercial bribe
receiving in the first degree when, without the consent of his employer
or principal, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from
another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will
influence his conduct in relation to his employer's or principal's
affairs, and when the value of the benefit solicited, accepted or agreed
to be accepted exceeds one thousand dollars and causes economic harm to
the employer or principal in an amount exceeding two hundred fifty
dollars.
Commercial bribe receiving in the first degree is a class E felony.
Bribery of labor official; definition of term.
As used in this article, "labor official" means any duly appointed
representative of a labor organization or any duly appointed trustee or
representative of an employee welfare trust fund.
Bribing a labor official.
A person is guilty of bribing a labor official when, with intent to
influence a labor official in respect to any of his acts, decisions or
duties as such labor official, he confers, or offers or agrees to
confer, any benefit upon him.
Bribing a labor official is a class D felony.
Bribing a labor official; defense.
In any prosecution for bribing a labor official, it is a defense that
the defendant conferred or agreed to confer the benefit involved upon
the labor official as a result of conduct of the latter constituting
larceny committed by means of extortion, or an attempt to commit the
same, or coercion, or an attempt to commit coercion.
Bribe receiving by a labor official.
A labor official is guilty of bribe receiving by a labor official when
he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another person
upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence him
in respect to any of his acts, decisions, or duties as such labor
official.
Bribe receiving by a labor official is a class D felony.
Bribe receiving by a labor official; no defense.
The crimes of (a) bribe receiving by a labor official, and (b) larceny
committed by means of extortion, attempt to commit the same, coercion or
attempt to commit coercion, are not mutually exclusive, and it is no
defense to a prosecution for bribe receiving by a labor official that,
by reason of the same conduct, the defendant also committed one of such
other specified crimes.
Sports bribery and tampering; definitions of terms.
As used in this article:
1. "Sports contest" means any professional or amateur sport or
athletic game or contest viewed by the public.
2. "Sports participant" means any person who participates or expects
to participate in a sports contest as a player, contestant or member of
a team, or as a coach, manager, trainer or other person directly
associated with a player, contestant or team.
3. "Sports official" means any person who acts or expects to act in a
sports contest as an umpire, referee, judge or otherwise to officiate at
a sports contest.
4. "Pari-mutuel betting" is such betting as is authorized under the
provisions of the pari-mutuel revenue law as set forth in chapter 254 of
the laws of 1940 with amendments.
5. "Pari-mutuel horse race" means any horse race upon which betting is
conducted under the provisions of the pari-mutuel revenue law as set
forth in chapter 254 of the laws of 1940.
Sports bribing.
A person is guilty of sports bribing when he:
1. Confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon a sports
participant with intent to influence him not to give his best efforts in
a sports contest; or
2. Confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon a sports
official with intent to influence him to perform his duties improperly.
Sports bribing is a class D felony.
Sports bribe receiving.
A person is guilty of sports bribe receiving when:
1. Being a sports participant, he solicits, accepts or agrees to
accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or
understanding that he will thereby be influenced not to give his best
efforts in a sports contest; or
2. Being a sports official, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept
any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that
he will perform his duties improperly.
Sports bribe receiving is a class E felony.
Tampering with a sports contest in the second degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a sports contest when, with
intent to influence the outcome of a sports contest, he tampers with any
sports participant, sports official or with any animal or equipment or
other thing involved in the conduct or operation of a sports contest in
a manner contrary to the rules and usages purporting to govern such a
contest.
Tampering with a sports contest in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Tampering with a sports contest in the first degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a sports contest in the first
degree when, with intent to influence the outcome of a pari-mutuel horse
race:
1. He affects any equine animal involved in the conduct or operation
of a pari-mutuel horse race by administering to the animal in any manner
whatsoever any controlled substance listed in section thirty-three
hundred six of the public health law; or
2. He knowingly enters or furnishes to another person for entry or
brings into this state for entry into a pari-mutuel horse race, or rides
or drives in any pari-mutuel horse race any running, trotting or pacing
horse, mare, gelding, colt or filly under an assumed name, or
deceptively out of its proper class, or that has been painted or
disguised or represented to be any other or different horse, mare,
gelding, colt or filly from that which it actually is; or
3. He knowingly and falsely registers with the jockey club, United
States trotting association, American quarter horse association or
national steeplechase and hunt association a horse, mare, gelding, colt
or filly previously registered under a different name; or
4. He agrees with one or more persons to enter such misrepresented or
drugged animal in a pari-mutuel horse race. A person shall not be
convicted of a violation of this subdivision unless an overt act is
alleged and proved to have been committed by one of said persons in
furtherance of said agreement.
Tampering with a sports contest in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting system in the
second degree.
A person is guilty of impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting
system in the second degree when, with the intent to obtain either any
payment for himself or for a third person or with the intent to defraud
any person he:
1. Alters, changes or interferes with any equipment or device used in
connection with pari-mutuel betting; or
2. Causes any false, inaccurate, delayed or unauthorized data, impulse
or signal to be fed into, or transmitted over, or registered in or
displayed upon any equipment or device used in connection with
pari-mutuel betting.
Impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting system in the second
degree is a class E felony.
Impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting system in
the first degree.
A person is guilty of impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting
system in the first degree when, with the intent to obtain either any
payment for himself or for a third person or with the intent to defraud
any person, and when the value of the payment exceeds one thousand five
hundred dollars he:
1. Alters, changes or interferes with any equipment or device used in
connection with pari-mutuel betting; or
2. Causes any false, inaccurate, delayed or unauthorized data, impulse
or signal to be fed into, or transmitted over, or registered in or
displayed upon any equipment or device used in connection with
pari-mutuel betting.
Impairing the integrity of a pari-mutuel betting system in the first
degree is a class D felony.
Rent gouging; definition of term.
As used in this article, "lawful rental and other lawful charges"
means registered, reported or contracted for rent pursuant to chapter
four hundred three of the laws of nineteen hundred eighty-three, article
two of the private housing finance law or section eight of the federal
housing act of nineteen hundred sixty-eight, or, rent contained in a
court approved stipulation of settlement, even if such rent or charges
are subsequently decreased by order of the department of housing and
community renewal or a court of competent jurisdiction.
Rent gouging in the third degree.
A person is guilty of rent gouging in the third degree when, in
connection with the leasing, rental or use of real property, he
solicits, accepts or agrees to accept from a person some consideration
of value, less than two hundred fifty dollars, in addition to lawful
rental and other lawful charges, upon an agreement or understanding that
the furnishing of such consideration will increase the possibility that
any person may obtain or renew the lease, rental or use of such
property, or that a failure to furnish it will decrease the possibility
that any person may obtain or renew the same.
Rent gouging in the third degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Rent gouging in the second degree.
A person is guilty of rent gouging in the second degree when, in
connection with the leasing, rental or use of real property, he
solicits, accepts or agrees to accept from a person some consideration
of value, of two hundred fifty dollars or more, in addition to lawful
rental and other lawful charges, upon an agreement or understanding that
the furnishing of such consideration will increase the possibility that
any person may obtain or renew the lease, rental or use of such
property, or that a failure to furnish it will decrease the possibility
that any person may obtain or renew the same.
Rent gouging in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Rent gouging in the first degree.
A person is guilty of rent gouging in the first degree when, in the
course of a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing course of conduct
in connection with the leasing, rental or use of three or more apartment
units, the rental price of which is regulated pursuant to the provisions
of federal, state or local law, he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept
from one or more persons in three separate transactions some
consideration of value, knowing that such consideration is in addition
to lawful rental and other lawful charges established pursuant to the
provisions of such federal, state or local law, and upon an agreement or
understanding that the furnishing of such consideration will increase
the possibility that any person may obtain or renew the lease, rental or
use of such property, or that a failure to furnish it will decrease the
possibility that any person may obtain or renew same, and thereby
obtains such consideration from one or more persons.
Rent gouging in the first degree is a class E felony.
ARTICLE 185 Frauds On Creditors
Fraud in insolvency.
1. As used in this section, "administrator" means an assignee or
trustee for the benefit of creditors, a liquidator, a receiver or any
other person entitled to administer property for the benefit of
creditors.
2. A person is guilty of fraud in insolvency when, with intent to
defraud any creditor and knowing that proceedings have been or are about
to be instituted for the appointment of an administrator, or knowing
that a composition agreement or other arrangement for the benefit of
creditors has been or is about to be made, he
(a) conveys, transfers, removes, conceals, destroys, encumbers or
otherwise disposes of any part of or any interest in the debtor's
estate; or
(b) obtains any substantial part of or interest in the debtor's
estate; or
(c) presents to any creditor or to the administrator any writing or
record relating to the debtor's estate knowing the same to contain a
false material statement; or
(d) misrepresents or fails or refuses to disclose to the administrator
the existence, amount or location of any part of or any interest in the
debtor's estate, or any other information which he is legally required
to furnish to such administrator.
Fraud in insolvency is a class A misdemeanor.
Fraud involving a security interest.
A person is guilty of fraud involving a security interest when, having
executed a security agreement creating a security interest in personal
property securing a monetary obligation owed to a secured party, and:
1. Having under the security agreement both the right of sale or other
disposition of the property and the duty to account to the secured party
for the proceeds of disposition, he sells or otherwise disposes of the
property and wrongfully fails to account to the secured party for the
proceeds of disposition; or
2. Having under the security agreement no right of sale or other
disposition of the property, he knowingly secretes, withholds or
disposes of such property in violation of the security agreement.
Fraud involving a security interest is a class A misdemeanor.
Fraudulent disposition of mortgaged property.
A person is guilty of fraudulent disposition of mortgaged property
when, having theretofore executed a mortgage of real or personal
property or any instrument intended to operate as such, he sells,
assigns, exchanges, secretes, injures, destroys or otherwise disposes of
any part of the property, upon which the mortgage or other instrument is
at the time a lien, with intent thereby to defraud the mortgagee or a
purchaser thereof.
Fraudulent disposition of mortgaged property is a class A misdemeanor.
Fraudulent disposition of property subject to a conditional
sale contract.
A person is guilty of fraudulent disposition of property subject to a
conditional sale contract when, prior to the performance of the
condition of a conditional sale contract and being the buyer or any
legal successor in interest of the buyer, he sells, assigns, mortgages,
exchanges, secretes, injures, destroys or otherwise disposes of the
goods subject to the conditional sale contract under claim of full
ownership, with intent thereby to defraud another.
Fraudulent disposition of property subject to a conditional sale
contract is a class A misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 187 Residential Mortgage Fraud
Definitions.
As used in this article:
1. "Person" means any individual or entity.
2. "Residential mortgage loan" means a loan or agreement to extend
credit, including the renewal, refinancing or modification of any such
loan, made to a person, which loan is primarily secured by either a
mortgage, deed of trust, or other lien upon any interest in residential
real property or any certificate of stock or other evidence of ownership
in, and a proprietary lease from, a corporation or partnership formed
for the purpose of cooperative ownership of residential real property.
3. "Residential real property" means real property that is used or
occupied, or intended to be used or occupied, wholly or partly, as the
home or residence of one or more persons, including real property that
is improved by a one-to-four family dwelling, or a residential unit in a
building including units owned as condominiums or on a cooperative
basis, used or occupied, or intended to be used or occupied, wholly or
partly, as the home or residence of one or more persons, but shall not
refer to unimproved real property upon which such dwellings are to be
constructed.
4. "Residential mortgage fraud" is committed by a person who,
knowingly and with intent to defraud, presents, causes to be presented,
or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be used in soliciting
an applicant for, applying for, underwriting or closing a residential
mortgage loan, or filing with a county clerk of any county in the state
arising out of and related to the closing of a residential mortgage
loan, any written statement which:
(a) contains materially false information concerning any fact material
thereto; or
(b) conceals, for the purpose of misleading, information concerning
any fact material thereto.
Limitation on prosecution.
No individual who applies for a residential mortgage loan and intends
to occupy such residential property which such mortgage secures shall be
held liable under this article provided, however, any such individual
who acts as an accessory to an individual or entity in committing any
crime defined in this article may be charged as an accessory to such
crime.
Residential mortgage fraud in the fifth degree.
A person is guilty of residential mortgage fraud in the fifth degree
when he or she commits residential mortgage fraud.
Residential mortgage fraud in the fifth degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Residential mortgage fraud in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of residential mortgage fraud in the fourth degree
when he or she commits residential mortgage fraud and thereby receives
proceeds or any other funds in the aggregate in excess of one thousand
dollars.
Residential mortgage fraud in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Residential mortgage fraud in the third degree.
A person is guilty of residential mortgage fraud in the third degree
when he or she commits residential mortgage fraud and thereby receives
proceeds or any other funds in the aggregate in excess of three thousand
dollars.
Residential mortgage fraud in the third degree is a class D felony.
Residential mortgage fraud in the second degree.
A person is guilty of residential mortgage fraud in the second degree
when he or she commits residential mortgage fraud and thereby receives
proceeds or any other funds in the aggregate in excess of fifty thousand
dollars.
Residential mortgage fraud in the second degree is a class C felony.
Residential mortgage fraud in the first degree.
A person is guilty of residential mortgage fraud in the first degree
when he or she commits residential mortgage fraud and thereby receives
proceeds or any other funds in the aggregate in excess of one million
dollars.
Residential mortgage fraud in the first degree is a class B felony.
ARTICLE 190 Other Frauds
Issuing a bad check; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Check" means any check, draft or similar sight order for the
payment of money which is not post-dated with respect to the time of
utterance.
2. "Drawer" of a check means a person whose name appears thereon as
the primary obligor, whether the actual signature be that of himself or
of a person purportedly authorized to draw the check in his behalf.
3. "Representative drawer" means a person who signs a check as drawer
in a representative capacity or as agent of the person whose name
appears thereon as the principal drawer or obligor.
4. "Utter." A person "utters" a check when, as a drawer or
representative drawer thereof, he delivers it or causes it to be
delivered to a person who thereby acquires a right against the drawer
with respect to such check. One who draws a check with intent that it be
so delivered is deemed to have uttered it if the delivery occurs.
5. "Pass." A person "passes" a check when, being a payee, holder or
bearer of a check which previously has been or purports to have been
drawn and uttered by another, he delivers it, for a purpose other than
collection, to a third person who thereby acquires a right with respect
thereto.
6. "Funds" means money or credit.
7. "Insufficient funds." A drawer has "insufficient funds" with a
drawee to cover a check when he has no funds or account whatever, or
funds in an amount less than that of the check; and a check dishonored
for "no account" shall also be deemed to have been dishonored for
"insufficient funds."
Issuing a bad check.
A person is guilty of issuing a bad check when:
1. (a) As a drawer or representative drawer, he utters a check knowing
that he or his principal, as the case may be, does not then have
sufficient funds with the drawee to cover it, and (b) he intends or
believes at the time of utterance that payment will be refused by the
drawee upon presentation, and (c) payment is refused by the drawee upon
presentation; or
2. (a) He passes a check knowing that the drawer thereof does not then
have sufficient funds with the drawee to cover it, and (b) he intends or
believes at the time the check is passed that payment will be refused by
the drawee upon presentation, and (c) payment is refused by the drawee
upon presentation.
Issuing a bad check is a class B misdemeanor.
Issuing a bad check; presumptions.
1. When the drawer of a check has insufficient funds with the drawee
to cover it at the time of utterance, the subscribing drawer or
representative drawer, as the case may be, is presumed to know of such
insufficiency.
2. A subscribing drawer or representative drawer, as the case may be,
of an ultimately dishonored check is presumed to have intended or
believed that the check would be dishonored upon presentation when:
(a) The drawer had no account with the drawee at the time of
utterance; or
(b) (i) The drawer had insufficient funds with the drawee at the time
of utterance, and (ii) the check was presented to the drawee for payment
not more than thirty days after the date of utterance, and (iii) the
drawer had insufficient funds with the drawee at the time of
presentation.
3. Dishonor of a check by the drawee and insufficiency of the drawer's
funds at the time of presentation may properly be proved by introduction
in evidence of a notice of protest of the check, or of a certificate
under oath of an authorized representative of the drawee declaring the
dishonor and insufficiency, and such proof shall constitute presumptive
evidence of such dishonor and insufficiency.
Issuing a bad check; defenses.
In any prosecution for issuing a bad check, it is an affirmative
defense that:
1. The defendant or a person acting in his behalf made full
satisfaction of the amount of the check within ten days after dishonor
by the drawee; or
2. The defendant, in acting as a representative drawer, did so as an
employee who, without personal benefit, merely executed the orders of
his employer or of a superior officer or employee generally authorized
to direct his activities.
False advertising.
A person is guilty of false advertising when, with intent to promote
the sale or to increase the consumption of property or services, he
makes or causes to be made a false or misleading statement in any
advertisement or publishes any advertisement in violation of chapter
three of the act of congress entitled "Truth in Lending Act" and the
regulations thereunder, as such act and regulations may from time to
time be amended, addressed to the public or to a substantial number of
persons; except that, in any prosecution under this section, it is an
affirmative defense that the allegedly false or misleading statement was
not knowingly or recklessly made or caused to be made.
False advertising is a class A misdemeanor.
False personation.
A person is guilty of false personation when after being informed of
the consequences of such act, he or she knowingly misrepresents his or
her actual name, date of birth or address to a police officer or peace
officer with intent to prevent such police officer or peace officer from
ascertaining such information.
False personation is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal impersonation in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal impersonation in the second degree when
he:
1. Impersonates another and does an act in such assumed character with
intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another; or
2. Pretends to be a representative of some person or organization and
does an act in such pretended capacity with intent to obtain a benefit
or to injure or defraud another; or
3. (a) Pretends to be a public servant, or wears or displays without
authority any uniform, badge, insignia or facsimile thereof by which
such public servant is lawfully distinguished, or falsely expresses by
his words or actions that he is a public servant or is acting with
approval or authority of a public agency or department; and (b) so acts
with intent to induce another to submit to such pretended official
authority, to solicit funds or to otherwise cause another to act in
reliance upon that pretense; or
4. Impersonates another by communication by internet website or
electronic means with intent to obtain a benefit or injure or defraud
another, or by such communication pretends to be a public servant in
order to induce another to submit to such authority or act in reliance
on such pretense; or
5. Impersonates another person, without such other person's
permission, by using the other person's electronic signature with intent
to obtain a benefit or injure or defraud the other person or another
person. For the purposes of this subdivision, electronic signature shall
have the same meaning as set forth in subdivision three of section three
hundred two of the state technology law.
Criminal impersonation in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal impersonation in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal impersonation in the first degree when
he:
1. Pretends to be a police officer or a federal law enforcement
officer as enumerated in section 2.15 of the criminal procedure law, or
wears or displays without authority, any uniform, badge or other
insignia or facsimile thereof, by which such police officer or federal
law enforcement officer is lawfully distinguished or expresses by his or
her words or actions that he or she is acting with the approval or
authority of any police department or acting as a federal law
enforcement officer with the approval of any agency that employs federal
law enforcement officers as enumerated in section 2.15 of the criminal
procedure law; and
2. So acts with intent to induce another to submit to such pretended
official authority or otherwise to act in reliance upon said pretense
and in the course of such pretense commits or attempts to commit a
felony; or
3. Pretending to be a duly licensed physician or other person
authorized to issue a prescription for any drug or any instrument or
device used in the taking or administering of drugs for which a
prescription is required by law, communicates to a pharmacist an oral
prescription which is required to be reduced to writing pursuant to
section thirty-three hundred thirty-two of the public health law.
Criminal impersonation in the first degree is a class E felony.
Criminal sale of a police uniform.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a police uniform when he or she
sells or offers for sale the uniform of any police officer to any
person, unless presented with a valid photo identification card showing
the purchaser to be a member of the police department which has
authorized the requested uniform or an authorization to purchase
specified uniforms signed by the police chief or the police commissioner
of such police department accompanied by a personal photo
identification. For purposes of this section, "police officer" shall
include federal law enforcement officers, as defined in section 2.15 of
the criminal procedure law; and "uniform" shall include all or any part
of the uniform which identifies the wearer as a member of a police
department, such as the uniform, shield, badge, numbers or other
identifying insignias or emblems.
Criminal sale of a police uniform is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawfully concealing a will.
A person is guilty of unlawfully concealing a will when, with intent
to defraud, he conceals, secretes, suppresses, mutilates or destroys a
will, codicil or other testamentary instrument.
Unlawfully concealing a will is a class E felony.
Misconduct by corporate official.
A person is guilty of misconduct by corporate official when:
1. Being a director of a stock corporation, he knowingly concurs in
any vote or act of the directors of such corporation, or any of them, by
which it is intended:
(a) To make a dividend except in the manner provided by law; or
(b) To divide, withdraw or in any manner pay to any stockholder any
part of the capital stock of the corporation except in the manner
provided by law; or
(c) To discount or receive any note or other evidence of debt in
payment of an installment of capital stock actually called in and
required to be paid, or with intent to provide the means of making such
payment; or
(d) To receive or discount any note or other evidence of debt with
intent to enable any stockholder to withdraw any part of the money paid
in by him on his stock; or
(e) To apply any portion of the funds of such corporation, directly or
indirectly, to the purchase of shares of its own stock, except in the
manner provided by law; or
2. Being a director or officer of a stock corporation:
(a) He issues, participates in issuing, or concurs in a vote to issue
any increase of its capital stock beyond the amount of the capital stock
thereof, duly authorized by or in pursuance of law; or
(b) He sells, or agrees to sell, or is directly or indirectly
interested in the sale of any share of stock of such corporation, or in
any agreement to sell the same, unless at the time of such sale or
agreement he is an actual owner of such share, provided that the
foregoing shall not apply to a sale by or on behalf of an underwriter or
dealer in connection with a bona fide public offering of shares of stock
of such corporation.
Misconduct by corporate official is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal usury in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal usury in the second degree when, not
being authorized or permitted by law to do so, he knowingly charges,
takes or receives any money or other property as interest on the loan or
forebearance of any money or other property, at a rate exceeding
twenty-five per centum per annum or the equivalent rate for a longer or
shorter period.
Criminal usury in the second degree is a class E felony.
Criminal usury in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal usury in the first degree when, not
being authorized or permitted by law to do so, he knowingly charges,
takes or receives any money or other property as interest on the loan or
forbearance of any money or other property, at a rate exceeding
twenty-five per centum per annum or the equivalent rate for a longer or
shorter period and either the actor had previously been convicted of the
crime of criminal usury or of the attempt to commit such crime, or the
actor's conduct was part of a scheme or business of making or collecting
usurious loans.
Criminal usury in the first degree is a class C felony.
Possession of usurious loan records.
A person is guilty of possession of usurious loan records when, with
knowledge of the contents thereof, he possesses any writing, paper,
instrument or article used to record criminally usurious transactions
prohibited by section 190.40.
Possession of usurious loan records is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful collection practices.
A person is guilty of unlawful collection practices when, with intent
to enforce a claim or judgment for money or property, he knowingly
sends, mails or delivers to another person a notice, document or other
instrument which has no judicial or official sanction and which in its
format or appearance, simulates a summons, complaint, court order or
process, or an insignia, seal or printed form of a federal, state or
local government or an instrumentality thereof, or is otherwise
calculated to induce a belief that such notice, document or instrument
has a judicial or official sanction.
Unlawful collection practices is a class B misdemeanor.
Making a false statement of credit terms.
A person is guilty of making a false statement of credit terms when he
knowingly and willfully violates the provisions of chapter two of the
act of congress entitled "Truth in Lending Act" and the regulations
thereunder, as such act and regulations may from time to time be
amended, by understating or failing to state the interest rate required
to be disclosed, or by failing to make or by making a false or
inaccurate or incomplete statement of other credit terms in violation of
such act.
Making a false statement of credit terms is a class A misdemeanor.
Scheme to defraud in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of a scheme to defraud in the second degree when
he engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing course of
conduct with intent to defraud more than one person or to obtain
property from more than one person by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and so obtains property from one or more of
such persons.
2. In any prosecution under this section, it shall be necessary to
prove the identity of at least one person from whom the defendant so
obtained property, but it shall not be necessary to prove the identity
of any other intended victim.
Scheme to defraud in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Scheme to defraud in the first degree.
1. A person is guilty of a scheme to defraud in the first degree when
he or she: (a) engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing
course of conduct with intent to defraud ten or more persons or to
obtain property from ten or more persons by false or fraudulent
pretenses, representations or promises, and so obtains property from one
or more of such persons; or (b) engages in a scheme constituting a
systematic ongoing course of conduct with intent to defraud more than
one person or to obtain property from more than one person by false or
fraudulent pretenses, representations or promises, and so obtains
property with a value in excess of one thousand dollars from one or more
such persons; or (c) engages in a scheme constituting a systematic
ongoing course of conduct with intent to defraud more than one person,
more than one of whom is a vulnerable elderly person as defined in
subdivision three of section 260.31 of this chapter or to obtain
property from more than one person, more than one of whom is a
vulnerable elderly person as defined in subdivision three of section
260.31 of this chapter, by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and so obtains property from one or more
such persons; or (d) engages in a systematic ongoing course of conduct,
with intent to defraud more than one person by false or fraudulent
pretenses, representations or promises, by disposing of solid waste as
defined in section 27-0701 of the environmental conservation law on such
persons' property, and so damages the property of one or more of such
persons in an amount in excess of one thousand dollars.
2. In any prosecution under this section, it shall be necessary to
prove the identity of at least one person from whom the defendant so
obtained property, but it shall not be necessary to prove the identity
of any other intended victim, provided that in any prosecution under
paragraph (c) of subdivision one of this section, it shall be necessary
to prove the identity of at least one such vulnerable elderly person as
defined in subdivision three of section 260.31 of this chapter.
3. In any prosecution under paragraph (d) of subdivision one of this
section, it shall be necessary to prove the identity of at least one
person on whose property the defendant fraudulently disposed of solid
waste pursuant to such paragraph (d), but it shall not be necessary to
prove the identity of any other victim or intended victim.
Scheme to defraud in the first degree is a class E felony.
Scheme to defraud the state by unlawfully selling
prescriptions.
A person is guilty of a scheme to defraud the state by unlawfully
selling prescriptions when he or she engages, with intent to defraud the
state, in a scheme constituting a systematic, ongoing course of conduct
to make, sell, deliver for sale or offer for sale one or more
prescriptions and so obtains goods or services from the state with a
value in excess of one thousand dollars or causes the state to reimburse
another in excess of one thousand dollars for the delivery of such goods
or services.
Scheme to defraud the state by unlawfully selling prescriptions is a
class A misdemeanor.
Unauthorized radio transmission.
A person is guilty of an unauthorized radio transmission when such
person knowingly makes or causes to be made a radio transmission in this
state, on a radio frequency assigned and licensed by the federal
communications commission for use by amplitude modulation (AM) radio
stations between the frequencies of five hundred thirty kilohertz (kHz)
to seventeen hundred kilohertz (kHz), or frequency modulation (FM) radio
stations between the frequencies of eighty-eight megahertz (MHz) to one
hundred eight megahertz (MHz), without authorization or having first
obtained a license from the federal communications commission or duly
authorized federal agency, in violation of federal law.
Unauthorized radio transmission is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal use of an access device in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of an access device in the second
degree when he knowingly uses an access device without consent of an
owner thereof with intent to unlawfully obtain telecommunications
services on behalf of himself or a third person. As used in this
section, access device shall have the meaning set forth in subdivision
seven-c of section 155.00 of this chapter.
Criminal use of an access device in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Criminal use of an access device in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of an access device in the first
degree when he knowingly uses an access device without consent of an
owner thereof with intent to unlawfully obtain telecommunications
services on behalf of himself or a third person, and so obtains such
services with a value in excess of one thousand dollars. As used in
this section, access device shall have the meaning set forth in
subdivision seven-c of section 155.00 of this chapter.
Criminal use of an access device in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Offenses involving theft of identity; definitions.
1. For the purposes of sections 190.78, 190.79, 190.80, 190.80-a and
190.85 of this article "personal identifying information" means a
person's name, address, telephone number, date of birth, driver's
license number, social security number, place of employment, mother's
maiden name, financial services account number or code, savings account
number or code, checking account number or code, brokerage account
number or code, credit card account number or code, debit card number or
code, automated teller machine number or code, taxpayer identification
number, computer system password, signature or copy of a signature,
electronic signature, unique biometric data that is a fingerprint, voice
print, retinal image or iris image of another person, telephone calling
card number, mobile identification number or code, electronic serial
number or personal identification number, medical information, health
insurance information, or any other name, number, code or information
that may be used alone or in conjunction with other such information to
assume the identity of another person.
2. For the purposes of subdivision one of this section and sections
190.78, 190.79, 190.80, 190.80-a, 190.81, 190.82, 190.83 and 190.85 of
this article:
a. "electronic signature" shall have the same meaning as defined in
subdivision three of section three hundred two of the state technology
law.
b. "personal identification number" means any number or code which may
be used alone or in conjunction with any other information to assume the
identity of another person or access financial resources or credit of
another person.
c. "member of the armed forces" shall mean a person in the military
service of the United States or the military service of the state,
including but not limited to, the armed forces of the United States, the
army national guard, the air national guard, the New York naval militia,
the New York guard, and such additional forces as may be created by the
federal or state government as authorized by law.
d. "medical information" means any information regarding an
individual's medical history, mental or physical condition, or medical
treatment or diagnosis by a health care professional.
e. "health insurance information" means an individual's health
insurance policy number or subscriber identification number, any unique
identifier used by a health insurer to identify the individual or any
information in an individual's application and claims history,
including, but not limited to, appeals history.
Identity theft in the third degree.
A person is guilty of identity theft in the third degree when such
person knowingly and with intent to defraud assumes the identity of
another person by presenting themself as that other person, or by acting
as that other person or by using personal identifying information of
that other person, and thereby:
1. obtains goods, money, property or services or uses credit in the
name of such other person or causes financial loss to such person or to
another person or persons; or
2. commits a class A misdemeanor or higher level crime.
Identity theft in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Identity theft in the second degree.
A person is guilty of identity theft in the second degree when such
person knowingly and with intent to defraud assumes the identity of
another person by presenting themself as that other person, or by acting
as that other person or by using personal identifying information of
that other person, and thereby:
1. obtains goods, money, property or services or uses credit in the
name of such other person in an aggregate amount that exceeds five
hundred dollars; or
2. causes financial loss to such person or to another person or
persons in an aggregate amount that exceeds five hundred dollars; or
3. commits or attempts to commit a felony or acts as an accessory to
the commission of a felony; or
4. commits the crime of identity theft in the third degree as defined
in section 190.78 of this article and has been previously convicted
within the last five years of identity theft in the third degree as
defined in section 190.78, identity theft in the second degree as
defined in this section, identity theft in the first degree as defined
in section 190.80, unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the third degree as defined in section 190.81, unlawful
possession of personal identification information in the second degree
as defined in section 190.82, unlawful possession of personal
identification information in the first degree as defined in section
190.83, unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the second degree as
defined in section 190.85, unlawful possession of a skimmer device in
the first degree as defined in section 190.86, grand larceny in the
fourth degree as defined in section 155.30, grand larceny in the third
degree as defined in section 155.35, grand larceny in the second degree
as defined in section 155.40 or grand larceny in the first degree as
defined in section 155.42 of this chapter.
Identity theft in the second degree is a class E felony.
Identity theft in the first degree.
A person is guilty of identity theft in the first degree when such
person knowingly and with intent to defraud assumes the identity of
another person by presenting themself as that other person, or by acting
as that other person or by using personal identifying information of
that other person, and thereby:
1. obtains goods, money, property or services or uses credit in the
name of such other person in an aggregate amount that exceeds two
thousand dollars; or
2. causes financial loss to such person or to another person or
persons in an aggregate amount that exceeds two thousand dollars; or
3. commits or attempts to commit a class D felony or higher level
crime or acts as an accessory in the commission of a class D or higher
level felony; or
4. commits the crime of identity theft in the second degree as defined
in section 190.79 of this article and has been previously convicted
within the last five years of identity theft in the third degree as
defined in section 190.78, identity theft in the second degree as
defined in section 190.79, identity theft in the first degree as defined
in this section, unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the third degree as defined in section 190.81, unlawful
possession of personal identification information in the second degree
as defined in section 190.82, unlawful possession of personal
identification information in the first degree as defined in section
190.83, unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the second degree as
defined in section 190.85, unlawful possession of a skimmer device in
the first degree as defined in section 190.86, grand larceny in the
fourth degree as defined in section 155.30, grand larceny in the third
degree as defined in section 155.35, grand larceny in the second degree
as defined in section 155.40 or grand larceny in the first degree as
defined in section 155.42 of this chapter.
Identity theft in the first degree is a class D felony.
Aggravated identity theft.
A person is guilty of aggravated identity theft when he or she
knowingly and with intent to defraud assumes the identity of another
person by presenting himself or herself as that other person, or by
acting as that other person or by using personal identifying information
of that other person, and knows that such person is a member of the
armed forces, and knows that such member is presently deployed outside
of the continental United States and:
1. thereby obtains goods, money, property or services or uses credit
in the name of such member of the armed forces in an aggregate amount
that exceeds five hundred dollars; or
2. thereby causes financial loss to such member of the armed forces in
an aggregate amount that exceeds five hundred dollars.
Aggravated identity theft is a class D felony.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in
the third degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the third degree when he or she knowingly possesses a
person's financial services account number or code, savings account
number or code, checking account number or code, brokerage account
number or code, credit card account number or code, debit card number or
code, automated teller machine number or code, personal identification
number, mother's maiden name, computer system password, electronic
signature or unique biometric data that is a fingerprint, voice print,
retinal image or iris image of another person knowing such information
is intended to be used in furtherance of the commission of a crime
defined in this chapter.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in the
third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in
the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the second degree when he or she knowingly possesses two
hundred fifty or more items of personal identification information of
the following nature: a person's financial services account number or
code, savings account number or code, checking account number or code,
brokerage account number or code, credit card account number or code,
debit card number or code, automated teller machine number or code,
personal identification number, mother's maiden name, computer system
password, electronic signature or unique biometric data that is a
fingerprint, voice print, retinal image or iris image of another person
knowing such information is intended to be used in furtherance of the
commission of a crime defined in this chapter.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in the
second degree is a class E felony.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in
the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the first degree when he or she commits the crime of
unlawful possession of personal identification information in the second
degree and:
1. with intent to further the commission of identity theft in the
second degree, he or she supervises more than three accomplices; or
2. he or she has been previously convicted within the last five years
of identity theft in the third degree as defined in section 190.78,
identity theft in the second degree as defined in section 190.79,
identity theft in the first degree as defined in section 190.80,
unlawful possession of personal identification information in the third
degree as defined in section 190.81, unlawful possession of personal
identification information in the second degree as defined in section
190.82, unlawful possession of personal identification information in
the first degree as defined in this section, unlawful possession of a
skimmer device in the second degree as defined in section 190.85,
unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the first degree as defined
in section 190.86, grand larceny in the fourth degree as defined in
section 155.30, grand larceny in the third degree as defined in section
155.35, grand larceny in the second degree as defined in section 155.40
or grand larceny in the first degree as defined in section 155.42 of
this chapter; or
3. with intent to further the commission of identity theft in the
second degree:
(a) he or she supervises more than two accomplices, and
(b) he or she knows that the person whose personal identification
information that he or she possesses is a member of the armed forces,
and
(c) he or she knows that such member of the armed forces is presently
deployed outside of the continental United States.
Unlawful possession of personal identification information in the
first degree is a class D felony.
Defenses.
In any prosecution for identity theft or unlawful possession of
personal identification information pursuant to this article, it shall
be an affirmative defense that the person charged with the offense:
1. was under twenty-one years of age at the time of committing the
offense and the person used or possessed the personal identifying or
identification information of another solely for the purpose of
purchasing alcohol;
2. was under eighteen years of age at the time of committing the
offense and the person used or possessed the personal identifying or
identification information of another solely for the purpose of
purchasing tobacco products; or
3. used or possessed the personal identifying or identification
information of another person solely for the purpose of misrepresenting
the person's age to gain access to a place the access to which is
restricted based on age.
Unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of unlawful possession of a skimmer device in
the second degree when he or she possesses a skimmer device with the
intent that such device be used in furtherance of the commission of the
crime of identity theft or unlawful possession of personal
identification information as defined in this article.
2. For purposes of this article, "skimmer device" means a device
designed or adapted to obtain personal identifying information from a
credit card, debit card, public benefit card, access card or device, or
other card or device that contains personal identifying information.
Unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the second degree is a
class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the
first degree when he or she commits the crime of unlawful possession of
a skimmer device in the second degree and he or she has been previously
convicted within the last five years of identity theft in the third
degree as defined in section 190.78, identity theft in the second degree
as defined in section 190.79, identity theft in the first degree as
defined in section 190.80, unlawful possession of personal
identification information in the third degree as defined in section
190.81, unlawful possession of personal identification information in
the second degree as defined in section 190.82, unlawful possession of
personal identification information in the first degree as defined in
section 190.83, unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the second
degree as defined in section 190.85, unlawful possession of a skimmer
device in the first degree as defined in this section, grand larceny in
the fourth degree as defined in section 155.30, grand larceny in the
third degree as defined in section 155.35, grand larceny in the second
degree as defined in section 155.40 or grand larceny in the first degree
as defined in section 155.42 of this chapter.
Unlawful possession of a skimmer device in the first degree is a class
E felony.
Immigrant assistant services fraud in the second degree.
A person is guilty of immigrant assistance services fraud in the
second degree when, with intent to defraud another person seeking
immigrant assistance services, as defined in article twenty-eight-C of
the general business law, from such person, he or she violates section
four hundred sixty-d of the general business law with intent to obtain
property from such other person by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such
property.
Immigrant assistance services fraud in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Immigrant assistance services fraud in the first degree.
A person is guilty of immigrant assistance services fraud in the first
degree when, with intent to defraud another person seeking immigrant
assistance services, as defined in article twenty-eight-C of the general
business law, from such person, he or she violates section four hundred
sixty-d of the general business law with intent to obtain property from
such other person by false or fraudulent pretenses, representations or
promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such property with a value in
excess of one thousand dollars.
Immigrant assistance services fraud in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Unlawful compensation in a veterans' benefits matter.
A person is guilty of unlawful compensation in a veterans' benefits
matter when such person knowingly and willfully violates paragraph (a)
of subdivision two of section three hundred forty-nine-f of the general
business law.
Unlawful compensation in a veterans' benefits matter is a class A
misdemeanor.
TITLE L Offenses Against Public Administration
ARTICLE 195 Official Misconduct and Obstruction of Public Servants Generally
Official misconduct.
A public servant is guilty of official misconduct when, with intent to
obtain a benefit or deprive another person of a benefit:
1. He commits an act relating to his office but constituting an
unauthorized exercise of his official functions, knowing that such act
is unauthorized; or
2. He knowingly refrains from performing a duty which is imposed upon
him by law or is clearly inherent in the nature of his office.
Official misconduct is a class A misdemeanor.
Concealment of a human corpse.
A person is guilty of concealment of a human corpse when, having a
reasonable expectation that a human corpse or a part thereof will be
produced for or used as physical evidence in: (a) an official
proceeding; (b) an autopsy as part of a criminal investigation; or (c)
an examination by law enforcement personnel as part of a criminal
investigation; such person, alone or in concert with another, conceals,
alters or destroys such corpse or part thereof with the intent to
prevent its production, use or discovery.
Concealment of a human corpse is a class E felony.
Obstructing governmental administration in the second degree.
A person is guilty of obstructing governmental administration when:
1. Such person intentionally obstructs, impairs or perverts the
administration of law or other governmental function or prevents or
attempts to prevent a public servant from performing an official
function, by means of intimidation, physical force or interference, or
by means of any independently unlawful act, or by means of interfering,
whether or not physical force is involved, with radio, telephone,
television or other telecommunications systems owned or operated by the
state, or a county, city, town, village, fire district or emergency
medical service or by means of releasing a dangerous animal under
circumstances evincing the actor's intent that the animal obstruct
governmental administration; or
2. With the intent to violate a closing order, order to seal,
temporary closing order, or temporary order to seal issued by a
governmental entity to address a public health or safety concern, such
person damages or removes any padlock or other device installed for the
purpose of effectuating such order.
Obstructing governmental administration is a class A misdemeanor.
Killing or injuring a police animal.
A person is guilty of killing or injuring a police animal when such
person intentionally kills or injures any animal while such animal is in
the performance of its duties and under the supervision of a police or
peace officer.
Killing or injuring a police animal is a class A misdemeanor.
Killing a police work dog or police work horse.
A person is guilty of killing a police work dog or police work horse
when such person intentionally kills a police work dog or police work
horse while such dog or horse is in the performance of its duties and
under the supervision of a police officer. For purposes of this section,
"police work dog" or "police work horse," as the case may be, shall mean
any dog or horse owned or harbored by any state or municipal police
department or any state or federal law enforcement agency, which has
been trained to aid law enforcement officers and is actually being used
for police work purposes.
Killing a police work dog or police work horse is a class E felony.
Obstructing governmental administration in the first degree.
A person is guilty of obstructing governmental administration in the
first degree when he commits the crime of obstructing governmental
administration in the second degree by means of interfering with a
telecommunications system thereby causing serious physical injury to
another person.
Obstructing governmental administration in the first degree is a class
E felony.
Obstructing governmental administration by means of a
self-defense spray device.
A person is guilty of obstructing governmental administration by means
of a self-defense spray device when, with the intent to prevent a police
officer or peace officer from performing a lawful duty, he causes
temporary physical impairment to a police officer or peace officer by
intentionally discharging a self-defense spray device, as defined in
paragraph fourteen of subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter,
thereby causing such temporary physical impairment.
Obstructing governmental administration by means of a self-defense
spray device is a class D felony.
Refusing to aid a peace or a police officer.
A person is guilty of refusing to aid a peace or a police officer
when, upon command by a peace or a police officer identifiable or
identified to him as such, he unreasonably fails or refuses to aid such
peace or a police officer in effecting an arrest, or in preventing the
commission by another person of any offense.
Refusing to aid a peace or a police officer is a class B misdemeanor.
Harming an animal trained to aid a person with a disability in
the second degree.
A person is guilty of harming an animal trained to aid a person with a
disability in the second degree when such person intentionally causes
physical injury to such animal while it is in the performance of aiding
a person with a disability, and thereby renders such animal incapable of
providing such aid to such person, or to another person with a
disability.
For purposes of this section and section 195.12 of this article, the
term "disability" means "disability" as defined in subdivision
twenty-one of section two hundred ninety-two of the executive law.
Harming an animal trained to aid a person with a disability in the
second degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Harming an animal trained to aid a person with a disability in
the first degree.
A person is guilty of harming an animal trained to aid a person with a
disability in the first degree when such person:
1. intentionally causes physical injury to such animal while it is in
the performance of aiding a person with a disability, and thereby
renders such animal permanently incapable of providing such aid to such
person, or to another person with a disability; or
2. intentionally kills such animal while it is in the performance of
aiding a person with a disability.
Harming an animal trained to aid a person with a disability in the
first degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Obstructing firefighting operations.
A person is guilty of obstructing firefighting operations when he or
she intentionally and unreasonably obstructs the efforts of any:
1. firefighter in extinguishing a fire, or prevents or dissuades
another from extinguishing or helping to extinguish a fire;
2. firefighter, police officer or peace officer in performing his or
her duties in circumstances involving an imminent danger created by an
explosion, threat of explosion or the presence of toxic fumes or gases;
or
3. firefighter performing emergency medical care on a sick or injured
person.
Obstructing firefighting operations is a class A misdemeanor.
Obstructing emergency medical services.
A person is guilty of obstructing emergency medical services when he
or she intentionally and unreasonably obstructs the efforts of any
service, technician, personnel, system or unit specified in section
three thousand one of the public health law in the performance of their
duties.
Obstructing emergency medical services is a class A misdemeanor.
Obstruction of governmental duties by means of a bomb,
destructive device, explosive, or hazardous substance.
A person is guilty of obstruction of governmental duties by means of a
bomb, destructive device, explosive, or hazardous substance when he or
she, in furtherance of a felony offense, knowingly and unlawfully
installs or causes to be installed a bomb, destructive device,
explosive, or hazardous substance, in any object, place, or compartment
that is subject to a search so as to obstruct, prevent, hinder or delay
the administration of law or performance of a government function.
Obstruction of governmental duties by means of a bomb, destructive
device, explosive, or hazardous substance is a class D felony.
Defrauding the government.
A person is guilty of defrauding the government when, being a public
servant or party officer, he or she:
(a) engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing course of
conduct with intent to:
(i) defraud the state or a political subdivision of the state or a
governmental instrumentality within the state or to obtain property,
services or other resources from the state or a political subdivision of
the state or a governmental instrumentality within the state by false or
fraudulent pretenses, representations or promises; or
(ii) defraud the state or a political subdivision of the state or a
governmental instrumentality within the state by making use of property,
services or resources of the state, political subdivision of the state
or a governmental instrumentality within the state for private business
purposes or other compensated non-governmental purposes; and
(b) so obtains property, services or other resources with a value in
excess of one thousand dollars from such state, political subdivision or
governmental instrumentality.
Defrauding the government is a class E felony.
ARTICLE 200 Bribery Involving Public Servants and Related Offenses
Bribery in the third degree.
A person is guilty of bribery in the third degree when he confers, or
offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon a public servant upon an
agreement or understanding that such public servant's vote, opinion,
judgment, action, decision or exercise of discretion as a public servant
will thereby be influenced.
Bribery in the third degree is a class D felony.
Bribery in the second degree.
A person is guilty of bribery in the second degree when he confers, or
offers or agrees to confer, any benefit valued in excess of five
thousand dollars upon a public servant upon an agreement or
understanding that such public servant's vote, opinion, judgment,
action, decision or exercise of discretion as a public servant will
thereby be influenced.
Bribery in the second degree is a class C felony.
Bribery in the first degree.
A person is guilty of bribery in the first degree when the person
confers, or offers or agrees to confer: (1) any benefit upon a public
servant upon an agreement or understanding that such public servant's
vote, opinion, judgment, action, decision or exercise of discretion as a
public servant will thereby be influenced in the investigation, arrest,
detention, prosecution or incarceration of any person for the commission
or alleged commission of a class A felony defined in article two hundred
twenty of this part or an attempt to commit any such class A felony; or
(2) any benefit valued in excess of one hundred thousand dollars upon a
public servant upon an agreement or understanding that such public
servant's vote, opinion, judgment, action, decision or exercise of
discretion as a public servant will thereby be influenced.
Bribery in the first degree is a class B felony.
Bribery; defense.
In any prosecution for bribery, it is a defense that the defendant
conferred or agreed to confer the benefit involved upon the public
servant involved as a result of conduct of the latter constituting
larceny committed by means of extortion, or an attempt to commit the
same, or coercion, or an attempt to commit coercion.
Bribe receiving in the third degree.
A public servant is guilty of bribe receiving in the third degree when
he or she solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another
person upon an agreement or understanding that his or her vote, opinion,
judgment, action, decision or exercise of discretion as a public servant
will thereby be influenced.
Bribe receiving in the third degree is a class D felony.
Bribe receiving in the second degree.
A public servant is guilty of bribe receiving in the second degree
when he or she solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit valued
in excess of five thousand dollars from another person upon an agreement
or understanding that his or her vote, opinion, judgment, action,
decision or exercise of discretion as a public servant will thereby be
influenced.
Bribe receiving in the second degree is a class C felony.
Bribe receiving in the first degree.
A public servant is guilty of bribe receiving in the first degree when
he or she solicits, accepts or agrees to accept: (a) any benefit from
another person upon an agreement or understanding that his or her vote,
opinion, judgment, action, decision or exercise of discretion as a
public servant will thereby be influenced in the investigation, arrest,
detention, prosecution or incarceration of any person for the commission
or alleged commission of a class A felony defined in article two hundred
twenty of this part or an attempt to commit any such class A felony; or
(b) any benefit valued in excess of one hundred thousand dollars from
another person upon an agreement or understanding that such public
servant's vote, opinion, judgment, action, decision or exercise of
discretion as a public servant will thereby be influenced.
Bribe receiving in the first degree is a class B felony.
Bribe receiving; no defense.
1. The crimes of (a) bribe receiving, and (b) larceny committed by
means of extortion, attempt to commit the same, coercion and attempt to
commit coercion, are not mutually exclusive, and it is no defense to a
prosecution for bribe receiving that, by reason of the same conduct, the
defendant also committed one of such other specified crimes.
2. It is no defense to a prosecution pursuant to the provisions of
this article that the public servant did not have power or authority to
perform the act or omission for which the alleged bribe, gratuity or
reward was given.
Rewarding official misconduct in the second degree.
A person is guilty of rewarding official misconduct in the second
degree when he knowingly confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any
benefit upon a public servant for having violated his duty as a public
servant.
Rewarding official misconduct in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Rewarding official misconduct in the first degree.
A person is guilty of rewarding official misconduct in the first
degree when he knowingly confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any
benefit upon a public servant for having violated his duty as a public
servant in the investigation, arrest, detention, prosecution, or
incarceration of any person for the commission or alleged commission of
a class A felony defined in article two hundred twenty of the penal law
or the attempt to commit any such class A felony.
Rewarding official misconduct in the first degree is a class C felony.
Receiving reward for official misconduct in the second degree.
A public servant is guilty of receiving reward for official misconduct
in the second degree when he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any
benefit from another person for having violated his duty as a public
servant.
Receiving reward for official misconduct in the second degree is a
class E felony.
Receiving reward for official misconduct in the first degree.
A public servant is guilty of receiving reward for official misconduct
in the first degree when he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any
benefit from another person for having violated his duty as a public
servant in the investigation, arrest, detention, prosecution, or
incarceration of any person for the commission or alleged commission of
a class A felony defined in article two hundred twenty of the penal law
or the attempt to commit any such class A felony.
Receiving reward for official misconduct in the first degree is a
class C felony.
Giving unlawful gratuities.
A person is guilty of giving unlawful gratuities when he knowingly
confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon a public
servant for having engaged in official conduct which he was required or
authorized to perform, and for which he was not entitled to any special
or additional compensation.
Giving unlawful gratuities is a class A misdemeanor.
Receiving unlawful gratuities.
A public servant is guilty of receiving unlawful gratuities when he
solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit for having engaged in
official conduct which he was required or authorized to perform, and for
which he was not entitled to any special or additional compensation.
Receiving unlawful gratuities is a class A misdemeanor.
Bribe giving for public office.
A person is guilty of bribe giving for public office when he confers,
or offers or agrees to confer, any money or other property upon a public
servant or a party officer upon an agreement or understanding that some
person will or may be appointed to a public office or designated or
nominated as a candidate for public office.
Bribe giving for public office is a class D felony.
Bribe receiving for public office.
A public servant or a party officer is guilty of bribe receiving for
public office when he solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any money or
other property from another person upon an agreement or understanding
that some person will or may be appointed to a public office or
designated or nominated as a candidate for public office.
Bribe receiving for public office is a class D felony.
Impairing the integrity of a government licensing examination.
A person is guilty of impairing the integrity of a government
licensing examination when, with intent to obtain a benefit for himself
or herself, or for another person, he or she:
1. Wrongfully alters or changes an applicant's grade on a government
licensing examination; or
2. Causes any false or inaccurate grade to be entered into a
government licensing registry; or
3. Provides answers, with an intent to wrongfully benefit another, to
current questions on a pending government licensing examination; or
4. Wrongfully provides a copy of a current test used to determine
competence in a licensed profession, trade, craft or other vocation.
Impairing the integrity of a government licensing examination is a
class D felony.
Corrupt use of position or authority.
A person is guilty of corrupt use of position or authority if such
person:
1. While holding public office, or being nominated or seeking a
nomination therefor, corruptly uses or promises to use, directly, or
indirectly, any official authority or influence possessed or
anticipated, in the way of conferring upon any person, or in order to
secure, or aid any person in securing, any office or public employment,
or any nomination, confirmation, promotion or increase of salary, upon
consideration that the vote or political influence or action of the
person so to be benefited or of any other person, shall be given or used
in behalf of any candidate, officer or party or upon any other corrupt
condition or consideration; or
2. Being a public officer or employee of the state or a political
subdivision having, or claiming to have, any authority or influence
affecting the nomination, public employment, confirmation, promotion,
removal or increase or decrease of salary of any public officer or
employee, corruptly promises or threatens to use any such authority or
influence, directly or indirectly to affect the vote or political action
of any such public officer or employee, or on account of the vote or
political action of such officer or employee; or
3. Corruptly makes, tenders or offers to procure, or cause any
nomination or appointment for any public office or place, or accepts or
requests any such nomination or appointment, upon the payment or
contribution of any valuable consideration, or upon an understanding or
promise thereof; or
4. Corruptly makes any gift, promise or contribution to any person,
upon the condition or consideration of receiving an appointment or
election to a public office or a position of public employment, or for
receiving or retaining any such office or position, or promotion,
privilege, increase of salary or compensation therein, or exemption from
removal or discharge therefrom.
Corrupt use of position or authority is a class E felony.
ARTICLE 205 Escape and Other Offenses Relating to Custody
Escape and other offenses relating to custody; definitions of
terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Detention Facility" means any place used for the confinement,
pursuant to an order of a court, of a person (a) charged with or
convicted of an offense, or (b) charged with being or adjudicated a
youthful offender, person in need of supervision or juvenile delinquent,
or (c) held for extradition or as a material witness, or (d) otherwise
confined pursuant to an order of a court.
2. "Custody" means restraint by a public servant pursuant to an
authorized arrest or an order of a court.
3. "Contraband" means any article or thing which a person confined in
a detention facility is prohibited from obtaining or possessing by
statute, rule, regulation or order.
4. "Dangerous contraband" means contraband which is capable of such
use as may endanger the safety or security of a detention facility or
any person therein.
Escape in the third degree.
A person is guilty of escape in the third degree when he escapes from
custody.
Escape in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Escape in the second degree.
A person is guilty of escape in the second degree when:
1. He escapes from a detention facility; or
2. Having been arrested for, charged with or convicted of a class C,
class D or class E felony, he escapes from custody; or
3. Having been adjudicated a youthful offender, which finding was
substituted for the conviction of a felony, he escapes from custody.
Escape in the second degree is a class E felony.
Escape in the first degree.
A person is guilty of escape in the first degree when:
1. Having been charged with or convicted of a felony, he escapes from
a detention facility; or
2. Having been arrested for, charged with or convicted of a class A or
class B felony, he escapes from custody; or
3. Having been adjudicated a youthful offender, which finding was
substituted for the conviction of a felony, he escapes from a detention
facility.
Escape in the first degree is a class D felony.
* § 205.16 Absconding from temporary release in the second degree.
A person is guilty of absconding from temporary release in the second
degree when having been released from confinement in a correctional
institution or division for youth facility to participate in a program
of work release, he intentionally fails to return to the institution or
facility of his confinement at or before the time prescribed for his
return.
Absconding from temporary release in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
* NB Expires September 1, 2027
* § 205.17 Absconding from temporary release in the first degree.
A person is guilty of absconding from temporary release in the first
degree when having been released from confinement in a correctional
institution under the jurisdiction of the state department of
corrections and community supervision or a facility under the
jurisdiction of the state office of children and family services to
participate in a program of temporary release, he or she intentionally
fails to return to the institution or facility of his or her confinement
at or before the time prescribed for his or her return.
Absconding from temporary release in the first degree is a class E
felony.
* NB Expires September 1, 2027
* § 205.18 Absconding from a furlough program.
A person is guilty of absconding from a furlough program when, having
been released from confinement in an institution under the jurisdiction
of the commissioner of correction in a city having a population of one
million or more or of a county which elects to have this article apply
thereto to participate in a furlough program, he intentionally fails to
return to the institution of his confinement at or before the time
prescribed for his return.
Absconding from a furlough program is a class A misdemeanor.
* NB Repealed September 1, 2027
* § 205.19 Absconding from a community treatment facility.
A person is guilty of absconding from a community treatment facility
when having been released from confinement from a correctional
institution under the jurisdiction of the state department of
corrections and community supervision by transfer to a community
treatment facility, he or she leaves such facility without authorization
or he or she intentionally fails to return to the community treatment
facility at or before the time prescribed for his or her return.
Absconding from a community treatment facility is a class E felony.
* NB Expires September 1, 2027
Promoting prison contraband in the second degree.
A person is guilty of promoting prison contraband in the second degree
when:
1. He knowingly and unlawfully introduces any contraband into a
detention facility; or
2. Being a person confined in a detention facility, he knowingly and
unlawfully makes, obtains or possesses any contraband.
Promoting prison contraband in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Promoting prison contraband in the first degree.
A person is guilty of promoting prison contraband in the first degree
when:
1. He knowingly and unlawfully introduces any dangerous contraband
into a detention facility; or
2. Being a person confined in a detention facility, he knowingly and
unlawfully makes, obtains or possesses any dangerous contraband.
Promoting prison contraband in the first degree is a class D felony.
Resisting arrest.
A person is guilty of resisting arrest when he intentionally prevents
or attempts to prevent a police officer or peace officer from effecting
an authorized arrest of himself or another person.
Resisting arrest is a class A misdemeanor.
Evading arrest by concealment of identity.
A person is guilty of evading arrest by concealment of identity when,
in the course of the commission of a felony or class A misdemeanor or in
the immediate flight therefrom, such person wears a mask or facial
covering or otherwise obscures their face, completely or partially, for
no legitimate purpose with the intent to prevent their identification,
apprehension, or arrest for such crime.
Evading arrest by concealment of identity is a class B misdemeanor.
Hindering prosecution; definition of term.
As used in sections 205.55, 205.60 and 205.65, a person "renders
criminal assistance" when, with intent to prevent, hinder or delay the
discovery or apprehension of, or the lodging of a criminal charge
against, a person who he knows or believes has committed a crime or is
being sought by law enforcement officials for the commission of a crime,
or with intent to assist a person in profiting or benefiting from the
commission of a crime, he:
1. Harbors or conceals such person; or
2. Warns such person of impending discovery or apprehension; or
3. Provides such person with money, transportation, weapon, disguise
or other means of avoiding discovery or apprehension; or
4. Prevents or obstructs, by means of force, intimidation or
deception, anyone from performing an act which might aid in the
discovery or apprehension of such person or in the lodging of a criminal
charge against him; or
5. Suppresses, by any act of concealment, alteration or destruction,
any physical evidence which might aid in the discovery or apprehension
of such person or in the lodging of a criminal charge against him; or
6. Aids such person to protect or expeditiously profit from an
advantage derived from such crime.
Hindering prosecution in the third degree.
A person is guilty of hindering prosecution in the third degree when
he renders criminal assistance to a person who has committed a felony.
Hindering prosecution in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Hindering prosecution in the second degree.
A person is guilty of hindering prosecution in the second degree when
he renders criminal assistance to a person who has committed a class B
or class C felony.
Hindering prosecution in the second degree is a class E felony.
Hindering prosecution in the first degree.
A person is guilty of hindering prosecution in the first degree when
he renders criminal assistance to a person who has committed a class A
felony, knowing or believing that such person has engaged in conduct
constituting a class A felony.
Hindering prosecution in the first degree is a class D felony.
ARTICLE 210 Perjury and Related Offenses
Perjury and related offenses; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Oath" includes an affirmation and every other mode authorized by
law of attesting to the truth of that which is stated.
2. "Swear" means to state under oath.
3. "Testimony" means an oral statement made under oath in a proceeding
before any court, body, agency, public servant or other person
authorized by law to conduct such proceeding and to administer the oath
or cause it to be administered.
4. "Oath required by law." An affidavit, deposition or other
subscribed written instrument is one for which an "oath is required by
law" when, absent an oath or swearing thereto, it does not or would not,
according to statute or appropriate regulatory provisions, have legal
efficacy in a court of law or before any public or governmental body,
agency or public servant to whom it is or might be submitted.
5. "Swear falsely." A person "swears falsely" when he intentionally
makes a false statement which he does not believe to be true (a) while
giving testimony, or (b) under oath in a subscribed written instrument.
A false swearing in a subscribed written instrument shall not be deemed
complete until the instrument is delivered by its subscriber, or by
someone acting in his behalf, to another person with intent that it be
uttered or published as true.
6. "Attesting officer" means any notary public or other person
authorized by law to administer oaths in connection with affidavits,
depositions and other subscribed written instruments, and to certify
that the subscriber of such an instrument has appeared before him and
has sworn to the truth of the contents thereof.
7. "Jurat" means a clause wherein an attesting officer certifies,
among other matters, that the subscriber has appeared before him and
sworn to the truth of the contents thereof.
Perjury in the third degree.
A person is guilty of perjury in the third degree when he swears
falsely.
Perjury in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Perjury in the second degree.
A person is guilty of perjury in the second degree when he swears
falsely and when his false statement is (a) made in a subscribed written
instrument for which an oath is required by law, and (b) made with
intent to mislead a public servant in the performance of his official
functions, and (c) material to the action, proceeding or matter
involved.
Perjury in the second degree is a class E felony.
Perjury in the first degree.
A person is guilty of perjury in the first degree when he swears
falsely and when his false statement (a) consists of testimony, and (b)
is material to the action, proceeding or matter in which it is made.
Perjury in the first degree is a class D felony.
Perjury; pleading and proof where inconsistent statements
involved.
Where a person has made two statements under oath which are
inconsistent to the degree that one of them is necessarily false, where
the circumstances are such that each statement, if false, is
perjuriously so, and where each statement was made within the
jurisdiction of this state and within the period of the statute of
limitations for the crime charged, the inability of the people to
establish specifically which of the two statements is the false one does
not preclude a prosecution for perjury, and such prosecution may be
conducted as follows:
1. The indictment or information may set forth the two statements and,
without designating either, charge that one of them is false and
perjuriously made.
2. The falsity of one or the other of the two statements may be
established by proof or a showing of their irreconcilable inconsistency.
3. The highest degree of perjury of which the defendant may be
convicted is determined by hypothetically assuming each statement to be
false and perjurious. If under such circumstances perjury of the same
degree would be established by the making of each statement, the
defendant may be convicted of that degree at most. If perjury of
different degrees would be established by the making of the two
statements, the defendant may be convicted of the lesser degree at most.
Perjury; defense.
In any prosecution for perjury, it is an affirmative defense that the
defendant retracted his false statement in the course of the proceeding
in which it was made before such false statement substantially affected
the proceeding and before it became manifest that its falsity was or
would be exposed.
Perjury; no defense.
It is no defense to a prosecution for perjury that:
1. The defendant was not competent to make the false statement
alleged; or
2. The defendant mistakenly believed the false statement to be
immaterial; or
3. The oath was administered or taken in an irregular manner or that
the authority or jurisdiction of the attesting officer who administered
the oath was defective, if such defect was excusable under any statute
or rule of law.
Making an apparently sworn false statement in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of making an apparently sworn false statement in
the second degree when (a) he subscribes a written instrument knowing
that it contains a statement which is in fact false and which he does
not believe to be true, and (b) he intends or believes that such
instrument will be uttered or delivered with a jurat affixed thereto,
and (c) such instrument is uttered or delivered with a jurat affixed
thereto.
Making an apparently sworn false statement in the second degree is a
class A misdemeanor.
Making an apparently sworn false statement in the first degree.
A person is guilty of making an apparently sworn false statement in
the first degree when he commits the crime of making an apparently sworn
false statement in the second degree, and when (a) the written
instrument involved is one for which an oath is required by law, and (b)
the false statement contained therein is made with intent to mislead a
public servant in the performance of his official functions, and (c)
such false statement is material to the action, proceeding or matter
involved.
Making an apparently sworn false statement in the first degree is a
class E felony.
Making a punishable false written statement.
A person is guilty of making a punishable false written statement when
he knowingly makes a false statement, which he does not believe to be
true, in a written instrument bearing a legally authorized form notice
to the effect that false statements made therein are punishable.
Making a punishable false written statement is a class A misdemeanor.
Perjury and related offenses; requirement of corroboration.
In any prosecution for perjury, except a prosecution based upon
inconsistent statements pursuant to section 210.20, or in any
prosecution for making an apparently sworn false statement, or making a
punishable false written statement, falsity of a statement may not be
established by the uncorroborated testimony of a single witness.
ARTICLE 215 Other Offenses Relating to Judicial and Other Proceedings
Bribing a witness.
A person is guilty of bribing a witness when he confers, or offers or
agrees to confer, any benefit upon a witness or a person about to be
called as a witness in any action or proceeding upon an agreement or
understanding that (a) the testimony of such witness will thereby be
influenced, or (b) such witness will absent himself from, or otherwise
avoid or seek to avoid appearing or testifying at, such action or
proceeding.
Bribing a witness is a class D felony.
Bribe receiving by a witness.
A witness or a person about to be called as a witness in any action or
proceeding is guilty of bribe receiving by a witness when he solicits,
accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an
agreement or understanding that (a) his testimony will thereby be
influenced, or (b) he will absent himself from, or otherwise avoid or
seek to avoid appearing or testifying at, such action or proceeding.
Bribe receiving by a witness is a class D felony.
Tampering with a witness in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a witness when, knowing that a
person is or is about to be called as a witness in an action or
proceeding, (a) he wrongfully induces or attempts to induce such person
to absent himself from, or otherwise to avoid or seek to avoid appearing
or testifying at, such action or proceeding, or (b) he knowingly makes
any false statement or practices any fraud or deceit with intent to
affect the testimony of such person.
Tampering with a witness in the fourth degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Tampering with a witness in the third degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a witness in the third degree
when, knowing that a person is about to be called as a witness in a
criminal proceeding:
1. He wrongfully compels or attempts to compel such person to absent
himself from, or otherwise to avoid or seek to avoid appearing or
testifying at such proceeding by means of instilling in him a fear that
the actor will cause physical injury to such person or another person;
or
2. He wrongfully compels or attempts to compel such person to swear
falsely by means of instilling in him a fear that the actor will cause
physical injury to such person or another person.
Tampering with a witness in the third degree is a class E felony.
Tampering with a witness in the second degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a witness in the second degree
when he:
1. Intentionally causes physical injury to a person for the purpose of
obstructing, delaying, preventing or impeding the giving of testimony in
a criminal proceeding by such person or another person or for the
purpose of compelling such person or another person to swear falsely; or
2. He intentionally causes physical injury to a person on account of
such person or another person having testified in a criminal proceeding.
Tampering with a witness in the second degree is a class D felony.
Tampering with a witness in the first degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a witness in the first degree
when:
1. He intentionally causes serious physical injury to a person for the
purpose of obstructing, delaying, preventing or impeding the giving of
testimony in a criminal proceeding by such person or another person or
for the purpose of compelling such person or another person to swear
falsely; or
2. He intentionally causes serious physical injury to a person on
account of such person or another person having testified in a criminal
proceeding.
Tampering with a witness in the first degree is a class B felony.
Employer unlawfully penalizing witness or victim.
1. Any person who is the victim of an offense upon which an accusatory
instrument is based or, is subpoenaed to attend a criminal proceeding as
a witness pursuant to article six hundred ten of the criminal procedure
law or who exercises his rights as a victim as provided by section
380.50 or 390.30 of the criminal procedure law or subdivision two of
section two hundred fifty-nine-i of the executive law and who notifies
his employer or agent of his intent to appear as a witness, to consult
with the district attorney, or to exercise his rights as provided in the
criminal procedure law, the family court act and the executive law prior
to the day of his attendance, shall not on account of his absence from
employment by reason of such service be subject to discharge or penalty
except as hereinafter provided. Upon request of the employer or agent,
the party who sought the attendance or testimony shall provide
verification of the employee's service. An employer may, however,
withhold wages of any such employee during the period of such
attendance. The subjection of an employee to discharge or penalty on
account of his absence from employment by reason of his required
attendance as a witness at a criminal proceeding or consultation with
the district attorney or exercise of his rights as provided under law
shall constitute a class B misdemeanor.
2. For purposes of this section, the term "victim" shall include the
aggrieved party or the aggrieved party's next of kin, if the aggrieved
party is deceased as a result of the offense, the representative of a
victim as defined in subdivision six of section six hundred twenty-one
of the executive law, a good samaritan as defined in subdivision seven
of section six hundred twenty-one of such law or a person pursuing an
application or enforcement of an order of protection under the criminal
procedure law or the family court act.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the third degree.
A person is guilty of intimidating a victim or witness in the third
degree when, knowing that another person possesses information relating
to a criminal transaction and other than in the course of that criminal
transaction or immediate flight therefrom, he:
1. Wrongfully compels or attempts to compel such other person to
refrain from communicating such information to any court, grand jury,
prosecutor, police officer or peace officer by means of instilling in
him a fear that the actor will cause physical injury to such other
person or another person; or
2. Intentionally damages the property of such other person or another
person for the purpose of compelling such other person or another person
to refrain from communicating, or on account of such other person or
another person having communicated, information relating to that
criminal transaction to any court, grand jury, prosecutor, police
officer or peace officer.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the third degree is a class E
felony.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the second degree.
A person is guilty of intimidating a victim or witness in the second
degree when, other than in the course of that criminal transaction or
immediate flight therefrom, he:
1. Intentionally causes physical injury to another person for the
purpose of obstructing, delaying, preventing or impeding the
communication by such other person or another person of information
relating to a criminal transaction to any court, grand jury, prosecutor,
police officer or peace officer or for the purpose of compelling such
other person or another person to swear falsely; or
2. Intentionally causes physical injury to another person on account
of such other person or another person having communicated information
relating to a criminal transaction to any court, grand jury, prosecutor,
police officer or peace officer; or
3. Recklessly causes physical injury to another person by
intentionally damaging the property of such other person or another
person, for the purpose of obstructing, delaying, preventing or impeding
such other person or another person from communicating, or on account of
such other person or another person having communicated, information
relating to a criminal transaction to any court, grand jury, prosecutor,
police officer or peace officer.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the second degree is a class D
felony.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the first degree.
A person is guilty of intimidating a victim or witness in the first
degree when, other than in the course of that criminal transaction or
immediate flight therefrom, he:
1. Intentionally causes serious physical injury to another person for
the purpose of obstructing, delaying, preventing or impeding the
communication by such other person or another person of information
relating to a criminal transaction to any court, grand jury, prosecutor,
police officer or peace officer or for the purpose of compelling such
other person or another person to swear falsely; or
2. Intentionally causes serious physical injury to another person on
account of such other person or another person having communicated
information relating to a criminal transaction to any court, grand jury,
prosecutor, police officer or peace officer.
Intimidating a victim or witness in the first degree is a class B
felony.
Bribing a juror.
A person is guilty of bribing a juror when he confers, or offers or
agrees to confer, any benefit upon a juror upon an agreement or
understanding that such juror's vote, opinion, judgment, decision or
other action as a juror will thereby be influenced.
Bribing a juror is a class D felony.
Bribe receiving by a juror.
A juror is guilty of bribe receiving by a juror when he solicits,
accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an
agreement or understanding that his vote, opinion, judgment, decision or
other action as a juror will thereby be influenced.
Bribe receiving by a juror is a class D felony.
Providing a juror with a gratuity.
A person is guilty of providing a juror with a gratuity when he or
she, having been a party in a concluded civil or criminal action or
proceeding or having been a person with regard to whom a grand jury has
taken action pursuant to any subdivision of section 190.60 of the
criminal procedure law (or acting on behalf of such a party or such a
person), directly or indirectly confers, offers to confer or agrees to
confer upon a person whom he or she knows has served as a juror in such
action or proceeding or on such grand jury any benefit with intent to
reward such person for such service.
Providing a juror with a gratuity is a class A misdemeanor.
Tampering with a juror in the second degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a juror in the second degree
when, prior to discharge of the jury, he:
1. confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any payment or benefit upon
a juror or upon a third person acting on behalf of such juror, in
consideration for such juror or third person supplying information in
relation to an action or proceeding pending or about to be brought
before such juror; or
2. acting on behalf of a juror, accepts or agrees to accept any
payment or benefit for himself or for such juror, in consideration for
supplying any information in relation to an action or proceeding pending
or about to be brought before such juror and prior to his discharge.
Tampering with a juror in the second degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Tampering with a juror in the first degree.
A person is guilty of tampering with a juror in the first degree when,
with intent to influence the outcome of an action or proceeding, he
communicates with a juror in such action or proceeding, except as
authorized by law.
Tampering with a juror in the first degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Misconduct by a juror in the second degree.
A person is guilty of misconduct by a juror in the second degree when,
in relation to an action or proceeding pending or about to be brought
before him and prior to discharge, he accepts or agrees to accept any
payment or benefit for himself or for a third person in consideration
for supplying any information concerning such action or proceeding.
Misconduct by a juror in the second degree is a violation.
Misconduct by a juror in the first degree.
A juror is guilty of misconduct by a juror in the first degree when,
in relation to an action or proceeding pending or about to be brought
before him, he agrees to give a vote, opinion, judgment, decision or
report for or against any party to such action or proceeding.
Misconduct by a juror in the first degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Tampering with physical evidence; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to section 215.40:
1. "Physical evidence" means any article, object, document, record or
other thing of physical substance which is or is about to be produced or
used as evidence in an official proceeding.
2. "Official proceeding" means any action or proceeding conducted by
or before a legally constituted judicial, legislative, administrative or
other governmental agency or official, in which evidence may properly be
received.
Tampering with physical evidence.
A person is guilty of tampering with physical evidence when:
1. With intent that it be used or introduced in an official proceeding
or a prospective official proceeding, he (a) knowingly makes, devises or
prepares false physical evidence, or (b) produces or offers such
evidence at such a proceeding knowing it to be false; or
2. Believing that certain physical evidence is about to be produced or
used in an official proceeding or a prospective official proceeding, and
intending to prevent such production or use, he suppresses it by any act
of concealment, alteration or destruction, or by employing force,
intimidation or deception against any person.
Tampering with physical evidence is a class E felony.
Compounding a crime.
1. A person is guilty of compounding a crime when:
(a) He solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit upon an
agreement or understanding that he will refrain from initiating a
prosecution for a crime; or
(b) He confers, or offers or agrees to confer, any benefit upon
another person upon an agreement or understanding that such other person
will refrain from initiating a prosecution for a crime.
2. In any prosecution under this section, it is an affirmative defense
that the benefit did not exceed an amount which the defendant reasonably
believed to be due as restitution or indemnification for harm caused by
the crime.
Compounding a crime is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal contempt in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal contempt in the second degree when he
engages in any of the following conduct:
1. Disorderly, contemptuous, or insolent behavior, committed during
the sitting of a court, in its immediate view and presence and directly
tending to interrupt its proceedings or to impair the respect due to its
authority; or
2. Breach of the peace, noise, or other disturbance, directly tending
to interrupt a court's proceedings; or
3. Intentional disobedience or resistance to the lawful process or
other mandate of a court except in cases involving or growing out of
labor disputes as defined by subdivision two of section seven hundred
fifty-three-a of the judiciary law; or
4. Contumacious and unlawful refusal to be sworn as a witness in any
court proceeding or, after being sworn, to answer any legal and proper
interrogatory; or
5. Knowingly publishing a false or grossly inaccurate report of a
court's proceedings; or
6. Intentional failure to obey any mandate, process or notice, issued
pursuant to articles sixteen, seventeen, eighteen, or eighteen-a of the
judiciary law, or to rules adopted pursuant to any such statute or to
any special statute establishing commissioners of jurors and prescribing
their duties or who refuses to be sworn as provided therein; or
7. On or along a public street or sidewalk within a radius of two
hundred feet of any building established as a courthouse, he calls
aloud, shouts, holds or displays placards or signs containing written or
printed matter, concerning the conduct of a trial being held in such
courthouse or the character of the court or jury engaged in such trial
or calling for or demanding any specified action or determination by
such court or jury in connection with such trial.
Criminal contempt in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal contempt in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal contempt in the first degree when:
(a) he contumaciously and unlawfully refuses to be sworn as a witness
before a grand jury, or, when after having been sworn as a witness
before a grand jury, he refuses to answer any legal and proper
interrogatory; or
(b) in violation of a duly served order of protection, or such order
of which the defendant has actual knowledge because he or she was
present in court when such order was issued, or an order of protection
issued by a court of competent jurisdiction in this or another state,
territorial or tribal jurisdiction, he or she:
(i) intentionally places or attempts to place a person for whose
protection such order was issued in reasonable fear of physical injury,
serious physical injury or death by displaying a deadly weapon,
dangerous instrument or what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle,
shotgun, machine gun or other firearm or by means of a threat or
threats; or
(ii) intentionally places or attempts to place a person for whose
protection such order was issued in reasonable fear of physical injury,
serious physical injury or death by repeatedly following such person or
engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts over a
period of time; or
(iii) intentionally places or attempts to place a person for whose
protection such order was issued in reasonable fear of physical injury,
serious physical injury or death when he or she communicates or causes a
communication to be initiated with such person by mechanical or
electronic means or otherwise, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone,
or by telegraph, mail or any other form of written communication; or
(iv) with intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm a person for
whose protection such order was issued, repeatedly makes telephone calls
to such person, whether or not a conversation ensues, with no purpose of
legitimate communication; or
(v) with intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm a person for whose
protection such order was issued, strikes, shoves, kicks or otherwise
subjects such other person to physical contact or attempts or threatens
to do the same; or
(vi) by physical menace, intentionally places or attempts to place a
person for whose protection such order was issued in reasonable fear of
death, imminent serious physical injury or physical injury.
(c) he or she commits the crime of criminal contempt in the second
degree as defined in subdivision three of section 215.50 of this article
by violating that part of a duly served order of protection, or such
order of which the defendant has actual knowledge because he or she was
present in court when such order was issued, under sections two hundred
forty and two hundred fifty-two of the domestic relations law, articles
four, five, six and eight of the family court act and section 530.12 of
the criminal procedure law, or an order of protection issued by a court
of competent jurisdiction in another state, territorial or tribal
jurisdiction, which requires the respondent or defendant to stay away
from the person or persons on whose behalf the order was issued, and
where the defendant has been previously convicted of the crime of
aggravated criminal contempt or criminal contempt in the first or second
degree for violating an order of protection as described herein within
the preceding five years; or
(d) in violation of a duly served order of protection, or such order
of which the defendant has actual knowledge because he or she was
present in court when such order was issued, or an order issued by a
court of competent jurisdiction in this or another state, territorial or
tribal jurisdiction, he or she intentionally or recklessly damages the
property of a person for whose protection such order was issued in an
amount exceeding two hundred fifty dollars.
Criminal contempt in the first degree is a class E felony.
Aggravated criminal contempt.
A person is guilty of aggravated criminal contempt when:
1. in violation of a duly served order of protection, or such order of
which the defendant has actual knowledge because he or she was present
in court when such order was issued, or an order of protection issued by
a court of competent jurisdiction in another state, territorial or
tribal jurisdiction, he or she intentionally or recklessly causes
physical injury or serious physical injury to a person for whose
protection such order was issued; or
2. he or she commits the crime of criminal contempt in the first
degree as defined in subdivision (b) or (d) of section 215.51 of this
article and has been previously convicted of the crime of aggravated
criminal contempt; or
3. he or she commits the crime of criminal contempt in the first
degree, as defined in paragraph (i), (ii), (iii), (v) or (vi) of
subdivision (b) or subdivision (c) of section 215.51 of this article,
and has been previously convicted of the crime of criminal contempt in
the first degree, as defined in such subdivision (b), (c) or (d) of
section 215.51 of this article, within the preceding five years.
Aggravated criminal contempt is a class D felony.
Criminal contempt; prosecution and punishment.
Adjudication for criminal contempt under subdivision A of section
seven hundred fifty of the judiciary law shall not bar a prosecution for
the crime of criminal contempt under section 215.50 based upon the same
conduct but, upon conviction thereunder, the court, in sentencing the
defendant shall take the previous punishment into consideration.
Bail jumping in the third degree.
A person is guilty of bail jumping in the third degree when by court
order he has been released from custody or allowed to remain at liberty,
either upon bail or upon his own recognizance, upon condition that he
will subsequently appear personally in connection with a criminal action
or proceeding, and when he does not appear personally on the required
date or voluntarily within thirty days thereafter.
Bail jumping in the third degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Bail jumping in the second degree.
A person is guilty of bail jumping in the second degree when by court
order he has been released from custody or allowed to remain at liberty,
either upon bail or upon his own recognizance, upon condition that he
will subsequently appear personally in connection with a charge against
him of committing a felony, and when he does not appear personally on
the required date or voluntarily within thirty days thereafter.
Bail jumping in the second degree is a class E felony.
Bail jumping in the first degree.
A person is guilty of bail jumping in the first degree when by court
order he has been released from custody or allowed to remain at liberty,
either upon bail or upon his own recognizance, upon condition that he
will subsequently appear personally in connection with an indictment
pending against him which charges him with the commission of a class A
or class B felony, and when he does not appear personally on the
required date or voluntarily within thirty days thereafter.
Bail jumping in the first degree is a class D felony.
Failing to respond to an appearance ticket.
1. A person is guilty of failing to respond to an appearance ticket
when, having been personally served with an appearance ticket, as
defined in subdivision two, based upon his alleged commission of a
crime, he does not appear personally in the court in which such
appearance ticket is returnable on the return date thereof or
voluntarily within thirty days thereafter.
2. As used in this section, an appearance ticket means a written
notice, whether referred to as a summons or by any other name, issued by
a police officer, peace officer or other non-judicial public servant
authorized by law to issue the same, directing a designated person to
appear in a designated court at a designated future time in connection
with a criminal action to be instituted in such court with respect to
his alleged commission of a designated offense.
3. This section does not apply to any case in which an alternative to
response to an appearance ticket is authorized by law and the actor
complies with such alternative procedure.
Failing to respond to an appearance ticket is a violation.
Bail jumping and failing to respond to an appearance ticket;
defense.
In any prosecution for bail jumping or failing to respond to an
appearance ticket, it is an affirmative defense that:
1. The defendant's failure to appear on the required date or within
thirty days thereafter was unavoidable and due to circumstances beyond
his control; and
2. During the period extending from the expiration of the thirty day
period to the commencement of the action, the defendant either:
(a) appeared voluntarily as soon as he was able to do so, or
(b) although he did not so appear, such failure of appearance was
unavoidable and due to circumstances beyond his control.
Criminal contempt of the legislature.
A person is guilty of criminal contempt of the legislature when,
having been duly subpoenaed to attend as a witness before either house
of the legislature or before any committee thereof, he:
1. Fails or refuses to attend without lawful excuse; or
2. Refuses to be sworn; or
3. Refuses to answer any material and proper question; or
4. Refuses, after reasonable notice, to produce books, papers, or
documents in his possession or under his control which constitute
material and proper evidence.
Criminal contempt of the legislature is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal contempt of a temporary state commission.
A person is guilty of criminal contempt of a temporary state
commission when, having been duly subpoenaed to attend as a witness at
an investigation or hearing before a temporary state commission, he
fails or refuses to attend without lawful excuse.
Criminal contempt of a temporary state commission is a class A
misdemeanor.
Criminal contempt of the state commission on judicial conduct.
A person is guilty of criminal contempt of the state commission on
judicial conduct when, having been duly subpoenaed to attend as a
witness at an investigation or hearing before the commission or a
referee designated by the commission, he fails or refuses to attend
without lawful excuse.
Criminal contempt of the state commission on judicial conduct is a
class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful grand jury disclosure.
A person is guilty of unlawful grand jury disclosure when, being a
grand juror, a public prosecutor, a grand jury stenographer, a grand
jury interpreter, a police officer or a peace officer guarding a witness
in a grand jury proceeding, or a clerk, attendant, warden or other
public servant having official duties in or about a grand jury room or
proceeding, or a public officer or public employee, he intentionally
discloses to another the nature or substance of any grand jury
testimony, or any decision, result or other matter attending a grand
jury proceeding which is required by law to be kept secret, except in
the proper discharge of his official duties or upon written order of the
court. Nothing contained herein shall prohibit a witness from
disclosing his own testimony.
Unlawful grand jury disclosure is a class E felony.
Unlawful disclosure of an indictment.
A public servant is guilty of unlawful disclosure of an indictment
when, except in the proper discharge of his official duties, he
intentionally discloses the fact that an indictment has been found or
filed before the accused person is in custody.
Unlawful disclosure of an indictment is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawful disposition of assets subject to forfeiture.
Any defendant in a forfeiture action pursuant to article thirteen-A of
the civil practice law and rules who knowingly and intentionally
conceals, destroys, dissipates, alters, removes from the jurisdiction,
or otherwise disposes of, property specified in a provisional remedy
ordered by the court or in a judgment of forfeiture in knowing contempt
of said order shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
TITLE M Offenses Against Public Health and Morals
TITLE N Offenses Against Public Order, Public Sensibilities and the Right to Privacy
ARTICLE 240 Offenses Against Public Order
Offenses against public order; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Public place" means a place to which the public or a substantial
group of persons has access, and includes, but is not limited to,
highways, transportation facilities, schools, places of amusement,
parks, playgrounds, community centers, and hallways, lobbies and other
portions of apartment houses and hotels not constituting rooms or
apartments designed for actual residence.
2. "Transportation facility" means any conveyance, premises or place
used for or in connection with public passenger transportation, whether
by air, railroad, motor vehicle or any other method. It includes
aircraft, watercraft, railroad cars, buses, school buses as defined in
section one hundred forty-two of the vehicle and traffic law, and air,
boat, railroad and bus terminals and stations and all appurtenances
thereto.
3. "School grounds" means in or on or within any building, structure,
school bus as defined in section one hundred forty-two of the vehicle
and traffic law, athletic playing field, playground or land contained
within the real property boundary line of a public or private
elementary, parochial, intermediate, junior high, vocational or high
school.
4. "Hazardous substance" shall mean any physical, chemical,
microbiological or radiological substance or matter which, because of
its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical or infectious
characteristics, may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating
reversible illness, or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to
human health.
5. "Age" means sixty years old or more.
6. "Disability" means a physical or mental impairment that
substantially limits a major life activity.
7. "Gender identity or expression" means a person's actual or
perceived gender-related identity, appearance, behavior, expression, or
other gender-related characteristic regardless of the sex assigned to
that person at birth, including, but not limited to, the status of being
transgender.
8. "Place of religious worship" means any building or structure that a
reasonable person would know that religious adherents collectively
recognize as a place to regularly gather for or hold religious services,
observance, prayer, assembly, education, instruction, or devotional
practice, including community centers, and shall include its entrance,
entryway, exit, parking lot, parking lot entrance, driveway, driveway
entrance, or sidewalk that touches such places.
Riot in the second degree.
A person is guilty of riot in the second degree when, simultaneously
with four or more other persons, he engages in tumultuous and violent
conduct and thereby intentionally or recklessly causes or creates a
grave risk of causing public alarm.
Riot in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Riot in the first degree.
A person is guilty of riot in the first degree when he:
1. Simultaneously with ten or more other persons, engages in
tumultuous and violent conduct and thereby intentionally or recklessly
causes or creates a grave risk of causing public alarm, and in the
course of and as a result of such conduct, a person other than one of
the participants suffers physical injury or substantial property damage
occurs; or
2. While in a correctional facility or a local correctional facility,
as those terms are defined in subdivisions four and sixteen,
respectively, of section two of the correction law, simultaneously with
ten or more other persons, engages in tumultuous and violent conduct and
thereby intentionally or recklessly causes or creates a grave risk of
causing alarm within such correctional facility or local correctional
facility and in the course of and as a result of such conduct, a person
other than one of the participants suffers physical injury or
substantial property damage occurs.
Riot in the first degree is a class E felony.
Inciting to riot.
A person is guilty of inciting to riot when he urges ten or more
persons to engage in tumultuous and violent conduct of a kind likely to
create public alarm.
Inciting to riot is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful assembly.
A person is guilty of unlawful assembly when he assembles with four or
more other persons for the purpose of engaging or preparing to engage
with them in tumultuous and violent conduct likely to cause public
alarm, or when, being present at an assembly which either has or
develops such purpose, he remains there with intent to advance that
purpose.
Unlawful assembly is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal anarchy.
A person is guilty of criminal anarchy when (a) he advocates the
overthrow of the existing form of government of this state by violence,
or (b) with knowledge of its contents, he publishes, sells or
distributes any document which advocates such violent overthrow, or (c)
with knowledge of its purpose, he becomes a member of any organization
which advocates such violent overthrow.
Criminal anarchy is a class E felony.
Disorderly conduct.
A person is guilty of disorderly conduct when, with intent to cause
public inconvenience, annoyance or alarm, or recklessly creating a risk
thereof:
1. He engages in fighting or in violent, tumultuous or threatening
behavior; or
2. He makes unreasonable noise; or
3. In a public place, he uses abusive or obscene language, or makes an
obscene gesture; or
4. Without lawful authority, he disturbs any lawful assembly or
meeting of persons; or
5. He obstructs vehicular or pedestrian traffic; or
6. He congregates with other persons in a public place and refuses to
comply with a lawful order of the police to disperse; or
7. He creates a hazardous or physically offensive condition by any act
which serves no legitimate purpose.
Disorderly conduct is a violation.
Disruption or disturbance of a religious service, funeral,
burial or memorial service.
A person is guilty of disruption or disturbance of a religious
service, funeral, burial or memorial service when he or she makes
unreasonable noise or disturbance while at a lawfully assembled
religious service, funeral, burial or memorial service, or within three
hundred feet thereof, with intent to cause annoyance or alarm or
recklessly creating a risk thereof.
Disruption or disturbance of a religious service, funeral, burial or
memorial service is a class A misdemeanor.
Harassment in the first degree.
A person is guilty of harassment in the first degree when he or she
intentionally and repeatedly harasses another person by following such
person in or about a public place or places or by engaging in a course
of conduct or by repeatedly committing acts which places such person in
reasonable fear of physical injury. This section shall not apply to
activities regulated by the national labor relations act, as amended,
the railway labor act, as amended, or the federal employment labor
management act, as amended.
Harassment in the first degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Harassment in the second degree.
A person is guilty of harassment in the second degree when, with
intent to harass, annoy or alarm another person:
1. He or she strikes, shoves, kicks or otherwise subjects such other
person to physical contact, or attempts or threatens to do the same; or
2. He or she follows a person in or about a public place or places; or
3. He or she engages in a course of conduct or repeatedly commits acts
which alarm or seriously annoy such other person and which serve no
legitimate purpose.
Subdivisions two and three of this section shall not apply to
activities regulated by the national labor relations act, as amended,
the railway labor act, as amended, or the federal employment labor
management act, as amended.
Harassment in the second degree is a violation.
Aggravated harassment in the second degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated harassment in the second degree when:
1. With intent to harass another person, the actor either:
(a) communicates, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, by computer
or any other electronic means, or by mail, or by transmitting or
delivering any other form of communication, a threat to cause physical
harm to, or unlawful harm to the property of, such person, or a member
of such person's same family or household as defined in subdivision one
of section 530.11 of the criminal procedure law, and the actor knows or
reasonably should know that such communication will cause such person to
reasonably fear harm to such person's physical safety or property, or to
the physical safety or property of a member of such person's same family
or household; or
(b) causes a communication to be initiated anonymously or otherwise,
by telephone, by computer or any other electronic means, or by mail, or
by transmitting or delivering any other form of communication, a threat
to cause physical harm to, or unlawful harm to the property of, such
person, a member of such person's same family or household as defined in
subdivision one of section 530.11 of the criminal procedure law, and the
actor knows or reasonably should know that such communication will cause
such person to reasonably fear harm to such person's physical safety or
property, or to the physical safety or property of a member of such
person's same family or household; or
2. With intent to harass or threaten another person, he or she makes a
telephone call, whether or not a conversation ensues, with no purpose of
legitimate communication; or
3. With the intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm another person,
he or she strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise subjects another person
to physical contact, including removing a religious clothing article or
headdress from such person, or attempts or threatens to do the same
because of a belief or perception regarding such person's race, color,
national origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression,
religion, religious practice, age, disability or sexual orientation,
regardless of whether the belief or perception is correct; or
3-a. With the intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm another
person, such person strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise subjects
another person to physical contact, which includes spitting on such
other person, and such other person is a train operator, ticket
inspector, conductor, signalperson, bus operator, station agent, station
cleaner, terminal cleaner, station customer assistant, traffic checker;
person whose official duties include the sale or collection of tickets,
passes, vouchers, or other revenue payment media for use on a train,
bus, or ferry or the collection or handling of revenues therefrom; a
person whose official duties include the maintenance, repair,
inspection, troubleshooting, testing or cleaning of buses or ferries, a
transit signal system, elevated or underground subway tracks, transit
station structure, including fare equipment, escalators, elevators and
other equipment necessary to passenger service, commuter rail tracks or
stations, train yard, revenue train in passenger service, a ferry
station, or a train or bus station or terminal; or a supervisor of such
personnel, employed by any transit agency, authority or company, public
or private, whose operation is authorized by New York state or any of
its political subdivisions while such individual is performing an
assigned duty; or
4. With the intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm another person,
he or she strikes, shoves, kicks or otherwise subjects another person to
physical contact thereby causing physical injury to such person or to a
family or household member of such person as defined in section 530.11
of the criminal procedure law; or
5. He or she commits the crime of harassment in the first degree and
has previously been convicted of the crime of harassment in the first
degree as defined by section 240.25 of this article within the preceding
ten years.
Aggravated harassment in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Aggravated harassment in the first degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated harassment in the first degree when
with intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm another person, because
of a belief or perception regarding such person's race, color, national
origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression, religion,
religious practice, age, disability or sexual orientation, regardless of
whether the belief or perception is correct, he or she:
1. Damages premises primarily used for religious purposes, or acquired
pursuant to section six of the religious corporation law and maintained
for purposes of religious instruction, and the damage to the premises
exceeds fifty dollars; or
2. Commits the crime of aggravated harassment in the second degree in
the manner proscribed by the provisions of subdivision three of section
240.30 of this article and has been previously convicted of the crime of
aggravated harassment in the second degree for the commission of conduct
proscribed by the provisions of subdivision three of section 240.30 or
he or she has been previously convicted of the crime of aggravated
harassment in the first degree within the preceding ten years; or
3. Etches, paints, draws upon or otherwise places a swastika, commonly
exhibited as the emblem of Nazi Germany, on any building or other real
property, public or private, owned by any person, firm or corporation or
any public agency or instrumentality, without express permission of the
owner or operator of such building or real property;
4. Sets on fire a cross in public view; or
5. Etches, paints, draws upon or otherwise places or displays a noose,
commonly exhibited as a symbol of racism and intimidation, on any
building or other real property, public or private, owned by any person,
firm or corporation or any public agency or instrumentality, without
express permission of the owner or operator of such building or real
property.
Aggravated harassment in the first degree is a class E felony.
Aggravated harassment of an employee by an incarcerated
individual.
An incarcerated individual or respondent is guilty of aggravated
harassment of an employee by an incarcerated individual when, with
intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm a person in a facility whom
he or she knows or reasonably should know to be an employee of such
facility or the board of parole or the office of mental health, or a
probation department, bureau or unit or a police officer, he or she
causes or attempts to cause such employee to come into contact with
blood, seminal fluid, urine, feces, or the contents of a toilet bowl, by
throwing, tossing or expelling such fluid or material.
For purposes of this section, "incarcerated individual" means an
incarcerated individual or detainee in a correctional facility, local
correctional facility or a hospital, as such term is defined in
subdivision two of section four hundred of the correction law. For
purposes of this section, "respondent" means a juvenile in a secure
facility operated and maintained by the office of children and family
services who is placed with or committed to the office of children and
family services. For purposes of this section, "facility" means a
correctional facility or local correctional facility, hospital, as such
term is defined in subdivision two of section four hundred of the
correction law, or a secure facility operated and maintained by the
office of children and family services.
Aggravated harassment of an employee by an incarcerated individual is
a class E felony.
Aggravated harassment of a judge.
A person is guilty of aggravated harassment of a judge when:
1. With intent to harass another person, the actor either:
(a) communicates, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, by computer
or any other electronic means, or by mail, or by transmitting or
delivering any other form of communication, a threat to cause physical
harm to, or unlawful harm to the property of, a person the actor knows
or reasonably should know is a judge, or a member of such judge's
immediate family, and the actor knows or reasonably should know that
such communication will cause such judge to reasonably fear harm to such
judge's physical safety or property, or to the physical safety or
property of a member of such judge's immediate family; or
(b) causes a communication to be initiated anonymously or otherwise,
by telephone, by computer or any other electronic means, or by mail, or
by transmitting or delivering any other form of communication, a threat
to cause physical harm to, or unlawful harm to the property of, a person
the actor knows or reasonably should know is a judge, or a member of
such judge's immediate family, and the actor knows or reasonably should
know that such communication will cause such judge to reasonably fear
harm to such person's physical safety or property, or to the physical
safety or property of a member of such judge's immediate family; or
2. With intent to harass or threaten a person the actor knows or
reasonably should know is a judge or a member of such judge's immediate
family, the actor makes a telephone call, whether or not a conversation
ensues, with no purpose of legitimate communication; or
3. With the intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm a person the
actor knows or reasonably should know is a judge or a member of such
judge's immediate family, the actor strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise
subjects another person to physical contact, or attempts or threatens to
do the same because of a belief or perception regarding such person's
race, color, national origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or
expression, religion, religious practice, age, disability or sexual
orientation, regardless of whether the belief or perception is correct;
or
4. With the intent to harass, annoy, threaten or alarm a person the
actor knows or reasonably should know is a judge or a member of such
judge's immediate family, the actor strikes, shoves, kicks or otherwise
subjects another person to physical contact thereby causing physical
injury to such person or to an immediate family member of such person;
or
5. The actor commits the crime of harassment in the first degree
against a person the actor knows or reasonably should know is a judge or
a member of such judge's immediate family and has previously been
convicted of the crime of harassment in the first degree as defined by
section 240.25 of this article within the preceding ten years.
For purposes of this section: "judge" shall mean a judge of a court of
record or a justice court; and "immediate family" shall have the same
meaning as defined in section 120.40 of this chapter.
Aggravated harassment of a judge is a class E felony.
Loitering.
A person is guilty of loitering when he:
2. Loiters or remains in a public place for the purpose of gambling
with cards, dice or other gambling paraphernalia; or
5. Loiters or remains in or about school grounds, a college or
university building or grounds or a children's overnight camp as defined
in section one thousand three hundred ninety-two of the public health
law or a summer day camp as defined in section one thousand three
hundred ninety-two of the public health law, or loiters, remains in or
enters a school bus as defined in section one hundred forty-two of the
vehicle and traffic law, not having any reason or relationship involving
custody of or responsibility for a pupil or student, or any other
specific, legitimate reason for being there, and not having written
permission from anyone authorized to grant the same or loiters or
remains in or about such children's overnight camp or summer day camp in
violation of conspicuously posted rules or regulations governing entry
and use thereof; or
6. Loiters or remains in any transportation facility, unless
specifically authorized to do so, for the purpose of soliciting or
engaging in any business, trade or commercial transactions involving the
sale of merchandise or services, or for the purpose of entertaining
persons by singing, dancing or playing any musical instrument; or
Loitering is a violation.
Loitering in the first degree.
A person is guilty of loitering in the first degree when he loiters or
remains in any place with one or more persons for the purpose of
unlawfully using or possessing a controlled substance, as defined in
section 220.00 of this chapter.
Loitering in the first degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Appearance in public under the influence of narcotics or a drug
other than alcohol.
A person is guilty of appearance in public under the influence of
narcotics or a drug other than alcohol when he appears in a public place
under the influence of narcotics or a drug other than alcohol to the
degree that he may endanger himself or other persons or property, or
annoy persons in his vicinity.
Appearance in public under the influence of narcotics or a drug other
than alcohol is a violation.
Criminal nuisance in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal nuisance in the second degree when:
1. By conduct either unlawful in itself or unreasonable under all the
circumstances, he knowingly or recklessly creates or maintains a
condition which endangers the safety or health of a considerable number
of persons; or
2. He knowingly conducts or maintains any premises, place or resort
where persons gather for purposes of engaging in unlawful conduct.
Criminal nuisance in the second degree is a class B misdemeanor.
Criminal nuisance in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal nuisance in the first degree when he
knowingly conducts or maintains any premises, place or resort where
persons come or gather for purposes of engaging in the unlawful sale of
controlled substances in violation of section 220.39, 220.41, or 220.43
of this chapter, and thereby derives the benefit from such unlawful
conduct.
Criminal nuisance in the first degree is a class E felony.
Disseminating a false registered sex offender notice.
A person is guilty of disseminating a false registered sex offender
notice when, knowing the information he or she disseminates or causes to
be disseminated to be false or baseless, such person disseminates or
causes to be disseminated any notice which purports to be an official
notice from a government agency or a law enforcement agency and such
notice asserts that an individual is a registered sex offender.
Disseminating a false registered sex offender notice is a class A
misdemeanor.
Falsely reporting an incident in the third degree.
A person is guilty of falsely reporting an incident in the third
degree when, knowing the information reported, conveyed or circulated to
be false or baseless, he or she:
1. Initiates or circulates a false report or warning of an alleged
occurrence or impending occurrence of a crime, catastrophe or emergency
under circumstances in which it is not unlikely that public alarm or
inconvenience will result; or
2. Reports, by word or action, to an official or quasi-official agency
or organization having the function of dealing with emergencies
involving danger to life or property, an alleged occurrence or impending
occurrence of a catastrophe or emergency which did not in fact occur or
does not in fact exist; or
3. Gratuitously reports to a law enforcement officer or agency (a) the
alleged occurrence of an offense or incident which did not in fact
occur; or (b) an allegedly impending occurrence of an offense or
incident which in fact is not about to occur; or (c) false information
relating to an actual offense or incident or to the alleged implication
of some person therein; or
4. Reports, by word or action, an alleged occurrence or condition of
child abuse or maltreatment or abuse or neglect of a vulnerable person
which did not in fact occur or exist to:
(a) the statewide central register of child abuse and maltreatment, as
defined in title six of article six of the social services law or the
vulnerable persons' central register as defined in article eleven of
such law, or
(b) any person required to report cases of suspected child abuse or
maltreatment pursuant to subdivision one of section four hundred
thirteen of the social services law or to report cases of suspected
abuse or neglect of a vulnerable person pursuant to section four hundred
ninety-one of such law, knowing that the person is required to report
such cases, and with the intent that such an alleged occurrence be
reported to the statewide central register or vulnerable persons'
central register.
Falsely reporting an incident in the third degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Falsely reporting an incident in the second degree.
A person is guilty of falsely reporting an incident in the second
degree when, knowing the information reported, conveyed or circulated to
be false or baseless, he or she:
1. Initiates or circulates a false report or warning of an alleged
occurrence or impending occurrence of a fire, explosion, or the release
of a hazardous substance under circumstances in which it is not unlikely
that public alarm or inconvenience will result;
2. Reports, by word or action, to any official or quasi-official
agency or organization having the function of dealing with emergencies
involving danger to life or property, an alleged occurrence or impending
occurrence of a fire, explosion, or the release of a hazardous substance
which did not in fact occur or does not in fact exist; or
3. Knowing the information reported, conveyed or circulated to be
false or baseless and under circumstances in which it is likely public
alarm or inconvenience will result, he or she initiates or circulates a
report or warning of an alleged occurrence or an impending occurrence of
a fire, an explosion, or the release of a hazardous substance upon any
private premises.
Falsely reporting an incident in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Falsely reporting an incident in the first degree.
A person is guilty of falsely reporting an incident in the first
degree when he:
1. commits the crime of falsely reporting an incident in the second
degree as defined in section 240.55 of this article, and has previously
been convicted of that crime; or
2. commits the crime of falsely reporting an incident in the third
degree as defined in subdivisions one and two of section 240.50 of this
article or falsely reporting an incident in the second degree as defined
in subdivisions one and two of section 240.55 of this article and
another person who is an employee or member of any official or
quasi-official agency having the function of dealing with emergencies
involving danger to life or property; or who is a volunteer firefighter
with a fire department, fire company, or any unit thereof as defined in
the volunteer firefighters' benefit law; or who is a volunteer ambulance
worker with a volunteer ambulance corporation or any unit thereof as
defined in the volunteer ambulance workers' benefit law suffers serious
physical injury or is killed in the performance of his or her official
duties in traveling to or working at or returning to a firehouse, police
station, quarters or other base facility from the location identified in
such report; or
3. commits the crime of falsely reporting an incident in the third
degree as defined in subdivisions one and two of section 240.50 of this
article or falsely reporting an incident in the second degree as defined
in subdivisions one and two of section 240.55 of this article and
another person suffers serious physical injury or is killed as a result
of any vehicular or other accident involving any emergency vehicle which
is responding to, operating at, or returning from the location
identified in such report.
4. An emergency vehicle as referred to in subdivision three of this
section shall include any vehicle operated by any employee or member of
any official or quasi-official agency having the function of dealing
with emergencies involving danger to life or property and shall include,
but not necessarily be limited to, an emergency vehicle which is
operated by a volunteer firefighter with a fire department, fire
company, or any unit thereof as defined in the volunteer firefighters'
benefit law; or by a volunteer ambulance worker with a volunteer
ambulance corporation, or any unit thereof as defined in the volunteer
ambulance workers' benefit law.
5. Knowing the information reported, conveyed or circulated to be
false or baseless and under circumstances in which it is likely public
alarm or inconvenience will result, he or she initiates or circulates a
report or warning of an alleged occurrence or an impending occurrence of
a fire, an explosion, or the release of a hazardous substance upon
school grounds and it is likely that persons are present on said
grounds.
6. Knowing the information reported, conveyed or circulated to be
false or baseless and under circumstances in which it is likely public
alarm or inconvenience will result, he or she initiates or circulates a
report or warning of an alleged occurrence or impending occurrence of a
fire, explosion or the release of a hazardous substance in or upon a
sports stadium or arena, mass transportation facility, enclosed shopping
mall, any public building or any public place, and it is likely that
persons are present. For purposes of this subdivision, the terms "sports
stadium or arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed shopping
mall" shall have their natural meaning and the term "public building"
shall have the meaning set forth in section four hundred one of the
executive law.
Falsely reporting an incident in the first degree is a class D felony.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in
the second degree when he or she places, or causes to be placed, any
device or object that by its design, construction, content or
characteristics appears to be or to contain, a bomb, destructive device,
explosive or hazardous substance, but is, in fact, an inoperative
facsimile or imitation of such a bomb, destructive device, explosive or
hazardous substance and which he or she knows, intends or reasonably
believes will appear to be a bomb, destructive device, explosive or
hazardous substance under circumstances in which it is likely to cause
public alarm or inconvenience.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in the second degree is a
class E felony.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in
the first degree when he or she places, or causes to be placed, in or
upon school grounds, a public building, or a public place any device or
object that by its design, construction, content or characteristics
appears to be or to contain, a bomb, destructive device, explosive or
hazardous substance, but is, in fact, an inoperative facsimile or
imitation of such a bomb, destructive device, explosive or hazardous
substance and which he or she knows, intends or reasonably believes will
appear to be a bomb, destructive device, explosive or hazardous
substance under circumstances in which it is likely to cause public
alarm or inconvenience. For purposes of this section the term "public
building" shall have the meaning set forth in section four hundred one
of the executive law.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in the first degree is a
class D felony.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in a sports stadium
or arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed shopping
mall.
A person is guilty of placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in a
sports stadium or arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed
shopping mall when he or she places, or causes to be placed, in a sports
stadium or arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed shopping
mall, in which it is likely that persons are present, any device or
object that by its design, construction, content or characteristics
appears to be or to contain a bomb, destructive device, explosive or
hazardous substance, but is, in fact, an inoperative facsimile or
imitation of such a bomb, destructive device, explosive or hazardous
substance and which he or she knows, intends or reasonably believes will
appear to be a bomb, destructive device, explosive or hazardous
substance under circumstances in which it is likely to cause public
alarm or inconvenience. For purposes of this section, "sports stadium or
arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed shopping mall" shall
have its natural meaning.
Placing a false bomb or hazardous substance in a sports stadium or
arena, mass transportation facility or enclosed shopping mall is a class
D felony.
Unlawful prevention of public access to records.
A person is guilty of unlawful prevention of public access to records
when, with intent to prevent the public inspection of a record pursuant
to article six of the public officers law, he willfully conceals or
destroys any such record.
Unlawful prevention of public access to records is a violation.
Criminal interference with access to a place of religious
worship.
1. A person is guilty of criminal interference with access to a place
of religious worship when such person, with respect to an individual who
was or is seeking to enter into or exit from a place of religious
worship:
(a) knowingly or intentionally obstructs or otherwise interferes with
the entryway into or exit from a place of religious worship, for the
purpose of rendering passage by that individual unreasonably difficult
or hazardous; or
(b) within fifty feet from a place of religious worship, knowingly or
intentionally engages in a course of conduct that places that individual
in reasonable fear for their safety.
2. For purposes of this section, the term "security perimeter" shall
mean an area that is established by a law enforcement agency in response
to, or in anticipation of, a demonstration outside of a place of
religious worship, within which demonstration activity is not allowed.
3. Nothing in this section shall limit the authority or discretion of
law enforcement agencies for the purpose of public safety to establish
security perimeters, including security perimeters that extend beyond
fifty feet of distance from a place of religious worship.
Criminal interference with access to a place of religious worship is a
class B misdemeanor.
Criminal interference with health care services or religious
worship in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of criminal interference with health services or
religious worship in the second degree when:
(a) by force or threat of force or by physical obstruction, he or she
intentionally injures, intimidates or interferes with, or attempts to
injure, intimidate or interfere with, another person because such other
person was or is obtaining or providing reproductive health services; or
(b) by force or threat of force or by physical obstruction, he or she
intentionally injures, intimidates or interferes with, or attempts to
injure, intimidate or interfere with, another person in order to
discourage such other person or any other person or persons from
obtaining or providing reproductive health services; or
(c) by force or threat of force or by physical obstruction, he or she
intentionally injures, intimidates or interferes with, or attempts to
injure, intimidate or interfere with, another person because such person
was or is seeking to exercise the right of religious freedom at a place
of religious worship; or
(d) he or she intentionally damages the property of a health care
facility, or attempts to do so, because such facility provides
reproductive health services, or intentionally damages the property of a
place of religious worship.
2. A parent or legal guardian of a minor shall not be subject to
prosecution for conduct otherwise prohibited by paragraph (a) or (b) of
subdivision one of this section which is directed exclusively at such
minor.
3. For purposes of this section:
(a) the term "health care facility" means a hospital, clinic,
physician's office or other facility that provides reproductive health
services, and includes the building or structure in which the facility
is located;
(b) the term "interferes with" means to restrict a person's freedom of
movement;
(c) the term "intimidates" means to place a person in reasonable
apprehension of physical injury to himself or herself or to another
person;
(d) the term "physical obstruction" means rendering impassable ingress
to or egress from a facility that provides reproductive health services
or to or from a place of religious worship, or rendering passage to or
from such a facility or place of religious worship unreasonably
difficult or hazardous; and
(e) the term "reproductive health services" means health care services
provided in a hospital, clinic, physician's office or other facility and
includes medical, surgical, counseling or referral services relating to
the human reproductive system, including services relating to pregnancy
or the termination of a pregnancy.
Criminal interference with health care services or religious worship
in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal interference with health care services or religious
worship in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal interference with health care services
or religious worship in the first degree when he or she commits the
crime of criminal interference with health care services or religious
worship in the second degree and has been previously convicted of the
crime of criminal interference with health care services or religious
worship in the first or second degree or aggravated interference with
health care services in the first or second degree.
Criminal interference with health care services or religious worship
in the first degree is a class E felony.
Aggravated interference with health care services in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of the crime of aggravated interference with health
care services in the second degree when he or she commits the crime of
criminal interference with health care services or religious worship in
violation of paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section 240.70 of this
article and thereby causes physical injury to such other person who was
obtaining or providing, or was assisting another person to obtain or
provide reproductive health services.
Aggravated interference with health care services in the second degree
is a class E felony.
Aggravated interference with health care services in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of the crime of aggravated interference with health
care services in the first degree when he or she commits the crime of
criminal interference with health care services or religious worship in
violation of paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section 240.70 of this
article and thereby causes serious physical injury to such other person
who was obtaining or providing, or who was assisting another person to
obtain or provide reproductive health services.
Aggravated interference with health care services in the first degree
is a class C felony.
Aggravated family offense.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated family offense when he or she
commits a misdemeanor defined in subdivision two of this section as a
specified offense and he or she has been convicted of one or more
specified offenses within the immediately preceding five years. For the
purposes of this subdivision, in calculating the five year period, any
period of time during which the defendant was incarcerated for any
reason between the time of the commission of any of such previous
offenses and the time of commission of the present crime shall be
excluded and such five year period shall be extended by a period or
periods equal to the time served under such incarceration.
2. A "specified offense" is an offense defined in section 120.00
(assault in the third degree); section 120.05 (assault in the second
degree); section 120.10 (assault in the first degree); section 120.13
(menacing in the first degree); section 120.14 (menacing in the second
degree); section 120.15 (menacing in the third degree); section 120.20
(reckless endangerment in the second degree); section 120.25 (reckless
endangerment in the first degree); section 120.45 (stalking in the
fourth degree); section 120.50 (stalking in the third degree); section
120.55 (stalking in the second degree); section 120.60 (stalking in the
first degree); section 121.11 (criminal obstruction of breathing or
blood circulation); section 121.12 (strangulation in the second degree);
section 121.13 (strangulation in the first degree); subdivision one of
section 125.15 (manslaughter in the second degree); subdivision one, two
or four of section 125.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); section
125.25 (murder in the second degree); section 130.20 (sexual
misconduct); section 130.25 (rape in the third degree); section 130.30
(rape in the second degree); section 130.35 (rape in the first degree);
formerly defined in section 130.40; formerly defined in section 130.45;
formerly defined in section 130.50; defined in section 130.52 (forcible
touching); section 130.53 (persistent sexual abuse); section 130.55
(sexual abuse in the third degree); section 130.60 (sexual abuse in the
second degree); section 130.65 (sexual abuse in the first degree);
section 130.66 (aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree); section
130.67 (aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree); section 130.70
(aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree); section 130.91 (sexually
motivated felony); section 130.95 (predatory sexual assault); section
130.96 (predatory sexual assault against a child); section 135.05
(unlawful imprisonment in the second degree); section 135.10 (unlawful
imprisonment in the first degree); section 135.60 (coercion in the third
degree); section 135.61 (coercion in the second degree); section 135.65
(coercion in the first degree); section 140.20 (burglary in the third
degree); section 140.25 (burglary in the second degree); section 140.30
(burglary in the first degree); section 145.00 (criminal mischief in the
fourth degree); section 145.05 (criminal mischief in the third degree);
section 145.10 (criminal mischief in the second degree); section 145.12
(criminal mischief in the first degree); section 145.14 (criminal
tampering in the third degree); section 215.50 (criminal contempt in the
second degree); section 215.51 (criminal contempt in the first degree);
section 215.52 (aggravated criminal contempt); section 240.25
(harassment in the first degree); subdivision one, two or four of
section 240.30 (aggravated harassment in the second degree); aggravated
family offense as defined in this section or any attempt or conspiracy
to commit any of the foregoing offenses where the defendant and the
person against whom the offense was committed were members of the same
family or household as defined in subdivision one of section 530.11 of
the criminal procedure law.
3. The person against whom the current specified offense is committed
may be different from the person against whom the previous specified
offense was committed and such persons do not need to be members of the
same family or household.
Aggravated family offense is a class E felony.
Directing a laser at an aircraft in the second degree.
A person is guilty of directing a laser at an aircraft in the second
degree when, with intent to disrupt safe air travel, he or she directs
the beam of a laser:
1. onto a specific aircraft intending to thereby disrupt or interfere
with such aircraft in the special aircraft jurisdiction of the United
States; or
2. in the immediate vicinity of an aircraft in the special aircraft
jurisdiction of the United States, and:
(a) the calculated or measured beam irradiance on the aircraft, or in
the immediate vicinity of the aircraft, exceeds limits set by the FAA
for the FAA-specified laser flight zone (normal, sensitive, critical, or
laser-free) where the aircraft was located; and (b) a pilot in the
illuminated aircraft files a laser incident report with the FAA.
3. As used in this section:
(a) the term "laser" shall mean any device designed or used to amplify
electromagnetic radiation by stimulated emission that emits a beam; and
(b) the term "FAA" shall mean the Federal Aviation Administration.
4. This section does not prohibit directing a laser beam at an
aircraft, or in the immediate vicinity of an aircraft, by:
(a) an authorized individual in the conduct of research and
development or flight test operations conducted by an aircraft
manufacturer, the FAA, or any other person authorized by the FAA to
conduct such research and development or flight test operations; or
(b) members or elements of the United States department of defense or
the United States department of homeland security acting in an official
capacity for the purpose of research, development, operations, testing
or training; or
(c) an individual in an emergency situation using a laser to attract
the attention of an aircraft for bona fide rescue purposes; or
(d) an individual whose laser operations have been submitted to and
reviewed by the FAA, when:
(i) the FAA has issued a letter not objecting to the laser use; and
(ii) the laser is operated in conformity with the FAA submission.
Directing a laser at an aircraft is a class A misdemeanor.
Directing a laser at an aircraft in the first degree.
A person is guilty of directing a laser at an aircraft in the first
degree when he or she commits the crime of directing a laser at an
aircraft in the second degree in violation of section 240.76 of this
article and thereby causes a significant change of course or other
serious disruption to the safe travel of an aircraft that threatens the
physical safety of the aircraft's passengers or crew.
Directing a laser at an aircraft in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Making a threat of mass harm.
1. A person is guilty of making a threat of mass harm when with the
intent to intimidate a group of people or to create public alarm, such
person threatens to inflict or cause to be inflicted, serious physical
injury or death at a school, place of worship, business, government
building, or other place of assembly, and thereby causes a reasonable
expectation or fear of serious physical injury or death, or causes the
evacuation or lockdown of a school, place of worship, business,
government building, or other place of assembly.
2. It shall be no defense to a prosecution pursuant to this section
that the defendant did not have the intent or capability of committing
the conduct threatened.
Making a threat of mass harm is a class B misdemeanor.
Aggravated threat of mass harm.
1. A person is guilty of aggravated threat of mass harm when such
person engages in conduct as defined in section 240.78 of this article
and has made any overt act in furtherance of the commission of such
crime.
2. For purposes of this section, an overt act may include making a
plan to carry out such threat, compiling a list of targets, possession
of any weapon or device that can be used to carry out such threat, or
other preparatory action.
Aggravated threat of mass harm is a class A misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 241 Harassment of Rent Regulated Tenants
Harassment of a rent regulated tenant; definition of terms.
As used in this article:
1. "Rent regulated tenant" shall mean a person occupying a housing
accommodation or any lawful successor to the tenancy which is subject to
the regulations and control of residential rents and evictions pursuant
to the emergency housing rent control law, the local emergency housing
rent control act, the emergency tenant protection act of nineteen
seventy-four, the New York city rent and rehabilitation law or the New
York city rent stabilization law of nineteen hundred sixty-nine, and
such person is either a party to a lease or rental agreement for such
housing accommodation, a statutory tenant or a person who lawfully
occupies such housing accommodation with such party to a lease or rental
agreement or with such statutory tenant. The definition of "rent
regulated tenant" as used in this subdivision shall be applicable only
to the provisions of this article and shall not be applicable to any
other provision of law.
2. "Housing accommodations" shall mean housing accommodations which
are subject to the regulations and control of residential rents and
evictions pursuant to the emergency housing rent control law, the local
emergency housing rent control act, the emergency tenant protection act
of nineteen seventy-four, the New York city rent and rehabilitation law
or the New York city rent stabilization law of nineteen hundred
sixty-nine.
3. "Owner" shall mean an owner, lessor, sublessor, assignee, net
lessee, or a proprietary lessee of a housing accommodation in a
structure or premises owned by a cooperative corporation or association,
or an owner of a condominium unit or the sponsor of such cooperative
corporation or association or condominium development, or any other
person or entity receiving or entitled to receive rent for the use or
occupation of any housing accommodation, or an agent of or any person
acting on behalf of any of the foregoing.
4. "Residential building" shall mean a structure built upon an
identifiable borough-block-lot or section-block-lot number that contains
multiple dwelling units, at least one of which is subject to the
regulations and control of residential rents and evictions pursuant to
the emergency housing rent control law, the local emergency housing rent
control act, the emergency tenant protection act of nineteen
seventy-four, the New York city rent and rehabilitation law or the New
York city rent stabilization law of nineteen hundred sixty-nine. The
definition of "residential building" as used in this subdivision shall
be applicable only to the provisions of this article and shall not be
applicable to any other provision of law.
Harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the second degree.
An owner is guilty of harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the
second degree when, with intent to induce a rent regulated tenant to
vacate a housing accommodation, such owner intentionally engages in a
course of conduct that:
1. impairs the habitability of a housing accommodation; or
2. creates or maintains a condition which endangers the safety or
health of the dwelling's tenant; or
3. is reasonably likely to interfere with or disturb, and does
interfere with or disturb, the comfort, repose, peace or quiet of such
rent regulated tenant in his or her use and occupancy of such housing
accommodation including, but not limited to, the interruption or
discontinuance of essential services. The good faith commencement and
pursuit of a lawful eviction action by an owner against a rent regulated
tenant in a court of competent jurisdiction shall not, by itself,
constitute a "course of conduct" in violation of this subdivision.
Harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the second degree is a class
A misdemeanor.
Harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the first degree.
An owner is guilty of harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the
first degree when:
1. With intent to induce a rent regulated tenant to vacate a housing
accommodation, such owner:
(a) With intent to cause physical injury to such tenant, causes such
injury to such tenant or to a third person; or
(b) Recklessly causes physical injury to such tenant or to a third
person; or
2. With intent to induce two or more rent regulated tenants occupying
different housing accommodations in one residential building, or two
rent regulated tenants occupying different housing accommodations in two
separate residential buildings, to vacate such housing accommodations,
such owner intentionally engages in a systematic ongoing course of
conduct that:
(a) impairs the habitability of such housing accommodations; or
(b) creates or maintains a condition which endangers the safety or
health of one or more of the dwellings' rent regulated tenants; or
(c) is reasonably likely to interfere with or disturb, and does
interfere with or disturb, the comfort, repose, peace or quiet of one or
more of such rent regulated tenants in their use and occupancy of such
housing accommodations including, but not limited to, the interruption
or discontinuance of essential services; or
3. Such owner commits the crime of harassment of a rent regulated
tenant in the second degree as defined in section 241.02 of this article
and has previously been convicted within the preceding five years of
such crime or the crime of harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the
first degree.
The good faith commencement and pursuit of a lawful eviction action by
an owner against a rent regulated tenant in a court of competent
jurisdiction shall not, by itself, constitute a "systematic ongoing
course of conduct" in violation of paragraph (c) of subdivision two of
this section.
Harassment of a rent regulated tenant in the first degree is a class E
felony.
Aggravated harassment of a rent regulated tenant.
An owner is guilty of aggravated harassment of a rent regulated tenant
when:
1. With intent to induce three or more rent regulated tenants
occupying different housing accommodations in two or more residential
buildings to vacate such housing accommodations, such owner
intentionally engages in a systematic ongoing course of conduct that:
(a) impairs the habitability of such housing accommodations; or
(b) creates or maintains a condition which endangers the safety or
health of one or more of the dwellings' rent regulated tenants; or
(c) is reasonably likely to interfere with or disturb, and does
interfere with or disturb, the comfort, repose, peace or quiet of one or
more of such rent regulated tenants in their use and occupancy of such
housing accommodation including, but not limited to, the interruption or
discontinuance of essential services.
2. Such owner commits the crime of harassment of a rent regulated
tenant in the first degree as defined in section 241.05 of this article
and has previously been convicted within the preceding five years of
such crime.
The good faith commencement and pursuit of a lawful eviction action by
an owner against a rent regulated tenant in a court of competent
jurisdiction shall not, by itself, constitute a "systematic ongoing
course of conduct" in violation of paragraph (c) of subdivision one of
this section.
Aggravated harassment of a rent regulated tenant is a class D felony.
ARTICLE 242 Offenses Against Service Animals and Handlers
Definitions.
For purposes of this article:
1. "Service animal" shall mean any animal that has been partnered with
a person who has a disability and has been trained or is being trained,
by a qualified person, to aid or guide a person with a disability.
2. "Disability" shall have the same meaning as provided in section two
hundred ninety-two of the executive law.
3. "Handler" shall mean a disabled person using a service animal.
4. "Formal training program" or "certified trainer" shall mean an
institution, group or individual who has documentation and community
recognition as a provider of service animals.
Interference, harassment or intimidation of a service animal.
A person is guilty of interference, harassment or intimidation of a
service animal when he or she commits an act with intent to and which
does make it impractical, dangerous or impossible for a service animal
to perform its assigned responsibilities of assisting a person with a
disability.
Interference, harassment or intimidation of a service animal is a
class B misdemeanor.
Harming a service animal in the second degree.
A person is guilty of harming a service animal in the second degree
when, with the intent to do so, he or she causes physical injury, or
causes such injury that results in the death, of a service animal.
Harming a service animal in the second degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Harming a service animal in the first degree.
A person is guilty of harming a service animal in the first degree
when, he or she commits the crime of harming a service animal in the
second degree, and has been convicted of harming a service animal in the
first or second degree within the prior five years.
Harming a service animal in the first degree is a class E felony.
ARTICLE 245 Offenses Against Public Sensibilities
Public lewdness.
A person is guilty of public lewdness when he or she intentionally
exposes the private or intimate parts of his or her body in a lewd
manner or commits any other lewd act: (a) in a public place, or (b) (i)
in private premises under circumstances in which he or she may readily
be observed from either a public place or from other private premises,
and with intent that he or she be so observed, or (ii) while
trespassing, as defined in section 140.05 of this part, in a dwelling as
defined in subdivision three of section 140.00 of this part, under
circumstances in which he or she is observed by a lawful occupant.
Public lewdness is a class B misdemeanor.
Exposure of a person.
A person is guilty of exposure if he appears in a public place in such
a manner that the private or intimate parts of his body are unclothed or
exposed. For purposes of this section, the private or intimate parts of
a female person shall include that portion of the breast which is below
the top of the areola. This section shall not apply to the breastfeeding
of infants or to any person entertaining or performing in a play,
exhibition, show or entertainment.
Exposure of a person is a violation.
Nothing in this section shall prevent the adoption by a city, town or
village of a local law prohibiting exposure of a person as herein
defined in a public place, at any time, whether or not such person is
entertaining or performing in a play, exhibition, show or entertainment.
Promoting the exposure of a person.
A person is guilty of promoting the exposure of a person when he
knowingly conducts, maintains, owns, manages, operates or furnishes any
public premise or place where a person in a public place appears in such
a manner that the private or intimate parts of his body are unclothed or
exposed. For purposes of this section, the private or intimate parts of
a female person shall include that portion of the breast which is below
the top of the areola. This section shall not apply to the breastfeeding
of infants or to any person entertaining or performing in a play,
exhibition, show or entertainment.
Promoting the exposure of a person is a violation.
Nothing in this section shall prevent the adoption by a city, town or
village of a local law prohibiting the exposure of a person
substantially as herein defined in a public place, at any time, whether
or not such person is entertaining or performing in a play, exhibition,
show or entertainment.
Public lewdness in the first degree.
A person is guilty of public lewdness in the first degree when:
1. being nineteen years of age or older and intending to be observed
by a person less than sixteen years of age in a place described in
subdivision (a) or (b) of section 245.00 of this article, he or she
intentionally exposes the private or intimate parts of his or her body
in a lewd manner for the purpose of alarming or seriously annoying such
person, and he or she is thereby observed by such person in such place;
or
2. he or she commits the crime of public lewdness, as defined in
section 245.00 of this article, and within the preceding year has been
convicted of an offense defined in such section 245.00 or this section.
Public lewdness in the first degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Offensive exhibition.
A person is guilty of offensive exhibition when he knowingly produces,
operates, manages or furnishes premises for, or in any way promotes or
participates in, an exhibition in the nature of public entertainment or
amusement in which:
1. A person competes continuously without respite for a period of more
than eight consecutive hours in a dance contest, bicycle race or other
contest involving physical endurance; or
2. A person is held up to ridicule or contempt by voluntarily
submitting to indignities such as the throwing of balls or other
articles at his head or body; or
3. A firearm is discharged or a knife, arrow or other sharp or
dangerous instrument is thrown or propelled at or toward a person.
Offensive exhibition is a violation.
Public display of offensive sexual material; definitions of
terms.
The following definitions are applicable to section 245.11:
1. "Nudity" means the showing of the human male or female genitals,
pubic area or buttocks with less than a full opaque covering, or the
showing of the female breast with less than a fully opaque covering of
any portion thereof below the top of the nipple, or the depiction of
covered male genitals in a discernibly turgid state.
2. "Sexual conduct" means an act of masturbation, homosexuality,
sexual intercourse, or physical contact with a person's clothed or
unclothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks or, if such person be a female,
breast.
3. "Sado-masochistic abuse" means flagellation or torture by or upon a
person clad in undergarments, a mask or bizzare costume, or the
condition of being fettered, bound or otherwise physically restrained on
the part of one so clothed.
4. "Transportation facility" means any conveyance, premises or place
used for or in connection with public passenger transportation, whether
by air, railroad, motor vehicle or any other method. It includes
aircraft, watercraft, railroad cars, buses, and air, boat, railroad and
bus terminals and stations and all appurtenances thereto.
Public display of offensive sexual material.
A person is guilty of public display of offensive sexual material
when, with knowledge of its character and content, he displays or
permits to be displayed in or on any window, showcase, newsstand,
display rack, wall, door, billboard, display board, viewing screen,
moving picture screen, marquee or similar place, in such manner that the
display is easily visible from or in any: public street, sidewalk or
thoroughfare; transportation facility; or any place accessible to
members of the public without fee or other limit or condition of
admission such as a minimum age requirement and including but not
limited to schools, places of amusement, parks and playgrounds but
excluding rooms or apartments designed for actual residence; any
pictorial, three-dimensional or other visual representation of a person
or a portion of the human body that predominantly appeals to prurient
interest in sex, and that:
(a) depicts nudity, or actual or simulated sexual conduct or
sado-masochistic abuse; or
(b) depicts or appears to depict nudity, or actual or simulated sexual
conduct or sado-masochistic abuse, with the area of the male or female
subject's unclothed or apparently unclothed genitals, pubic area or
buttocks, or of the female subject's unclothed or apparently unclothed
breast, obscured by a covering or mark placed or printed on or in front
of the material displayed, or obscured or altered in any other manner.
Public display of offensive sexual material is a Class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful dissemination or publication of an intimate image.
1. A person is guilty of unlawful dissemination or publication of an
intimate image when:
(a) with intent to cause harm to the emotional, financial or physical
welfare of another person, they intentionally disseminate or publish a
still or video image depicting such other person with one or more
intimate parts exposed or engaging in sexual conduct with another
person, including an image created or altered by digitization, where
such person may reasonably be identified from the still or video image
itself or from information displayed in connection with the still or
video image; and
(b) the actor knew or reasonably should have known that the person
depicted did not consent to such dissemination or publication, including
the dissemination or publication of an image taken with the consent of
the person depicted when such person had a reasonable expectation that
the image would remain private, regardless of whether the actor was
present when such image was taken.
2. For purposes of this section the following terms shall have the
following meanings:
(a) "intimate part" means the naked genitals, pubic area, anus or
female nipple of the person;
(b) "disseminate" and "publish" shall have the same meaning as defined
in section 250.40 of this title;
(c) "sexual conduct" shall have the same meaning as defined in
subdivision ten of section 130.00 of this chapter; and
(d) "digitization" shall mean to alter an image in a realistic manner
utilizing an image or images of a person, other than the person
depicted, or computer generated images.
3. This section shall not apply to the following:
(a) the reporting of unlawful conduct;
(b) dissemination or publication of an intimate image made during
lawful and common practices of law enforcement, legal proceedings or
medical treatment;
(c) images involving voluntary exposure in a public or commercial
setting; or
(d) dissemination or publication of an intimate image made for a
legitimate public purpose.
4. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit, or to enlarge,
the protections that 47 U.S.C § 230 confers on an interactive computer
service for content provided by another information content provider, as
such terms are defined in 47 U.S.C. § 230.
Unlawful dissemination or publication of an intimate image is a class
A misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 250 Offenses Against the Right to Privacy
Eavesdropping; definitions of terms.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Wiretapping" means the intentional overhearing or recording of a
telephonic or telegraphic communication by a person other than a sender
or receiver thereof, without the consent of either the sender or
receiver, by means of any instrument, device or equipment. The normal
operation of a telephone or telegraph corporation and the normal use of
the services and facilities furnished by such corporation pursuant to
its tariffs or necessary to protect the rights or property of said
corporation shall not be deemed "wiretapping."
2. "Mechanical overhearing of a conversation" means the intentional
overhearing or recording of a conversation or discussion, without the
consent of at least one party thereto, by a person not present thereat,
by means of any instrument, device or equipment.
3. "Telephonic communication" means any aural transfer made in whole
or in part through the use of facilities for the transmission of
communications by the aid of wire, cable or other like connection
between the point of origin and the point of reception (including the
use of such connection in a switching station) furnished or operated by
any person engaged in providing or operating such facilities for the
transmission of communications and such term includes any electronic
storage of such communications.
4. "Aural transfer" means a transfer containing the human voice at any
point between and including the point of origin and the point of
reception.
5. "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals,
writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted
in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic
or photo-optical system, but does not include:
(a) any telephonic or telegraphic communication; or
(b) any communication made through a tone only paging device; or
(c) any communication made through a tracking device consisting of an
electronic or mechanical device which permits the tracking of the
movement of a person or object; or
(d) any communication that is disseminated by the sender through a
method of transmission that is configured so that such communication is
readily accessible to the general public.
6. "Intercepting or accessing of an electronic communication" and
"intentionally intercepted or accessed" mean the intentional acquiring,
receiving, collecting, overhearing, or recording of an electronic
communication, without the consent of the sender or intended receiver
thereof, by means of any instrument, device or equipment, except when
used by a telephone company in the ordinary course of its business or
when necessary to protect the rights or property of such company.
7. "Electronic communication service" means any service which provides
to users thereof the ability to send or receive wire or electronic
communications.
8. "Unlawfully" means not specifically authorized pursuant to article
seven hundred or seven hundred five of the criminal procedure law for
the purposes of this section and sections 250.05, 250.10, 250.15,
Eavesdropping.
A person is guilty of eavesdropping when he unlawfully engages in
wiretapping, mechanical overhearing of a conversation, or intercepting
or accessing of an electronic communication.
Eavesdropping is a class E felony.
Possession of eavesdropping devices.
A person is guilty of possession of eavesdropping devices when, under
circumstances evincing an intent to use or to permit the same to be used
in violation of section 250.05, he possesses any instrument, device or
equipment designed for, adapted to or commonly used in wiretapping or
mechanical overhearing of a conversation.
Possession of eavesdropping devices is a class A misdemeanor.
Failure to report wiretapping.
A telephone or telegraph corporation is guilty of failure to report
wiretapping when, having knowledge of the occurrence of unlawful
wiretapping, it does not report such matter to an appropriate law
enforcement officer or agency.
Failure to report wiretapping is a class B misdemeanor.
Divulging an eavesdropping warrant.
A person is guilty of divulging an eavesdropping warrant when,
possessing information concerning the existence or content of an
eavesdropping warrant issued pursuant to article seven hundred of the
criminal procedure law, or concerning any circumstances attending an
application for such a warrant, he discloses such information to another
person; except that such disclosure is not criminal or unlawful when
permitted by section 700.65 of the criminal procedure law or when made
to a state or federal agency specifically authorized by law to receive
reports concerning eavesdropping warrants, or when made in a legal
proceeding, or to a law enforcement officer or agency connected with the
application for such warrant, or to a legislative committee or temporary
state commission, or to the telephone or telegraph corporation whose
facilities are involved, or to any entity operating an electronic
communications service whose facilities are involved.
Divulging an eavesdropping warrant is a class A misdemeanor.
Tampering with private communications.
A person is guilty of tampering with private communications when:
1. Knowing that he does not have the consent of the sender or
receiver, he opens or reads a sealed letter or other sealed private
communication; or
2. Knowing that a sealed letter or other sealed private communication
has been opened or read in violation of subdivision one of this section,
he divulges without the consent of the sender or receiver, the contents
of such letter or communication, in whole or in part, or a resume of any
portion of the contents thereof; or
3. Knowing that he does not have the consent of the sender or
receiver, he obtains or attempts to obtain from an employee, officer or
representative of a telephone or telegraph corporation, by connivance,
deception, intimidation or in any other manner, information with respect
to the contents or nature thereof of a telephonic or telegraphic
communication; except that the provisions of this subdivision do not
apply to a law enforcement officer who obtains information from a
telephone or telegraph corporation pursuant to section 250.35; or
4. Knowing that he does not have the consent of the sender or
receiver, and being an employee, officer or representative of a
telephone or telegraph corporation, he knowingly divulges to another
person the contents or nature thereof of a telephonic or telegraphic
communication; except that the provisions of this subdivision do not
apply to such person when he acts pursuant to section 250.35.
Tampering with private communications is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawfully obtaining communications information.
A person is guilty of unlawfully obtaining communications information
when, knowing that he does not have the authorization of a telephone or
telegraph corporation, he obtains or attempts to obtain, by deception,
stealth or in any other manner, from such corporation or from any
employee, officer or representative thereof:
1. Information concerning identification or location of any wires,
cables, lines, terminals or other apparatus used in furnishing telephone
or telegraph service; or
2. Information concerning a record of any communication passing over
telephone or telegraph lines of any such corporation.
Unlawfully obtaining communications information is a class B
misdemeanor.
Failing to report criminal communications.
1. It shall be the duty of a telephone or telegraph corporation, or an
entity operating an electronic communications service, and of any
employee, officer or representative thereof having knowledge that the
facilities of such corporation or entity are being used to conduct any
criminal business, traffic or transaction, to furnish or attempt to
furnish to an appropriate law enforcement officer or agency all
pertinent information within his possession relating to such matter, and
to cooperate fully with any law enforcement officer or agency
investigating such matter.
2. A person is guilty of failing to report criminal communications
when he knowingly violates any duty prescribed in subdivision one of
this section.
Failing to report criminal communications is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawful surveillance; definitions.
The following definitions shall apply to sections 250.45, 250.50,
250.55 and 250.60 of this article:
1. "Place and time when a person has a reasonable expectation of
privacy" means a place and time when a reasonable person would believe
that he or she could fully disrobe in privacy.
2. "Imaging device" means any mechanical, digital or electronic
viewing device, camera, cellular phone or any other instrument capable
of recording, storing or transmitting visual images that can be utilized
to observe a person.
3. "Sexual or other intimate parts" means the human male or female
genitals, pubic area or buttocks, or the female breast below the top of
the nipple, and shall include such part or parts which are covered only
by an undergarment.
4. "Broadcast" means electronically transmitting a visual image with
the intent that it be viewed by a person.
5. "Disseminate" means to give, provide, lend, deliver, mail, send,
forward, transfer or transmit, electronically or otherwise to another
person.
6. "Publish" means to (a) disseminate, as defined in subdivision five
of this section, with the intent that such image or images be
disseminated to ten or more persons; or (b) disseminate with the intent
that such images be sold by another person; or (c) post, present,
display, exhibit, circulate, advertise or allows access, electronically
or otherwise, so as to make an image or images available to the public;
or (d) disseminate with the intent that an image or images be posted,
presented, displayed, exhibited, circulated, advertised or made
accessible, electronically or otherwise and to make such image or images
available to the public.
7. "Sell" means to disseminate to another person, as defined in
subdivision five of this section, or to publish, as defined in
subdivision six of this section, in exchange for something of value.
Unlawful surveillance in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful surveillance in the second degree when:
1. For his or her own, or another person's amusement, entertainment,
or profit, or for the purpose of degrading or abusing a person, he or
she intentionally uses or installs, or permits the utilization or
installation of an imaging device to surreptitiously view, broadcast or
record a person dressing or undressing or the sexual or other intimate
parts of such person at a place and time when such person has a
reasonable expectation of privacy, without such person's knowledge or
consent; or
2. For his or her own, or another person's sexual arousal or sexual
gratification, he or she intentionally uses or installs, or permits the
utilization or installation of an imaging device to surreptitiously
view, broadcast or record a person dressing or undressing or the sexual
or other intimate parts of such person at a place and time when such
person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, without such person's
knowledge or consent; or
3. (a) For no legitimate purpose, he or she intentionally uses or
installs, or permits the utilization or installation of an imaging
device to surreptitiously view, broadcast or record a person in a
bedroom, changing room, fitting room, restroom, toilet, bathroom,
washroom, shower or any room assigned to guests or patrons in a motel,
hotel or inn, without such person's knowledge or consent.
(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, when a person uses or
installs, or permits the utilization or installation of an imaging
device in a bedroom, changing room, fitting room, restroom, toilet,
bathroom, washroom, shower or any room assigned to guests or patrons in
a hotel, motel or inn, there is a rebuttable presumption that such
person did so for no legitimate purpose; or
4. Without the knowledge or consent of a person, he or she
intentionally uses or installs, or permits the utilization or
installation of an imaging device to surreptitiously view, broadcast or
record, under the clothing being worn by such person, the sexual or
other intimate parts of such person; or
5. For his or her own, or another individual's amusement,
entertainment, profit, sexual arousal or gratification, or for the
purpose of degrading or abusing a person, the actor intentionally uses
or installs or permits the utilization or installation of an imaging
device to surreptitiously view, broadcast, or record such person in an
identifiable manner:
(a) engaging in sexual conduct, as defined in subdivision ten of
section 130.00 of this part;
(b) in the same image with the sexual or intimate part of any other
person; and
(c) at a place and time when such person has a reasonable expectation
of privacy, without such person's knowledge or consent.
Unlawful surveillance in the second degree is a class E felony.
Unlawful surveillance in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful surveillance in the first degree when
he or she commits the crime of unlawful surveillance in the second
degree and has been previously convicted within the past ten years of
unlawful surveillance in the first or second degree.
Unlawful surveillance in the first degree is a class D felony.
Dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image
in the second degree when he or she, with knowledge of the unlawful
conduct by which an image or images of the sexual or other intimate
parts of another person or persons were obtained and such unlawful
conduct would satisfy the essential elements of the crime of unlawful
surveillance in the first or second degree, as defined, respectively, in
section 250.50 or 250.45 of this article, intentionally disseminates
such image or images.
Dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image in the second degree
is a class A misdemeanor.
Dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image
in the first degree when:
1. He or she, with knowledge of the unlawful conduct by which an image
or images of the sexual or other intimate parts of another person or
persons were obtained and such unlawful conduct would satisfy the
essential elements of the crime of unlawful surveillance in the first or
second degree, as defined, respectively, in section 250.50 or 250.45 of
this article, sells or publishes such image or images; or
2. Having created a surveillance image in violation of section 250.45
or 250.50 of this article, or in violation of the law in any other
jurisdiction which includes all of the essential elements of either such
crime, or having acted as an accomplice to such crime, or acting as an
agent to the person who committed such crime, he or she intentionally
disseminates such unlawfully created image; or
3. He or she commits the crime of dissemination of an unlawful
surveillance image in the second degree and has been previously
convicted within the past ten years of dissemination of an unlawful
surveillance image in the first or second degree.
Dissemination of an unlawful surveillance image in the first degree is
a class E felony.
Additional provisions.
1. The provisions of sections 250.45, 250.50, 250.55 and 250.60 of
this article do not apply with respect to any: (a) law enforcement
personnel engaged in the conduct of their authorized duties; (b)
security system wherein a written notice is conspicuously posted on the
premises stating that a video surveillance system has been installed for
the purpose of security; or (c) video surveillance devices installed in
such a manner that their presence is clearly and immediately obvious.
2. With respect to sections 250.55 and 250.60 of this article, the
provisions of subdivision two of section 235.15 and subdivisions one and
two of section 235.24 of this chapter shall apply.
Unlawful dissemination of a personal image; definitions,
application.
1. The following definitions shall apply to section 250.71 of this
article:
(a) "broadcast" means electronically transmitting a visual image with
the intent that it be viewed by a person;
(b) "disseminate" means to give, provide, lend, deliver, mail, send,
forward, transfer or transmit, electronically or otherwise to another
person;
(c) "publish" means to: (i) disseminate, as defined in paragraph (b)
of this subdivision, with the intent that such image or images be
disseminated to ten or more persons; (ii) disseminate with the intent
that such images be sold by another person; (iii) post, present,
display, exhibit, circulate, advertise or allows access, electronically
or otherwise, so as to make an image or images available to the public;
or (iv) disseminate with the intent that an image or images be posted,
presented, displayed, exhibited, circulated, advertised or made
accessible, electronically or otherwise and to make such image or images
available to the public;
(d) "family" means a parent or guardian, sibling, spouse, or child of
a person depicted in an image disseminated in violation of section
250.71 of this article.
(e) "social media platform" means a website, online or mobile
application, or online service that is designed primarily to enable a
user to generate or share content that can be viewed by other users on
the platform or to interact with other user-generated content on such
platform. "Social media platform" does not include a website, online or
mobile application, or online service that is designed primarily to
enable a user to access content on the platform that is not
user-generated and is preselected or organized by the provider; or a
website, online or mobile application, or online service that includes
any chat, comment, or other interactive functionality that is incidental
to the provision of such website, application, or service.
2. The following provisions shall apply to section 250.71 of this
article:
(a) The provisions of section 270.71 of this article shall not apply
to the following:
(i) the reporting of suspected unlawful conduct to law enforcement;
(ii) the dissemination or publication of an image made in the course
of official law enforcement duties, legal proceedings or criminal
prosecution, or medical treatment; or
(iii) the dissemination or publication of an image made for a
legitimate public discourse concerning local, national, or worldwide
events or other matters of public concern or public interest or
affecting the public welfare; any work of public interest, educational
or newsworthy value, including comment, criticism, parody or satire, and
works of entertainment, regardless of the degree of fictionalization; or
an advertisement or commercial announcement for any of the foregoing
works.
(b) Nothing in these sections shall be construed to limit, or to
enlarge, the protections that 47 U.S.C. § 230 confers on an interactive
computer service for content provided by another information content
provider, as such terms are defined in 47 U.S.C. § 230.
3. With respect to section 250.71 of this article, the provisions of
subdivision two of section 235.15 and subdivisions one and two of
section 235.24 of this part shall apply.
Unlawful dissemination of a personal image.
A person is guilty of unlawful dissemination of a personal image when,
with the intent of degrading or abusing a person who has been the victim
of a crime described in title H of this part, or otherwise causing harm
to the emotional, financial or physical welfare of such victim or such
victim's family, the person intentionally:
1. (a) creates and disseminates or publishes a still or video image of
such victim on a social media platform, without the victim's consent, in
a manner that has no or minimal cultural or social value;
(b) the victim is identifiable from the still or video image itself or
from information displayed in connection with the still or video image;
(c) the victim suffered physical injury as a result of a sex offense
as defined by article one hundred thirty of this part, serious physical
injury as a result of any non-sex offense, or death, and this injury or
death is depicted in the image; and
(d) the actor committed, participated in the commission of, or
conspired to commit the crime that resulted in such injury to such
victim; or
2. acting as an agent of the actor who created an image in violation
of subdivision one of this section, he or she knowingly disseminates or
publishes such image.
Unlawful dissemination of a personal image in the second degree is a
class A misdemeanor.
TITLE O Offenses Against Marriage, the Family, and the Welfare of Children and Incompetents
ARTICLE 255 Offenses Affecting the Marital Relationship
Unlawfully solemnizing a marriage.
A person is guilty of unlawfully solemnizing a marriage when:
1. Knowing that he is not authorized by the laws of this state to do
so, he performs a marriage ceremony or presumes to solemnize a marriage;
or
2. Being authorized by the laws of this state to perform marriage
ceremonies and to solemnize marriages, he performs a marriage ceremony
or solemnizes a marriage knowing that a legal impediment to such
marriage exists.
Unlawfully solemnizing a marriage is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawfully issuing a dissolution decree.
A person is guilty of unlawfully issuing a dissolution decree when,
not being a judicial officer authorized to issue decrees of divorce or
annulment, he issues a written instrument reciting or certifying that he
or some other purportedly but not actually authorized person has issued
a valid decree of civil divorce, annulment or other dissolution of a
marriage.
Unlawfully issuing a dissolution decree is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawfully procuring a marriage license.
A person is guilty of unlawfully procuring a marriage license when he
procures a license to marry another person at a time when he has a
living spouse, or the other person has a living spouse.
Unlawfully procuring a marriage license is a class A misdemeanor.
Bigamy.
A person is guilty of bigamy when he contracts or purports to contract
a marriage with another person at a time when he has a living spouse, or
the other person has a living spouse.
Bigamy is a class E felony.
Unlawfully procuring a marriage license, bigamy, adultery:
defense.
In any prosecution for unlawfully procuring a marriage license,
bigamy, or adultery, it is an affirmative defense that the defendant
acted under a reasonable belief that both he and the other person to the
marriage or prospective marriage or to the sexual intercourse, as the
case may be, were unmarried.
Incest in the third degree.
A person is guilty of incest in the third degree when he or she
marries or engages in vaginal sexual contact, oral sexual contact or
anal sexual contact with a person whom he or she knows to be related to
him or her, whether through marriage or not, as an ancestor, descendant,
brother or sister of either the whole or the half blood, uncle, aunt,
nephew or niece.
Incest in the third degree is a class E felony.
Incest in the second degree.
A person is guilty of incest in the second degree when he or she
commits the crime of rape in the second degree, as defined in section
130.30 of this part, or a crime formerly defined in section 130.45 of
this part, against a person whom he or she knows to be related to him or
her, whether through marriage or not, as an ancestor, descendant,
brother or sister of either the whole or the half blood, uncle, aunt,
nephew or niece.
Incest in the second degree is a class D felony.
Incest in the first degree.
A person is guilty of incest in the first degree when he or she
commits the crime of rape in the first degree, as defined in paragraph
(c) or (d) of subdivision one, paragraph (c) or (d) of subdivision two
or paragraph (c) or (d) of subdivision three of section 130.35 of this
part, rape in the first degree as defined in former subdivision three or
four of section 130.35 of this part, or a crime formerly defined in
subdivision three or four of section 130.50 of this part, against a
person whom he or she knows to be related to him or her, whether through
marriage or not, as an ancestor, descendant, brother or sister of either
the whole or half blood, uncle, aunt, nephew or niece.
Incest in the first degree is a class B felony.
Adultery and incest; corroboration.
1. A person shall not be convicted of adultery or of an attempt to
commit adultery solely upon the testimony of the other party to the
adulterous act or attempted act, unsupported by other evidence tending
to establish that the defendant attempted to engage with the other party
in sexual intercourse, and that the defendant or the other party had a
living spouse at the time of the adulterous act or attempted act.
2. A person shall not be convicted of incest or of an attempt to
commit incest solely upon the testimony of the other party unsupported
by other evidence tending to establish that the defendant married the
other party, or that the defendant was a relative of the other party of
a kind specified in section 255.25.
ARTICLE 260 Offenses Relating to Children, Disabled Persons and Vulnerable Elderly Persons
Abandonment of a child.
1. A person is guilty of abandonment of a child when, being a parent,
guardian or other person legally charged with the care or custody of a
child less than fourteen years old, he or she deserts such child in any
place with intent to wholly abandon such child.
2. A person is not guilty of the provisions of this section when he or
she engages in the conduct described in subdivision one of this section:
(a) with the intent that the child be safe from physical injury and
cared for in an appropriate manner; (b) the child is left with an
appropriate person, or in a suitable location and the person who leaves
the child promptly notifies an appropriate person of the child's
location; and (c) the child is not more than thirty days old.
Abandonment of a child is a class E felony.
Non-support of a child in the second degree.
A person is guilty of non-support of a child when:
1. being a parent, guardian or other person legally charged with the
care or custody of a child less than sixteen years old, he or she fails
or refuses without lawful excuse to provide support for such child when
he or she is able to do so, or becomes unable to do so, when, though
employable, he or she voluntarily terminates his or her employment,
voluntarily reduces his or her earning capacity, or fails to diligently
seek employment; or
2. being a parent, guardian or other person obligated to make child
support payments by an order of child support entered by a court of
competent jurisdiction for a child less than eighteen years old, he or
she knowingly fails or refuses without lawful excuse to provide support
for such child when he or she is able to do so, or becomes unable to do
so, when, though employable, he or she voluntarily terminates his or her
employment, voluntarily reduces his or her earning capacity, or fails to
diligently seek employment.
Non-support of a child in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Non-support of a child in the first degree.
A person is guilty of non-support of a child in the first degree when:
1. (a) being a parent, guardian or other person legally charged with
the care or custody of a child less than sixteen years old, he or she
fails or refuses without lawful excuse to provide support for such child
when he or she is able to do so; or
(b) being a parent, guardian or other person obligated to make child
support payments by an order of child support entered by a court of
competent jurisdiction for a child less than eighteen years old, he or
she fails or refuses without lawful excuse to provide support for such
child when he or she is able to do so; and
2. he or she has previously been convicted in the preceding five years
of a crime defined in section 260.05 of this article or a crime defined
by the provisions of this section.
Non-support of a child in the first degree is a class E felony.
Endangering the welfare of a child.
A person is guilty of endangering the welfare of a child when:
1. He or she knowingly acts in a manner likely to be injurious to the
physical, mental or moral welfare of a child less than seventeen years
old or directs or authorizes such child to engage in an occupation
involving a substantial risk of danger to his or her life or health; or
2. Being a parent, guardian or other person legally charged with the
care or custody of a child less than eighteen years old, he or she fails
or refuses to exercise reasonable diligence in the control of such child
to prevent him or her from becoming an "abused child," a "neglected
child," a "juvenile delinquent" or a "person in need of supervision," as
those terms are defined in articles ten, three and seven of the family
court act.
3. A person is not guilty of the provisions of this section when he or
she engages in the conduct described in subdivision one of section
260.00 of this article: (a) with the intent to wholly abandon the child
by relinquishing responsibility for and right to the care and custody of
such child; (b) with the intent that the child be safe from physical
injury and cared for in an appropriate manner; (c) the child is left
with an appropriate person, or in a suitable location and the person who
leaves the child promptly notifies an appropriate person of the child's
location; and (d) the child is not more than thirty days old.
Endangering the welfare of a child is a class A misdemeanor.
Endangering the welfare of a child; corroboration.
A person shall not be convicted of endangering the welfare of a child,
or of an attempt to commit the same, upon the testimony of a victim who
is incapable of consent because of mental defect or mental incapacity as
to conduct that constitutes an offense or an attempt to commit an
offense referred to in section 130.16, without additional evidence
sufficient pursuant to section 130.16 to sustain a conviction of an
offense referred to in section 130.16, or of an attempt to commit the
same.
Endangering the welfare of a child; defense.
In any prosecution for endangering the welfare of a child, pursuant to
section 260.10 of this article, based upon an alleged failure or refusal
to provide proper medical care or treatment to an ill child, it is an
affirmative defense that the defendant (a) is a parent, guardian or
other person legally charged with the care or custody of such child; and
(b) is a member or adherent of an organized church or religious group
the tenets of which prescribe prayer as the principal treatment for
illness; and (c) treated or caused such ill child to be treated in
accordance with such tenets.
Unlawfully dealing with a child in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawfully dealing with a child in the first
degree when:
1. He knowingly permits a child less than eighteen years old to enter
or remain in or upon a place, premises or establishment where sexual
activity as defined by article one hundred thirty, two hundred thirty or
two hundred sixty-three of this part or activity involving controlled
substances as defined by article two hundred twenty of this part is
maintained or conducted, and he knows or has reason to know that such
activity is being maintained or conducted; or
2. He gives or sells or causes to be given or sold any alcoholic
beverage, as defined by section three of the alcoholic beverage control
law, to a person less than twenty-one years old; except that this
subdivision does not apply to the parent or guardian of such a person or
to a person who gives or causes to be given any such alcoholic beverage
to a person under the age of twenty-one years, who is a student in a
curriculum licensed or registered by the state education department,
where the tasting or imbibing of alcoholic beverages is required in
courses that are part of the required curriculum, provided such
alcoholic beverages are given only for instructional purposes during
classes conducted pursuant to such curriculum.
It is no defense to a prosecution pursuant to subdivision two of this
section that the child acted as the agent or representative of another
person or that the defendant dealt with the child as such.
It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution pursuant to subdivision
two of this section that the defendant who sold, caused to be sold or
attempted to sell such alcoholic beverage to a person less than
twenty-one years old, had not been, at the time of such sale or
attempted sale, convicted of a violation of this section or section
260.21 of this article within the preceding five years, and such
defendant, subsequent to the commencement of the present prosecution,
has completed an alcohol training awareness program established pursuant
to subdivision twelve of section seventeen of the alcoholic beverage
control law. A defendant otherwise qualifying pursuant to this paragraph
may request and shall be afforded a reasonable adjournment of the
proceedings to enable him or her to complete such alcohol training
awareness program.
Unlawfully dealing with a child in the first degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Unlawfully dealing with a child in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawfully dealing with a child in the second
degree when:
1. Being an owner, lessee, manager or employee of a place where
alcoholic beverages are sold or given away, he permits a child less than
sixteen years old to enter or remain in such place unless:
(a) The child is accompanied by his parent, guardian or an adult
authorized by a parent or guardian; or
(b) The entertainment or activity is being conducted for the benefit
or under the auspices of a non-profit school, church or other
educational or religious institution; or
(c) Otherwise permitted by law to do so; or
(d) The establishment is closed to the public for a specified period
of time to conduct an activity or entertainment, during which the child
is in or remains in such establishment, and no alcoholic beverages are
sold, served, given away or consumed at such establishment during such
period. The state liquor authority shall be notified in writing by the
licensee of such establishment, of the intended closing of such
establishment, to conduct any such activity or entertainment, not less
than ten days prior to any such closing; or
2. He marks the body of a child less than eighteen years old with
indelible ink or pigments by means of tattooing; or
3. He or she sells or causes to be sold tobacco in any form to a child
less than twenty-one years old.
It is no defense to a prosecution pursuant to subdivision three of
this section that the child acted as the agent or representative of
another person or that the defendant dealt with the child as such.
Unlawfully dealing with a child in the second degree is a class B
misdemeanor.
Facilitating female genital mutilation.
A person is guilty of facilitating female genital mutilation when,
knowing that a person intends to engage in the circumcising, excising or
infibulating of the whole or any part of the labia majora or labia
minora or clitoris of a person under eighteen years of age, and except
as provided in subdivision two of section 130.85 of this chapter, he or
she intentionally aids the commission or attempted commission of such
conduct.
Facilitating female genital mutilation is a class A misdemeanor.
Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically
disabled person in the second degree.
A person is guilty of endangering the welfare of an incompetent or
physically disabled person in the second degree when he or she
recklessly engages in conduct which is likely to be injurious to the
physical, mental or moral welfare of a person who is unable to care for
himself or herself because of physical disability, mental disease or
defect.
Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically disabled
person in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically
disabled person in the first degree.
A person is guilty of endangering the welfare of an incompetent or
physically disabled person in the first degree when he knowingly acts in
a manner likely to be injurious to the physical, mental or moral welfare
of a person who is unable to care for himself or herself because of
physical disability, mental disease or defect.
Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically disabled
person in the first degree is a class E felony.
* § 260.31 Vulnerable elderly persons; definitions.
For the purpose of sections 260.32 and 260.34 of this article, the
following definitions shall apply:
1. "Caregiver" means a person who (i) assumes responsibility for the
care of a vulnerable elderly person, or an incompetent or physically
disabled person pursuant to a court order; or (ii) receives monetary or
other valuable consideration for providing care for a vulnerable elderly
person, or an incompetent or physically disabled person.
2. "Sexual contact" means any touching of the sexual or other intimate
parts of a person for the purpose of gratifying sexual desire of either
party. It includes the touching of the actor by the victim, as well as
the touching of the victim by the actor, whether directly or through
clothing, as well as the emission of ejaculate by the actor upon any
part of the victim, clothed or unclothed.
3. "Vulnerable elderly person" means a person sixty years of age or
older who is suffering from a disease or infirmity associated with
advanced age and manifested by demonstrable physical, mental or
emotional dysfunction to the extent that the person is incapable of
adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care.
4. "Incompetent or physically disabled person" means an individual who
is unable to care for himself or herself because of physical disability,
mental disease or defect.
* NB There are 2 § 260.31's
Endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly
person, or an incompetent or physically disabled person in the second
degree when, being a caregiver for a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person:
1. With intent to cause physical injury to such person, he or she
causes such injury to such person; or
2. He or she recklessly causes physical injury to such person; or
3. With criminal negligence, he or she causes physical injury to such
person by means of a deadly weapon or a dangerous instrument; or
4. He or she subjects such person to sexual contact without the
latter's consent. Lack of consent under this subdivision results from
forcible compulsion or incapacity to consent, as those terms are defined
in article one hundred thirty of this chapter, or any other
circumstances in which the vulnerable elderly person, or an incompetent
or physically disabled person does not expressly or impliedly acquiesce
in the caregiver's conduct. In any prosecution under this subdivision in
which the victim's alleged lack of consent results solely from
incapacity to consent because of the victim's mental disability or
mental incapacity, the provisions of section 130.16 of this chapter
shall apply. In addition, in any prosecution under this subdivision in
which the victim's lack of consent is based solely upon his or her
incapacity to consent because he or she was mentally disabled, mentally
incapacitated or physically helpless, it is an affirmative defense that
the defendant, at the time he or she engaged in the conduct constituting
the offense, did not know of the facts or conditions responsible for
such incapacity to consent.
Endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person in the second degree is a
class E felony.
Endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly
person, or an incompetent or physically disabled person in the first
degree when, being a caregiver for a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person:
1. With intent to cause physical injury to such person, he or she
causes serious physical injury to such person; or
2. He or she recklessly causes serious physical injury to such person.
Endangering the welfare of a vulnerable elderly person, or an
incompetent or physically disabled person in the first degree is a class
D felony.
Misrepresentation by, or on behalf of, a caregiver for a child
or children.
1. A person is guilty of misrepresentation by, or on behalf of, a
caregiver for a child or children when he or she:
(a) intentionally makes a false written statement about himself,
herself, or another person while he or she, or such other person, is
being considered for employment, or while under employment as a
caregiver to a parent or guardian of a child or children, or the agent
of a parent or guardian, and
(b) such statement contains a materially false representation
regarding the caregiver's background related to the ability to safely
care for a child or children, and
(c) a reasonable person would have relied upon such statement in
making an employment decision.
2. For the purposes of this section, "caregiver" shall mean a person
employed by or being considered for employment to provide fifteen or
more hours of care per week to a child or children in the home of such
child or children or in the home of such caregiver, provided that such
term shall not apply to a child day care provider required to be
licensed pursuant to the social services law.
Misrepresentation by, or on behalf of, a caregiver for a child or
children is a class A misdemeanor, provided, however, that if any
sentence of imprisonment is imposed for a conviction under this section,
term of imprisonment shall not exceed six months.
ARTICLE 263 Sexual Performance By a Child
Definitions.
As used in this article the following definitions shall apply:
1. "Sexual performance" means any performance or part thereof which,
for purposes of section 263.16 of this article, includes sexual conduct
by a child less than sixteen years of age or, for purposes of section
263.05 or 263.15 of this article, includes sexual conduct by a child
less than seventeen years of age.
2. "Obscene sexual performance" means any performance which, for
purposes of section 263.11 of this article, includes sexual conduct by a
child less than sixteen years of age or, for purposes of section 263.10
of this article, includes sexual conduct by a child less than seventeen
years of age, in any material which is obscene, as such term is defined
in section 235.00 of this chapter.
3. "Sexual conduct" means actual or simulated vaginal sexual contact,
oral sexual contact, anal sexual contact, sexual bestiality,
masturbation, sado-masochistic abuse, or lewd exhibition of the
genitals.
4. "Performance" means any play, motion picture, photograph or dance.
Performance also means any other visual representation exhibited before
an audience.
5. "Promote" means to procure, manufacture, issue, sell, give,
provide, lend, mail, deliver, transfer, transmute, publish, distribute,
circulate, disseminate, present, exhibit or advertise, or to offer or
agree to do the same.
6. "Simulated" means the explicit depiction of any of the conduct set
forth in subdivision three of this section which creates the appearance
of such conduct and which exhibits any uncovered portion of the breasts,
genitals or buttocks.
7. "Oral sexual conduct" and "anal sexual conduct" mean the conduct
defined by subdivision two of section 130.00 of this chapter.
8. "Sado-masochistic abuse" means the conduct defined in subdivision
five of section 235.20 of this chapter.
9. For purposes of sections 263.10, 263.11, 263.15 and 263.16 of this
article, the terms "possession," "control" and "promotion" shall not
include conduct by an attorney when the performance was provided to such
attorney in relation to the representation of a person under
investigation or charged under this chapter or as a respondent pursuant
to the family court act, and is limited in use for the purpose of
representation for the period of such representation.
Use of a child in a sexual performance.
A person is guilty of the use of a child in a sexual performance if
knowing the character and content thereof he employs, authorizes or
induces a child less than seventeen years of age to engage in a sexual
performance or being a parent, legal guardian or custodian of such
child, he consents to the participation by such child in a sexual
performance.
Use of a child in a sexual performance is a class C felony.
Promoting an obscene sexual performance by a child.
A person is guilty of promoting an obscene sexual performance by a
child when, knowing the character and content thereof, such person
produces, directs or promotes any obscene performance which includes
sexual conduct by a child less than seventeen years of age, including a
performance created or altered by digitization as defined in section
245.15 of this part.
Promoting an obscene sexual performance by a child is a class D
felony.
Possessing an obscene sexual performance by a child.
A person is guilty of possessing an obscene sexual performance by a
child when, knowing the character and content thereof, such person
knowingly has in such person's possession or control, or knowingly
accesses with intent to view, any obscene performance which includes
sexual conduct by a child less than sixteen years of age, including a
performance created or altered by digitization as defined in section
245.15 of this part.
Possessing an obscene sexual performance by a child is a class E
felony.
Promoting a sexual performance by a child.
A person is guilty of promoting a sexual performance by a child when,
knowing the character and content thereof, such person produces, directs
or promotes any performance which includes sexual conduct by a child
less than seventeen years of age, including a performance created or
altered by digitization as defined in section 245.15 of this part.
Promoting a sexual performance by a child is a class D felony.
Possessing a sexual performance by a child.
A person is guilty of possessing a sexual performance by a child when,
knowing the character and content thereof, such person knowingly has in
such person's possession or control, or knowingly accesses with intent
to view, any performance which includes sexual conduct by a child less
than sixteen years of age, including a performance created or altered by
digitization as defined in section 245.15 of this part.
Possessing a sexual performance by a child is a class E felony.
Sexual performance by a child; affirmative defenses.
1. Under this article, it shall be an affirmative defense that the
defendant in good faith reasonably believed the person appearing in the
performance was, for purposes of section 263.11 or 263.16 of this
article, sixteen years of age or over or, for purposes of section
263.05, 263.10 or 263.15 of this article, seventeen years of age or
over.
2. In any prosecution for any offense pursuant to this article, it is
an affirmative defense that the person so charged was a librarian
engaged in the normal course of his employment, a motion picture
projectionist, stage employee or spotlight operator, cashier, doorman,
usher, candy stand attendant, porter or in any other non-managerial or
non-supervisory capacity in a motion picture theatre; provided he has no
financial interest, other than his employment, which employment does not
encompass compensation based upon any proportion of the gross receipts,
in the promotion of a sexual performance for sale, rental or exhibition
or in the promotion, presentation or direction of any sexual
performance, or is in any way responsible for acquiring such material
for sale, rental or exhibition.
Proof of age of child.
Whenever it becomes necessary for the purposes of this article to
determine whether a child who participated in a sexual performance was
under an age specified in this article, the court or jury may make such
determination by any of the following: personal inspection of the child;
inspection of a photograph or motion picture which constituted the
sexual performance; oral testimony by a witness to the sexual
performance as to the age of the child based upon the child's
appearance; expert medical testimony based upon the appearance of the
child in the sexual performance; and any other method authorized by any
applicable provision of law or by the rules of evidence at common law.
Facilitating a sexual performance by a child with a controlled
substance or alcohol.
1. A person is guilty of facilitating a sexual performance by a child
with a controlled substance or alcohol when he or she:
(a) (i) knowingly and unlawfully possesses a controlled substance as
defined in section thirty-three hundred six of the public health law or
any controlled substance that requires a prescription to obtain, (ii)
administers that substance to a person under the age of seventeen
without such person's consent, (iii) intends to commit against such
person conduct constituting a felony as defined in section 263.05,
263.10, or 263.15 of this article, and (iv) does so commit or attempt to
commit such conduct against such person; or
(b) (i) administers alcohol to a person under the age of seventeen
without such person's consent, (ii) intends to commit against such
person conduct constituting a felony defined in section 263.05, 263.10,
or 263.15 of this article, and (iii) does so commit or attempt to commit
such conduct against such person.
2. For the purposes of this section, "controlled substance" means any
substance or preparation, compound, mixture, salt, or isomer of any
substance defined in section thirty-three hundred six of the public
health law.
Facilitating a sexual performance by a child with a controlled
substance or alcohol is a class B felony.
TITLE P Offenses Against Public Safety
ARTICLE 265 Firearms and Other Dangerous Weapons
Definitions.
As used in this article and in article four hundred, the following
terms shall mean and include:
1. "Machine-gun" means a weapon of any description, irrespective of
size, by whatever name known, loaded or unloaded, from which a number of
shots or bullets may be rapidly or automatically discharged from a
magazine with one continuous pull of the trigger and includes a
sub-machine gun, and also includes any convertible pistol that is
equipped with a pistol converter.
2. "Firearm silencer" means any instrument, attachment, weapon or
appliance for causing the firing of any gun, revolver, pistol or other
firearms to be silent, or intended to lessen or muffle the noise of the
firing of any gun, revolver, pistol or other firearms.
3. "Firearm" means (a) any pistol or revolver; or (b) a shotgun having
one or more barrels less than eighteen inches in length; or (c) a rifle
having one or more barrels less than sixteen inches in length; or (d)
any weapon made from a shotgun or rifle whether by alteration,
modification, or otherwise if such weapon as altered, modified, or
otherwise has an overall length of less than twenty-six inches; or (e)
an assault weapon; or (f) any other weapon that is not otherwise defined
in this section containing any component that provides housing or a
structure designed to hold or integrate any fire control component that
is designed to or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by
action of explosive. For the purpose of this subdivision the length of
the barrel on a shotgun or rifle shall be determined by measuring the
distance between the muzzle and the face of the bolt, breech, or
breechlock when closed and when the shotgun or rifle is cocked; the
overall length of a weapon made from a shotgun or rifle is the distance
between the extreme ends of the weapon measured along a line parallel to
the center line of the bore. Firearm does not include an antique
firearm.
3-a. "Major component of a firearm, rifle or shotgun" means the
barrel, the slide or cylinder, the frame, or receiver of the firearm,
rifle, or shotgun.
4. "Switchblade knife" means any knife which has a blade which opens
automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other
device in the handle of the knife.
5. "Gravity knife" means any knife which has a blade which is released
from the handle or sheath thereof by the force of gravity or the
application of centrifugal force which, when released, is locked in
place by means of a button, spring, lever or other device.
5-a. "Pilum ballistic knife" means any knife which has a blade which
can be projected from the handle by hand pressure applied to a button,
lever, spring or other device in the handle of the knife.
5-b. "Metal knuckle knife" means a weapon that, when closed, cannot
function as a set of plastic knuckles or metal knuckles, nor as a knife
and when open, can function as both a set of plastic knuckles or metal
knuckles as well as a knife.
5-c. "Automatic knife" includes a stiletto, a switchblade knife, a
cane sword, a pilum ballistic knife, and a metal knuckle knife.
5-d. "Undetectable knife" means any knife or other instrument, which
does not utilize materials that are detectable by a metal detector or
magnetometer when set at a standard calibration, that is capable of
ready use as a stabbing or cutting weapon and was commercially
manufactured to be used as a weapon.
6. "Dispose of" means to dispose of, give, give away, lease, loan,
keep for sale, offer, offer for sale, sell, transfer and otherwise
dispose of.
7. "Deface" means to remove, deface, cover, alter or destroy the
manufacturer's serial number or any other distinguishing number or
identification mark.
8. "Gunsmith" means any person, firm, partnership, corporation or
company who engages in the business of repairing, altering, assembling,
manufacturing, cleaning, polishing, engraving or trueing, or who
performs any mechanical operation on, any firearm, large capacity
ammunition feeding device or machine-gun.
8-a. "Serialized" means bearing a visible identification number and/or
symbol in accordance with the requirements imposed on licensed importers
and licensed manufacturers pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 923 of
Title 18 of the United States Code and regulations issued pursuant
thereto in effect at the time of assembly, except for antique firearms
as defined in subdivision fourteen of this section, as added by chapter
nine hundred eighty-six of the laws of nineteen hundred seventy-four, or
any firearm, rifle or shotgun manufactured prior to nineteen hundred
sixty-eight.
9. "Dealer in firearms" means any person, firm, partnership,
corporation or company who engages in the business of purchasing,
selling, keeping for sale, loaning, leasing, or in any manner disposing
of, any assault weapon, large capacity ammunition feeding device,
pistol, revolver, or semiautomatic rifle.
10. "Licensing officer" means in the city of New York the police
commissioner of that city; in the county of Nassau the commissioner of
police of that county; in the county of Suffolk the sheriff of that
county except in the towns of Babylon, Brookhaven, Huntington, Islip and
Smithtown, the commissioner of police of that county; for the purposes
of section 400.01 of this chapter the superintendent of state police;
and elsewhere in the state a judge or justice of a court of record
having his office in the county of issuance.
11. "Rifle" means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and
intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned and
made or remade to use the energy of the explosive to fire only a single
projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger
using either: (a) fixed metallic cartridge; or (b) each projectile and
explosive charge are loaded individually for each shot discharged. In
addition to common, modern usage, rifles include those using obsolete
ammunition not commonly available in commercial trade, or that load
through the muzzle and fire a single projectile with each discharge, or
loading, including muzzle loading rifles, flintlock rifles, and black
powder rifles.
12. "Shotgun" means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade,
and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned
and made or remade to use the energy of the explosive to fire through a
smooth or rifled bore either a number of ball shot or a single
projectile for each single pull of the trigger using either: (a) a fixed
shotgun shell; or (b) a projectile or number of ball shot and explosive
charge are loaded individually for each shot discharged. In addition to
common, modern usage, shotguns include those using obsolete ammunition
not commonly available in commercial trade, or that load through the
muzzle and fires ball shot with each discharge, or loading, including
muzzle loading shotguns, flintlock shotguns, and black powder shotguns.
13. "Cane Sword" means a cane or swagger stick having concealed within
it a blade that may be used as a sword or stilletto.
* 14. "Antique firearm" means:
Any unloaded muzzle loading pistol or revolver with a matchlock,
flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system, or a
pistol or revolver which uses fixed cartridges which are no longer
available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.
* NB There are 2 sb 14's
* 14. "Chuka stick" means any device designed primarily as a weapon,
consisting of two or more lengths of a rigid material joined together by
a thong, rope or chain in such a manner as to allow free movement of a
portion of the device while held in the hand and capable of being
rotated in such a manner as to inflict serious injury upon a person by
striking or choking. These devices are also known as nunchakus and
centrifugal force sticks.
* NB There are 2 sb 14's
15. "Loaded firearm" means any firearm loaded with ammunition or any
firearm which is possessed by one who, at the same time, possesses a
quantity of ammunition which may be used to discharge such firearm.
15-a. "Electronic dart gun" means any device designed primarily as a
weapon, the purpose of which is to momentarily stun, knock out or
paralyze a person by passing an electrical shock to such person by means
of a dart or projectile.
15-b. "Throwing star" or "shuriken" means a disc-like object with
sharpened points on the circumference thereof and is designed for use
primarily as a weapon to be thrown.
15-c. "Electronic stun gun" means any device designed primarily as a
weapon, the purpose of which is to stun, cause mental disorientation,
knock out or paralyze a person by passing a high voltage electrical
shock to such person.
16. "Certified not suitable to possess a self-defense spray device, a
rifle or shotgun" means that the director or physician in charge of any
hospital or institution for mental illness, public or private, has
certified to the superintendent of state police or to any organized
police department of a county, city, town or village of this state, that
a person who has been judicially adjudicated incompetent, or who has
been confined to such institution for mental illness pursuant to
judicial authority, is not suitable to possess a self-defense spray
device, as defined in section 265.20 of this article, or a rifle or
shotgun.
17. "Serious offense" means (a) any of the following offenses defined
in the current penal law and any offense in any jurisdiction or the
former penal law that includes all of the essential elements of any of
the following offenses: illegally using, carrying or possessing a pistol
or other dangerous weapon; possession of burglar's tools; criminal
possession of stolen property in the third degree; escape in the third
degree; jostling; fraudulent accosting; endangering the welfare of a
child; obscenity in the third degree; issuing abortional articles;
permitting prostitution; promoting prostitution in the third degree;
stalking in the fourth degree; stalking in the third degree; sexual
misconduct; forcible touching; sexual abuse in the third degree; sexual
abuse in the second degree; criminal possession of a controlled
substance in the seventh degree; criminally possessing a hypodermic
instrument; criminally using drug paraphernalia in the second degree;
criminal possession of methamphetamine manufacturing material in the
second degree; and a hate crime defined in article four hundred
eighty-five of this chapter.
(b) any of the following offenses defined in the current penal law and
any offense in any jurisdiction or in the former penal law that includes
all of the essential elements of any of the following offenses, where
the defendant and the person against whom the offense was committed were
members of the same family or household as defined in subdivision one of
section 530.11 of the criminal procedure law and as established pursuant
to section 370.15 of the criminal procedure law: assault in the third
degree; menacing in the third degree; menacing in the second degree;
criminal obstruction of breathing or blood circulation; unlawful
imprisonment in the second degree; coercion in the third degree;
criminal tampering in the third degree; criminal contempt in the second
degree; harassment in the first degree; aggravated harassment in the
second degree; criminal trespass in the third degree; criminal trespass
in the second degree; arson in the fifth degree; or attempt to commit
any of the above-listed offenses.
(c) any misdemeanor offense in any jurisdiction or in the former penal
law that includes all of the essential elements of a felony offense as
defined in the current penal law.
18. "Armor piercing ammunition" means any ammunition capable of being
used in pistols or revolvers containing a projectile or projectile core,
or a projectile or projectile core for use in such ammunition, that is
constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other
substances) from one or a combination of any of the following: tungsten
alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper, or uranium.
19. "Duly authorized instructor" means (a) a duly commissioned officer
of the United States army, navy, marine corps or coast guard, or of the
national guard of the state of New York; or (b) a duly qualified adult
citizen of the United States who has been granted a certificate as an
instructor in small arms practice issued by the United States army, navy
or marine corps, or by the adjutant general of this state, or by the
division of criminal justice services, or by the national rifle
association of America, a not-for-profit corporation duly organized
under the laws of this state; (c) by a person duly qualified and
designated by the department of environmental conservation as its agent
in the giving of instruction and the making of certifications of
qualification in responsible hunting practices; or (d) a New York state
4-H certified shooting sports instructor.
20. "Disguised gun" means any weapon or device capable of being
concealed on the person from which a shot can be discharged through the
energy of an explosive and is designed and intended to appear to be
either; (a) something other than a gun; or (b) a toy gun that shall
include, but not be limited to, any firearm, rifle, shotgun or
machine-gun displaying a color finish other than the original
manufacture color, a decorative pattern or plastic like surface;
provided, however, that any rifle or shotgun displaying a camouflage
color finish or pattern that is intended for hunting, as defined by
article eleven of the environmental conservation law, shall not be
considered a "disguised gun" for purposes of this section.
21. "Semiautomatic" means any repeating rifle, shotgun or pistol,
regardless of barrel or overall length, which utilizes a portion of the
energy of a firing cartridge or shell to extract the fired cartridge
case or spent shell and chamber the next round, and which requires a
separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge or shell.
22. "Assault weapon" means
(a) a semiautomatic rifle that has an ability to accept a detachable
magazine and has at least one of the following characteristics:
(i) a folding or telescoping stock;
(ii) a pistol grip that protrudes conspicuously beneath the action of
the weapon;
(iii) a thumbhole stock;
(iv) a second handgrip or a protruding grip that can be held by the
non-trigger hand;
(v) a bayonet mount;
(vi) a flash suppressor, muzzle break, muzzle compensator, or threaded
barrel designed to accommodate a flash suppressor, muzzle break, or
muzzle compensator;
(vii) a grenade launcher; or
(b) a semiautomatic shotgun that has at least one of the following
characteristics:
(i) a folding or telescoping stock;
(ii) a thumbhole stock;
(iii) a second handgrip or a protruding grip that can be held by the
non-trigger hand;
(iv) a fixed magazine capacity in excess of seven rounds;
(v) an ability to accept a detachable magazine; or
(c) a semiautomatic pistol that has an ability to accept a detachable
magazine and has at least one of the following characteristics:
(i) a folding or telescoping stock;
(ii) a thumbhole stock;
(iii) a second handgrip or a protruding grip that can be held by the
non-trigger hand;
(iv) capacity to accept an ammunition magazine that attaches to the
pistol outside of the pistol grip;
(v) a threaded barrel capable of accepting a barrel extender, flash
suppressor, forward handgrip, or silencer;
(vi) a shroud that is attached to, or partially or completely
encircles, the barrel and that permits the shooter to hold the firearm
with the non-trigger hand without being burned;
(vii) a manufactured weight of fifty ounces or more when the pistol is
unloaded; or
(viii) a semiautomatic version of an automatic rifle, shotgun or
firearm;
(d) a revolving cylinder shotgun;
(e) a semiautomatic rifle, a semiautomatic shotgun or a semiautomatic
pistol or weapon defined in subparagraph (v) of paragraph (e) of
subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 of this chapter as added by
chapter one hundred eighty-nine of the laws of two thousand and
otherwise lawfully possessed pursuant to such chapter of the laws of two
thousand prior to September fourteenth, nineteen hundred ninety-four;
(f) a semiautomatic rifle, a semiautomatic shotgun or a semiautomatic
pistol or weapon defined in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of this
subdivision, possessed prior to the date of enactment of the chapter of
the laws of two thousand thirteen which added this paragraph;
(g) provided, however, that such term does not include:
(i) any rifle, shotgun or pistol that (A) is manually operated by
bolt, pump, lever or slide action; (B) has been rendered permanently
inoperable; or (C) is an antique firearm as defined in 18 U.S.C.
921(a)(16);
(ii) a semiautomatic rifle that cannot accept a detachable magazine
that holds more than five rounds of ammunition;
(iii) a semiautomatic shotgun that cannot hold more than five rounds
of ammunition in a fixed or detachable magazine; or
(iv) a rifle, shotgun or pistol, or a replica or a duplicate thereof,
specified in Appendix A to 18 U.S.C. 922 as such weapon was manufactured
on October first, nineteen hundred ninety-three. The mere fact that a
weapon is not listed in Appendix A shall not be construed to mean that
such weapon is an assault weapon;
(v) any weapon validly registered pursuant to subdivision sixteen-a of
section 400.00 of this chapter. Such weapons shall be subject to the
provisions of paragraph (h) of this subdivision;
(vi) any firearm, rifle, or shotgun that was manufactured at least
fifty years prior to the current date, but not including replicas
thereof that is validly registered pursuant to subdivision sixteen-a of
section 400.00 of this chapter;
(h) Any weapon defined in paragraph (e) or (f) of this subdivision may
only be sold to, exchanged with or disposed of to a purchaser authorized
to possess such weapons or to an individual or entity outside of the
state provided that any such transfer to an individual or entity outside
of the state must be reported to the entity wherein the weapon is
registered within seventy-two hours of such transfer. An individual who
transfers any such weapon to an individual inside New York state or
without complying with the provisions of this paragraph shall be guilty
of a class A misdemeanor.
23. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means a magazine, belt,
drum, feed strip, or similar device, that has a capacity of, or that can
be readily restored or converted to accept, more than ten rounds of
ammunition; provided, however, that such term does not include an
attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating
only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition or a feeding device that is a
curio or relic. A feeding device that is a curio or relic is defined as
a device that (i) was manufactured at least fifty years prior to the
current date, (ii) is only capable of being used exclusively in a
firearm, rifle, or shotgun that was manufactured at least fifty years
prior to the current date, but not including replicas thereof, (iii) is
possessed by an individual who is not prohibited by state or federal law
from possessing a firearm and (iv) is registered with the division of
state police pursuant to subdivision sixteen-a of section 400.00 of this
chapter, except such feeding devices transferred into the state may be
registered at any time, provided they are registered within thirty days
of their transfer into the state. Notwithstanding paragraph (h) of
subdivision twenty-two of this section, such feeding devices may be
transferred provided that such transfer shall be subject to the
provisions of section 400.03 of this chapter including the check
required to be conducted pursuant to such section.
24. "Seller of ammunition" means any person, firm, partnership,
corporation or company who engages in the business of purchasing,
selling or keeping ammunition.
25. "Qualified retired New York or federal law enforcement officer"
means an individual who is a retired police officer as police officer is
defined in subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law, a retired peace officer as peace officer is defined in
section 2.10 of the criminal procedure law or a retired federal law
enforcement officer as federal law enforcement officer is defined in
section 2.15 of the criminal procedure law, who: (a) separated from
service in good standing from a public agency located in New York state
in which such person served as either a police officer, peace officer or
federal law enforcement officer; and (b) before such separation, was
authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection,
investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person
for, any violation of law, and had statutory powers of arrest, pursuant
to their official duties, under the criminal procedure law; and (c) (i)
before such separation, served as either a police officer, peace officer
or federal law enforcement officer for five years or more and at the
time of separation, is such an officer; or (ii) separated from service
with such agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of
such service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined by
such agency at or before the time of separation; and (d)(i) has not been
found by a qualified medical professional employed by such agency to be
unqualified for reasons relating to mental health; or (ii) has not
entered into an agreement with such agency from which the individual is
separating from service in which that individual acknowledges he or she
is not qualified for reasons relating to mental health; and (e) is not
otherwise prohibited by New York or federal law from possessing any
firearm.
26. "Rapid-fire modification device" means any bump stock, trigger
crank, binary trigger system, burst trigger system, pistol converter, or
any other device that is designed to accelerate the rate of fire of a
semi-automatic firearm, rifle or shotgun.
27. "Bump stock" means any device or instrument that increases the
rate of fire achievable with a semi-automatic firearm, rifle or shotgun
by using energy from the recoil of the weapon to generate a
reciprocating action that facilitates repeated activation of the
trigger.
28. "Trigger crank" means any device or instrument that repeatedly
activates the trigger of a semi-automatic firearm, rifle or shotgun
through the use of a lever or other part that is turned in a circular
motion and thereby accelerates the rate of fire of such firearm, rifle
or shotgun, provided, however, that "trigger crank" shall not include
any weapon initially designed and manufactured to fire through the use
of a crank or lever.
29. "Binary trigger system" means any device that, when installed in
or attached to a semi-automatic firearm rifle, or shotgun causes that
weapon to fire once when the trigger is pulled and again when the
trigger is released.
30. "Burst trigger system" means any device that, when installed in or
attached to a semi-automatic firearm, rifle, or shot gun, allows that
weapon to discharge two or more shots with a single pull or the trigger
by altering the trigger reset.
31. "New York state 4-H certified shooting instructor" means a
certified shooting sports instructor of the National 4-H Shooting
Sports, a non-profit organization, engaged in shooting education and
youth development programming that is administered by the National
Institute of Food and Agriculture of the United States department of
agriculture.
* 32. "Unfinished frame or receiver" means any unserialized material
that does not constitute the frame or receiver of a firearm, rifle or
shotgun but that has been shaped or formed in any way for the purpose of
becoming the frame or receiver of a firearm, rifle or shotgun, and which
may readily be made into a functional frame or receiver through milling,
drilling or other means.
* NB There are 2 sb 32's
* 32. "Ghost gun" means a firearm, rifle or shotgun that does not
comply with the provisions of section 265.07 of this article and is not
serialized.
* NB There are 2 sb 32's
33. "Microstamp" means a unique alphanumeric or geometric code that
identifies the make, model, and serial number of a firearm.
34. "Microstamping component" means a component part of a
semi-automatic pistol that will produce a microstamp on at least one
location of the expended cartridge case each time the pistol is fired.
35. "Microstamping-enabled pistol" means any semiautomatic pistol that
contains a microstamping component.
36. "Pistol converter" means any device or instrument that, when
installed in or attached to the rear of the slide of a semi-automatic
pistol, replaces the backplate and interferes with the trigger mechanism
and thereby enables the pistol to discharge a number of shots or bullets
rapidly or automatically with one continuous pull of the trigger.
37. "Convertible pistol" means any semi-automatic pistol with a
cruciform trigger bar that can be readily altered by hand or with common
household tools so that it can be converted into a machine-gun by the
installation or attachment of a pistol converter. As used in this
subdivision, "common household tools" means screwdrivers, pipe wrenches,
pliers, hacksaws, crowbars, electric drills or rotary tools, hammers,
chisels, files, and crescent wrenches. "Convertible pistol" does not
include hammer-fired semi-automatic pistols or any striker-fired
semi-automatic pistol lacking a cruciform trigger bar. A notch, tab, or
other piece of material on a pistol frame is not sufficient to prevent
ready alteration so that the pistol can be converted into a machine-gun
by the installation or attachment of a pistol converter, and will not
prevent such pistol from qualifying as a convertible pistol under this
subdivision, if such notch, tab, or other piece of material can be
readily removed with common household tools.
38. "Three-dimensional printer" means:
(a) any machine capable of rendering a three-dimensional object from a
digital design file using additive manufacturing; or
(b) any machine capable of making three-dimensional modifications to
an object from a digital design file using subtractive manufacturing.
39. "Digital firearm manufacturing code" means any digital
instructions in the form of computer-aided design files or other code or
instructions stored and displayed in electronic format as a digital
model that may be used to program a three-dimensional printer or a
computer numerical control (CNC) milling machine to manufacture or
produce any firearm, rifle, shotgun, ghost gun, unfinished frame or
receiver, firearm silencer, rapid-fire modification device or major
component of a firearm.
40. "Cruciform trigger bar" means a component in a semi-automatic
pistol that serves as a linkage between the trigger and the firing pin
and has its sear incorporated in a cross-shaped surface.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon in the fourth
degree when:
(1) He or she possesses any firearm, electronic dart gun, electronic
stun gun, switchblade knife, pilum ballistic knife, metal knuckle knife,
cane sword, billy, blackjack, bludgeon, plastic knuckles, metal
knuckles, chuka stick, sand bag, sandclub, wrist-brace type slingshot or
slungshot, shuriken, or throwing star;
(2) He or she possesses any dagger, dangerous knife, dirk, machete,
razor, stiletto, imitation pistol, undetectable knife or any other
dangerous or deadly instrument or weapon with intent to use the same
unlawfully against another; or
(3); or
(4) He possesses a rifle, shotgun, antique firearm, black powder
rifle, black powder shotgun, or any muzzle-loading firearm, and has been
convicted of a felony or serious offense; or
(5) He possesses any dangerous or deadly weapon and is not a citizen
of the United States; or
(6) He is a person who has been certified not suitable to possess a
rifle or shotgun, as defined in subdivision sixteen of section 265.00,
and refuses to yield possession of such rifle or shotgun upon the demand
of a police officer. Whenever a person is certified not suitable to
possess a rifle or shotgun, a member of the police department to which
such certification is made, or of the state police, shall forthwith
seize any rifle or shotgun possessed by such person. A rifle or shotgun
seized as herein provided shall not be destroyed, but shall be delivered
to the headquarters of such police department, or state police, and
there retained until the aforesaid certificate has been rescinded by the
director or physician in charge, or other disposition of such rifle or
shotgun has been ordered or authorized by a court of competent
jurisdiction.
(7) He knowingly possesses a bullet containing an explosive substance
designed to detonate upon impact.
(8) Such person possesses any armor piercing ammunition with intent to
use the same unlawfully against another.
* (9) Such person possesses a major component of a firearm, rifle, or
shotgun and such person is prohibited from possessing a shotgun or rifle
pursuant to:
(i) this article;
(ii) subsection (g) of section 922 of title 18 of the United States
Code; or
(iii) a temporary or final extreme risk protection order issued under
article sixty-three-A of the civil practice law and rules; or
* NB There are 2 sb (9)'s
* (9) Such person is not licensed as a gunsmith or a dealer in
firearms pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter and, knowing it is a
ghost gun, such person possesses a ghost gun, provided that a person
shall not be guilty under this subdivision when he or she (a)
voluntarily surrenders such ghost gun to any law enforcement official
designated pursuant to subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of subdivision
(a) of section 265.20 of this article; or (b) for a period of six months
after the effective date of this section possesses a ghost gun prior to
serialization and registration of such ghost gun pursuant to section
265.07 of this article.
* NB There are 2 sb (9)'s
(10) Such person is not licensed as a gunsmith or dealer in firearms
pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter and, knowing it is an
unserialized frame or receiver or unfinished frame or receiver, such
person possesses an unserialized frame or receiver or unfinished frame
or receiver, provided that for a period of six months after the
effective date of this subdivision, a person shall not be guilty under
this subdivision when such person: (a) voluntarily surrenders such
unserialized frame or receiver or unfinished frame or receiver to any
law enforcement official designated pursuant to subparagraph (f) of
paragraph one of subdivision (a) of section 265.20 of this article; or
(b) possesses such unserialized frame or receiver or unfinished frame or
receiver prior to serialization of such unserialized frame or receiver
or unfinished frame or receiver in accordance with the requirements
imposed on licensed importers and licensed manufacturers pursuant to
subsection (i) of Section 923 of Title 18 of the United States Code and
regulations issued pursuant thereto, except for antique firearms as
defined in subdivision fourteen of section 265.00 of this article, as
added by chapter nine hundred eighty-six of the laws of nineteen hundred
seventy-four, or any firearm, rifle or shotgun manufactured prior to
nineteen hundred sixty-eight.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the fourth degree is a class A
misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of a weapon on school grounds.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon on school
grounds when he or she knowingly has in his or her possession a rifle,
shotgun, or firearm in or upon a building or grounds, used for
educational purposes, of any school, college, or university, except the
forestry lands, wherever located, owned, maintained or held in trust for
the benefit of the New York State College of Forestry at Syracuse
University, now known as the State University of New York college of
environmental science and forestry, or upon a school bus as defined in
section one hundred forty-two of the vehicle and traffic law, without
the written authorization of such educational institution; provided,
however no school, as defined in subdivision ten of section eleven
hundred twenty-five of the education law, shall issue such written
authorization to any teacher, school administrator, or other person
employed at the school who is not primarily employed as a school
resource officer, police officer, peace officer, or security guard who
has been issued a special armed guard registration card as defined in
section eighty-nine-f of the general business law, regardless of whether
the person is employed directly by such school or by a third party.
Criminal possession of a weapon on school grounds is a class E felony.
Criminal possession of a firearm.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a firearm when he or she:
(1) possesses any firearm or; (2) lawfully possesses a firearm prior to
the effective date of the chapter of the laws of two thousand thirteen
which added this section subject to the registration requirements of
subdivision sixteen-a of section 400.00 of this chapter and knowingly
fails to register such firearm pursuant to such subdivision.
Criminal possession of a firearm is a class E felony.
Criminal possession of a rapid-fire modification device.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a rapid-fire modification
device when he or she knowingly possesses any rapid-fire modification
device.
Criminal possession of a rapid-fire modification device is a class A
misdemeanor.
Criminal possession of a weapon in a restricted location.
1. A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon in a
restricted location when such person possesses a firearm, rifle, or
shotgun and enters into or remains on or in private property where such
person knows or reasonably should know that the owner or lessee of such
property has not permitted such possession by clear and conspicuous
signage indicating that the carrying of firearms, rifles, or shotguns on
their property is permitted or by otherwise giving express consent.
2. This section shall not apply to:
(a) police officers as defined in section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law;
(b) persons who are designated peace officers as defined in section
2.10 of the criminal procedure law;
(c) qualified law enforcement officers who are authorized to carry
concealed firearms pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 926B, or qualified retired law
enforcement officers who are authorized to carry concealed firearms
pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 926C;
(d) security guards as defined by and registered under article seven-A
of the general business law who has been granted a special armed
registration card, while at the location of their employment and during
their work hours as such a security guard;
(e) active-duty military personnel;
(f) persons licensed under paragraph (c), (d) or (e) of subdivision
two of section 400.00 of this chapter while in the course of his or her
official duties;
(g) persons while lawfully engaged in taking of wildlife or attempts
to take wildlife pursuant to a hunting permit or license issued by the
department of environmental conservation, or as otherwise authorized
pursuant to section 11-0707 and 11-0709 of the environmental
conservation law; or
(h) persons, while acting in the scope of their official duties, who
are employed in the revenue control and security departments of the
metropolitan transportation authority, or the New York city transit
authority or an affiliate or subsidiary thereof, who are authorized to
carry a firearm as part of their employment.
Criminal possession of a weapon in a restricted location is a class E
felony.
Criminal possession of a firearm, rifle or shotgun in a
sensitive location.
1. A person is guilty of criminal possession of a firearm, rifle or
shotgun in a sensitive location when such person possesses a firearm,
rifle or shotgun in or upon a sensitive location, and such person knows
or reasonably should know such location is a sensitive location.
2. For the purposes of this section, a sensitive location shall mean:
(a) any place owned or under the control of federal, state or local
government, for the purpose of government administration, including
courts;
(b) any location providing health, behavioral health, or chemical
dependance care or services;
(c) any place of worship, except for those persons responsible for
security at such place of worship;
(d) libraries, public playgrounds, public parks, and zoos, provided
that for the purposes of this section a "public park" shall not include
(i) any privately held land within a public park not dedicated to public
use or (ii) the forest preserve as defined in subdivision six of section
9-0101 of the environmental conservation law;
(e) the location of any program licensed, regulated, certified,
funded, or approved by the office of children and family services that
provides services to children, youth, or young adults, any legally
exempt childcare provider; a childcare program for which a permit to
operate such program has been issued by the department of health and
mental hygiene pursuant to the health code of the city of New York;
(f) nursery schools, preschools, and summer camps; provided that for
the purposes of this section, nothing shall prohibit the activity
permitted under subdivisions seven-c, seven-d, and seven-e of section
265.20 of this article where such activity occurs at a summer camp in
accordance with all applicable local, state, and federal laws, rules,
and regulations;
(g) the location of any program licensed, regulated, certified,
operated, or funded by the office for people with developmental
disabilities;
(h) the location of any program licensed, regulated, certified,
operated, or funded by office of addiction services and supports;
(i) the location of any program licensed, regulated, certified,
operated, or funded by the office of mental health;
(j) the location of any program licensed, regulated, certified,
operated, or funded by the office of temporary and disability
assistance;
(k) homeless shelters, runaway homeless youth shelters, family
shelters, shelters for adults, domestic violence shelters, and emergency
shelters, and residential programs for victims of domestic violence;
(l) residential settings licensed, certified, regulated, funded, or
operated by the department of health;
(m) in or upon any building or grounds, owned or leased, of any
educational institutions, colleges and universities, licensed private
career schools, school districts, public schools, private schools
licensed under article one hundred one of the education law, charter
schools, non-public schools, board of cooperative educational services,
special act schools, preschool special education programs, private
residential or non-residential schools for the education of students
with disabilities, and any state-operated or state-supported schools;
(n) any place, conveyance, or vehicle used for public transportation
or public transit, subway cars, train cars, buses, ferries, railroad,
omnibus, marine or aviation transportation; or any facility used for or
in connection with service in the transportation of passengers,
airports, train stations, subway and rail stations, and bus terminals;
(o) any establishment holding an active license for on-premise
consumption pursuant to article four, four-A, five, or six of the
alcoholic beverage control law where alcohol is consumed and any
establishment licensed under article four of the cannabis law for
on-premise consumption;
(p) any place used for the performance, art entertainment, gaming, or
sporting events such as theaters, stadiums, racetracks, museums,
amusement parks, performance venues, concerts, exhibits, conference
centers, banquet halls, and gaming facilities and video lottery terminal
facilities as licensed by the gaming commission;
(q) any location being used as a polling place;
(r) any public sidewalk or other public area restricted from general
public access for a limited time or special event that has been issued a
permit for such time or event by a governmental entity, or subject to
specific, heightened law enforcement protection, or has otherwise had
such access restricted by a governmental entity, provided such location
is identified as such by clear and conspicuous signage;
(s) any gathering of individuals to collectively express their
constitutional rights to protest or assemble;
(t) the area commonly known as Times Square, as such area is
determined and identified by the city of New York; provided such area
shall be clearly and conspicuously identified with signage.
3. This section shall not apply to:
(a) qualified law enforcement officers who are authorized to carry
concealed firearms pursuant to 18 U.S.C 926B, or qualified retired law
enforcement officers who are authorized to carry concealed firearms
pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 926C;
(b) persons who are police officers as defined in subdivision
thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law;
(c) persons who are designated peace officers by section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law;
(d) persons who were employed as police officers as defined in
subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law
but are retired;
(e) security guards as defined by and registered under article seven-A
of the general business law, who have been granted a special armed
registration card, while at the location of their employment and during
their work hours as such a security guard;
(f) active-duty military personnel;
(g) persons licensed under paragraph (c), (d) or (e) of subdivision
two of section 400.00 of this chapter while in the course of his or her
official duties;
(h) a government employee under the express written consent of such
employee's supervising government entity for the purposes of natural
resource protection and management;
(i) persons while lawfully engaged in taking of wildlife or attempts
to take wildlife pursuant to a hunting permit or license issued by the
department of environmental conservation, or as otherwise authorized
pursuant to the environmental conservation law, and persons while
lawfully engaged in hunter education training, marksmanship practice,
marksmanship competition or training, or training in the safe handling
and use of firearms, in accordance with all applicable local, state, and
federal laws, rules, and regulations;
(j) persons operating a program in a sensitive location out of their
residence, which is licensed, certified, authorized, or funded by the
state or a municipality, so long as such possession is in compliance
with any rules or regulations applicable to the operation of such
program and use or storage of firearms;
(k) persons, while acting in the scope of their official duties, who
are employed in the revenue control and security departments of the
metropolitan transportation authority, or the New York city transit
authority or an affiliate or subsidiary thereof, who are authorized to
carry a firearm as part of their employment;
(l) persons while lawfully engaged in historical reenactments,
educational programming involving historical weapons of warfare, or
motion picture or theatrical productions, in accordance with all
applicable local, state, and federal laws, rules and regulations;
(m) persons, while acting within the scope of their official duties,
who are responsible for the storage or display of antique firearms,
rifles or shotguns at museums and historic sites;
(n) persons while participating in military ceremonies, funerals, and
honor guards; or
(o) persons while lawfully engaging in learning, practicing, training
for, competing in, or travelling into or within the state to learn,
practice, train for, or compete in, the sport of biathlon, in accordance
with all applicable local, state, and federal laws, rules, and
regulations.
Criminal possession of a firearm, rifle or shotgun in a sensitive
location is a class E felony.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon in the third
degree when:
(1) Such person commits the crime of criminal possession of a weapon
in the fourth degree as defined in subdivision one, two, three or five
of section 265.01, and has been previously convicted of any crime; or
(2) Such person possesses any explosive or incendiary bomb, bombshell,
firearm silencer, machine-gun or any other firearm or weapon simulating
a machine-gun and which is adaptable for such use; or
(3) Such person knowingly possesses a machine-gun, firearm, rifle or
shotgun which has been defaced for the purpose of concealment or
prevention of the detection of a crime or misrepresenting the identity
of such machine-gun, firearm, rifle or shotgun; or
(5) (i) Such person possesses three or more firearms; or (ii) such
person possesses a firearm and has been previously convicted of a felony
or a class A misdemeanor defined in this chapter within the five years
immediately preceding the commission of the offense and such possession
did not take place in the person's home or place of business; or
(6) Such person knowingly possesses any disguised gun; or
(7) Such person possesses an assault weapon; or
(8) Such person possesses a large capacity ammunition feeding device;
or
(9) Such person possesses an unloaded firearm and also commits a drug
trafficking felony as defined in subdivision twenty-one of section 10.00
of this chapter as part of the same criminal transaction; or
(10) Such person possesses an unloaded firearm and also commits any
violent felony offense as defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of
this chapter as part of the same criminal transaction.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the third degree is a class D
felony.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon in the second
degree when:
(1) with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, such
person:
(a) possesses a machine-gun; or
(b) possesses a loaded firearm; or
(c) possesses a disguised gun; or
(2) such person possesses five or more firearms; or
(3) such person possesses any loaded firearm. Such possession shall
not, except as provided in subdivision one or seven of section 265.02 of
this article, constitute a violation of this subdivision if such
possession takes place in such person's home or place of business.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the second degree is a class C
felony.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a weapon in the first
degree when such person:
(1) possesses any explosive substance with intent to use the same
unlawfully against the person or property of another; or
(2) possesses ten or more firearms.
Criminal possession of a weapon in the first degree is a class B
felony.
Unlawful possession of weapons by persons under sixteen.
It shall be unlawful for any person under the age of sixteen to
possess any air-gun, spring-gun or other instrument or weapon in which
the propelling force is a spring or air, or any gun or any instrument or
weapon in or upon which any loaded or blank cartridges may be used, or
any loaded or blank cartridges or ammunition therefor, or any dangerous
knife; provided that the possession of rifle or shotgun or ammunition
therefor by the holder of a hunting license or permit issued pursuant to
article eleven of the environmental conservation law and used in
accordance with said law shall not be governed by this section.
A person who violates the provisions of this section shall be adjudged
a juvenile delinquent.
Unlawful possession of a weapon upon school grounds.
It shall be unlawful for any person age sixteen or older to knowingly
possess any air-gun, spring-gun or other instrument or weapon in which
the propelling force is a spring, air, piston or CO2 cartridge in or
upon a building or grounds, used for educational purposes, of any
school, college or university, without the written authorization of such
educational institution.
Unlawful possession of a weapon upon school grounds is a violation.
Registration and serialization of firearms, rifles, shotguns,
finished frames or receivers, and unfinished frames or
receivers.
(1) For the purposes of this section, "unfinished frame or receiver"
means any unserialized material that does not constitute the frame or
receiver of a firearm, rifle or shotgun but that has been shaped or
formed in any way for the purpose of becoming the frame or receiver of a
firearm, rifle or shotgun, and which may readily be made into a
functional frame or receiver through milling, drilling or other means.
(2) On or before the effective date of this section, and promptly upon
taking possession thereof at any time thereafter, any person licensed as
a gunsmith, or required to be, or a dealer in firearms pursuant to
section 400.00 of this chapter, who is in possession of an unserialized
firearm, rifle, shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or unfinished frame
or receiver shall:
(a) engrave, cast, stamp or otherwise conspicuously place both a
unique serial number and his or her name (or recognized abbreviation) on
such firearm, rifle, shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or unfinished
frame or receiver, in a manner that satisfies or exceeds the
requirements imposed on licensed importers and manufacturers pursuant to
section (i) of Section 923 of Title 18 of the United States Code and
regulations issued pursuant thereto at the time of such assembly; and
(b) register with the division of criminal justice services in
accordance with regulations promulgated by such division any such
firearm, rifle or shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or unfinished
frame or receiver.
Any person licensed as a gunsmith, or required to be, or a dealer in
firearms pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter who fails to comply
with the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class E felony.
Criminal use of a firearm in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of a firearm in the second degree
when he commits any class C violent felony offense as defined in
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 70.02 and he either:
(1) possesses a deadly weapon, if the weapon is a loaded weapon from
which a shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious injury
may be discharged; or
(2) displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm.
Criminal use of a firearm in the second degree is a class C felony.
Criminal use of a firearm in the first degree.
(1) A person is guilty of criminal use of a firearm in the first
degree when he commits any class B violent felony offense as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of section 70.02 and he either:
(a) possesses a deadly weapon, if the weapon is a loaded weapon from
which a shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious injury
may be discharged; or
(b) displays what appears to be a pistol, revolver, rifle, shotgun,
machine gun or other firearm.
Criminal use of a firearm in the first degree is a class B felony.
(2) Sentencing. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the
contrary, when a person is convicted of criminal use of a firearm in the
first degree as defined in subdivision one of this section, the court
shall impose an additional consecutive sentence of five years to the
sentence imposed on the underlying class B violent felony offense where
the person convicted of such crime displays a loaded weapon from which a
shot, readily capable of producing death or other serious injury may be
discharged, in furtherance of the commission of such crime, provided,
however, that such additional sentence shall not be imposed if the
court, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the crime and to
the history and character of the defendant, finds on the record that
such additional consecutive sentence would be unduly harsh and that not
imposing such sentence would be consistent with the public safety and
would not deprecate the seriousness of the crime. Notwithstanding any
other provision of law to the contrary, the aggregate of the five year
consecutive term imposed pursuant to this subdivision and the minimum
term of the indeterminate sentence imposed on the underlying class B
violent felony shall constitute the new aggregate minimum term of
imprisonment, and a person subject to such term shall be required to
serve the entire aggregate minimum term and shall not be eligible for
release on parole or conditional release during such term. This
subdivision shall not apply where the defendant's criminal liability for
displaying a loaded weapon from which a shot, readily capable of
producing death or other serious injury may be discharged, in
furtherance of the commission of crime is based on the conduct of
another pursuant to section 20.00 of this chapter.
Manufacture, transport, disposition and defacement of weapons
and dangerous instruments and appliances.
1. Any person who manufactures or causes to be manufactured any
machine-gun, ghost gun, unfinished frame or receiver, firearm silencer,
major component of a firearm, assault weapon, large capacity ammunition
feeding device or disguised gun is guilty of a class D felony. Any
person who manufactures or causes to be manufactured any rapid-fire
modification device is guilty of a class E felony. Any person who
manufactures or causes to be manufactured any switchblade knife, pilum
ballistic knife, metal knuckle knife, undetectable knife, billy,
blackjack, bludgeon, plastic knuckles, metal knuckles, throwing star,
chuka stick, sandbag, sandclub or slungshot is guilty of a class A
misdemeanor.
2. Any person who transports or ships any machine-gun, ghost gun,
firearm silencer, assault weapon or large capacity ammunition feeding
device or disguised gun, or who transports or ships as merchandise five
or more firearms, is guilty of a class D felony. Any person who
transports or ships any rapid-fire modification device is guilty of a
class E felony. Any person who transports or ships as merchandise any
firearm, other than an assault weapon, switchblade knife, pilum
ballistic knife, undetectable knife, billy, blackjack, bludgeon, plastic
knuckles, metal knuckles, throwing star, chuka stick, sandbag or
slungshot is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
3. Any person who disposes of any machine-gun, assault weapon, large
capacity ammunition feeding device or firearm silencer is guilty of a
class D felony. Any person who disposes of any rapid-fire modification
device is guilty of a class E felony. Any person who knowingly buys,
receives, disposes of, or conceals a machine-gun, firearm, large
capacity ammunition feeding device, rifle or shotgun which has been
defaced for the purpose of concealment or prevention of the detection of
a crime or misrepresenting the identity of such machine-gun, firearm,
large capacity ammunition feeding device, rifle or shotgun is guilty of
a class D felony.
4. Any person who disposes of any of the weapons, instruments or
appliances specified in subdivision one of section 265.01, except a
firearm, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor, and he is guilty of a class
D felony if he has previously been convicted of any crime.
5. Any person who disposes of any of the weapons, instruments,
appliances or substances specified in section 265.05 to any other person
under the age of sixteen years is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
6. Any person who wilfully defaces any machine-gun, large capacity
ammunition feeding device or firearm is guilty of a class D felony.
7. Any person, other than a wholesale dealer, or gunsmith or dealer in
firearms duly licensed pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter,
lawfully in possession of a firearm or semiautomatic rifle, who disposes
of the same without first notifying in writing the licensing officer in
the city of New York and counties of Nassau and Suffolk and elsewhere in
the state the executive department, division of state police, Albany, is
guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
8. Any person, dealer, firm, partnership or corporation who
intentionally designs or transforms a firearm, rifle, shotgun or
machine-gun to resemble a toy gun by either altering or concealing the
original color or surface of the gun with the purpose of selling such
weapon is guilty of a class D felony.
9. Any person who modifies a microstamping-enabled pistol or
microstamping component with the intent to prevent the production of a
microstamp is, for a first offense, guilty of a class B misdemeanor, and
for a second or subsequent offense, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
For the purposes of this subdivision, it shall not be unlawful to
replace the microstamping component of a microstamping-enabled pistol
when the component is damaged or in need of replacement with another
valid microstamping component for the safe use of the firearm or
replacing such pin for a legitimate sporting purpose that is only used
for that legitimate purpose.
10. Any dealer in firearms or gunsmith who, on or after May
thirty-first, two thousand twenty-seven, sells, transfers, disposes of,
or transports or ships as merchandise a convertible pistol shall be
guilty of a class D felony.
11. Any person who knowingly sells, offers to sell, transfers,
distributes, sell access to, provides, or otherwise disposes of digital
firearm manufacturing code to any person who does not hold both: (a) a
valid gunsmith license as provided in section 400.00 of this chapter;
and (b) a valid federal firearms license, is guilty of a class A
misdemeanor. It is not a violation of this subdivision if: (a) the
person sells, offers to sell, transfers, sells access to, provides, or
otherwise disposes of the digital firearm manufacturing code with the
reasonable belief that the recipient will not use the digital firearm
manufacturing code to violate this subdivision or subdivision twelve of
this section; (b) neither (i) the person who sells, offers to sell,
transfers, sells access to, or otherwise disposes of the digital firearm
manufacturing code, nor (ii) the recipient of the digital firearm
manufacturing code are in New York state; or (c) the recipient of the
digital firearm manufacturing code holds both (i) a gunsmith license as
provided in section 400.00 of this chapter and (ii) a valid federal
firearms license.
12. Any person who possesses digital firearm manufacturing code with
the intent to: (a) illegally manufacture any item described in
subdivision one, two, three, or three-a of section 265.00 of this
article; (b) distribute to a person in the state of New York for whom
the sender knows or reasonably should know would be prohibited from
possessing the manufactured or produced product under section 265.02 of
this article or subsection (G) of section 922 of title 18 of the United
States Code; or (c) distribute to a person in the state of New York who
does not hold both (i) a valid gunsmith license as provided in section
400.00 of this chapter and (ii) a valid federal firearms license, is
guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a firearm in the third degree
when such person is not authorized pursuant to law to possess a firearm
and such person unlawfully either:
(1) sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of a firearm or large capacity
ammunition feeding device to another person; or
(2) possesses a firearm with the intent to sell it.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the third degree is a class D felony.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a firearm in the second degree
when such person:
(1) unlawfully sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of to another five
or more firearms; or
(2) unlawfully sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of to another
person or persons a total of two or more firearms in a period of not
more than one year.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the second degree is a class C felony.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a firearm in the first degree
when such person:
(1) unlawfully sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of to another ten
or more firearms; or
(2) unlawfully sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of to another
person or persons a total of three or more firearms in a period of not
more than one year.
Criminal sale of a firearm in the first degree is a class B felony.
Criminal sale of a firearm with the aid of a minor.
A person over the age of eighteen years of age is guilty of criminal
sale of a weapon with the aid of a minor when a person under sixteen
years of age knowingly and unlawfully sells, exchanges, gives or
disposes of a firearm in violation of this article, and such person over
the age of eighteen years of age, acting with the mental culpability
required for the commission thereof, solicits, requests, commands,
importunes or intentionally aids such person under sixteen years of age
to engage in such conduct.
Criminal sale of a firearm with the aid of a minor is a class C
felony.
Presumptions of possession, unlawful intent and defacement.
1. The presence in any room, dwelling, structure or vehicle of any
machine-gun is presumptive evidence of its unlawful possession by all
persons occupying the place where such machine-gun is found.
2. The presence in any stolen vehicle of any weapon, instrument,
appliance or substance specified in sections 265.01, 265.02, 265.03,
265.04 and 265.05 is presumptive evidence of its possession by all
persons occupying such vehicle at the time such weapon, instrument,
appliance or substance is found.
3. The presence in an automobile, other than a stolen one or a public
omnibus, of any firearm, large capacity ammunition feeding device,
defaced firearm, defaced rifle or shotgun, defaced large capacity
ammunition feeding device, firearm silencer, explosive or incendiary
bomb, bombshell, switchblade knife, pilum ballistic knife, metal knuckle
knife, dagger, dirk, stiletto, billy, blackjack, plastic knuckles, metal
knuckles, chuka stick, sandbag, sandclub or slungshot is presumptive
evidence of its possession by all persons occupying such automobile at
the time such weapon, instrument or appliance is found, except under the
following circumstances: (a) if such weapon, instrument or appliance is
found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; (b) if such
weapon, instrument or appliance is found in an automobile which is being
operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and
proper pursuit of his or her trade, then such presumption shall not
apply to the driver; or (c) if the weapon so found is a pistol or
revolver and one of the occupants, not present under duress, has in his
or her possession a valid license to have and carry concealed the same.
4. The possession by any person of the substance as specified in
section 265.04 is presumptive evidence of possessing such substance with
intent to use the same unlawfully against the person or property of
another if such person is not licensed or otherwise authorized to
possess such substance. The possession by any person of any dagger,
dirk, stiletto, dangerous knife or any other weapon, instrument,
appliance or substance designed, made or adapted for use primarily as a
weapon, is presumptive evidence of intent to use the same unlawfully
against another.
5. The possession by any person of a defaced machine-gun, firearm,
rifle or shotgun is presumptive evidence that such person defaced the
same.
6. The possession of three or more firearms by any person is
presumptive evidence that such person possessed the firearms with the
intent to sell same.
Criminal sale of a firearm to a minor.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a firearm to a minor when he is
not authorized pursuant to law to possess a firearm and he unlawfully
sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of a firearm to another person who
is or reasonably appears to be less than nineteen years of age who is
not licensed pursuant to law to possess a firearm.
Criminal sale of a firearm to a minor is a class C felony.
Criminal purchase or disposal of a weapon.
A person is guilty of criminal purchase or disposal of a weapon when:
1. Knowing that he or she is prohibited by law from possessing a
firearm, rifle or shotgun because of a prior conviction or because of
some other disability which would render him or her ineligible to
lawfully possess a firearm, rifle or shotgun in this state, or knowing
that he or she is the subject of an outstanding warrant of arrest issued
upon the alleged commission of a felony or serious offense, such person
purchases or otherwise acquires a firearm, rifle or shotgun from another
person; or
2. Knowing that it would be unlawful for another person to possess a
firearm, rifle or shotgun, or knowing that another person is the subject
of an outstanding warrant of arrest issued upon the alleged commission
of a felony or serious offense, he or she purchases or otherwise
acquires a firearm, rifle or shotgun for, on behalf of, or for the use
of such other person; or
3. Knowing that another person is prohibited by law from possessing a
firearm, rifle or shotgun because of a prior conviction or because of
some other disability which would render him or her ineligible to
lawfully possess a firearm, rifle or shotgun in this state, or knowing
that another person is the subject of an outstanding warrant of arrest
issued upon the alleged commission of a felony or serious offense, a
person disposes of a firearm, rifle or shotgun to such other person.
Criminal purchase or disposal of a weapon is a class D felony.
Aggravated criminal possession of a weapon.
A person is guilty of aggravated criminal possession of a weapon when
he or she commits the crime of criminal possession of a weapon in the
second degree as defined in subdivision three of section 265.03 of this
article and also commits any violent felony offense as defined in
subdivision one of section 70.02 of this chapter or a drug trafficking
felony as defined in subdivision twenty-one of section 10.00 of this
chapter arising out of the same criminal transaction.
Aggravated criminal possession of a weapon is a class C felony.
Exemptions.
a. Paragraph (h) of subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 and
sections 265.01, 265.01-a, 265.01-b, 265.01-c, 265.02, 265.03, 265.04,
265.05, 265.10, 265.11, 265.12, 265.13, 265.15, 265.36, 265.37, 265.50,
265.55 and 270.05 shall not apply to:
1. Possession of any of the weapons, instruments, appliances or
substances specified in sections 265.01, 265.01-c, 265.02, 265.03,
265.04, 265.05, 265.50, 265.55 and 270.05 by the following:
(a) Persons in the military service of the state of New York when duly
authorized by regulations issued by the adjutant general to possess the
same.
(b) Police officers as defined in subdivision thirty-four of section
1.20 of the criminal procedure law.
(c) Peace officers as defined by section 2.10 of the criminal
procedure law.
(d) Persons in the military or other service of the United States, in
pursuit of official duty or when duly authorized by federal law,
regulation or order to possess the same.
(e) Persons employed in fulfilling defense contracts with the
government of the United States or agencies thereof when possession of
the same is necessary for manufacture, transport, installation and
testing under the requirements of such contract.
(f) A person voluntarily surrendering such weapon, instrument,
appliance or substance, provided that such surrender shall be made to
the superintendent of the division of state police or a member thereof
designated by such superintendent, or to the sheriff of the county in
which such person resides, or in the county of Nassau or in the towns of
Babylon, Brookhaven, Huntington, Islip and Smithtown in the county of
Suffolk to the commissioner of police or a member of the police
department thereof designated by such commissioner, or if such person
resides in a city, town other than one named in this subparagraph, or
village to the police commissioner or head of the police force or
department thereof or to a member of the force or department designated
by such commissioner or head; and provided, further, that the same shall
be surrendered by such person in accordance with such terms and
conditions as may be established by such superintendent, sheriff, police
force or department. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as
granting immunity from prosecution for any crime or offense except that
of unlawful possession of such weapons, instruments, appliances or
substances surrendered as herein provided. A person who possesses any
such weapon, instrument, appliance or substance as an executor or
administrator or any other lawful possessor of such property of a
decedent may continue to possess such property for a period not over
fifteen days. If such property is not lawfully disposed of within such
period the possessor shall deliver it to an appropriate official
described in this paragraph or such property may be delivered to the
superintendent of state police. Such officer shall hold it and shall
thereafter deliver it on the written request of such executor,
administrator or other lawful possessor of such property to a named
person, provided such named person is licensed to or is otherwise
lawfully permitted to possess the same. If no request to deliver the
property is received by such official within one year of the delivery of
such property, such official shall dispose of it in accordance with the
provisions of section 400.05 of this chapter.
2. Possession of a machine-gun, large capacity ammunition feeding
device, rapid-fire modification device, firearm, switchblade knife,
pilum ballistic knife, billy or blackjack by a warden, superintendent,
headkeeper or deputy of a state prison, penitentiary, workhouse, county
jail or other institution for the detention of persons convicted or
accused of crime or detained as witnesses in criminal cases, in pursuit
of official duty or when duly authorized by regulation or order to
possess the same.
3. Possession of a pistol or revolver by a person to whom a license
therefor has been issued as provided under section 400.00 or 400.01 of
this chapter or possession of a weapon as defined in paragraph (e) or
(f) of subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 of this article which is
registered pursuant to paragraph (a) of subdivision sixteen-a of section
400.00 of this chapter or is included on an amended license issued
pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter. In the event such license is
revoked, other than because such licensee is no longer permitted to
possess a firearm, rifle or shotgun under federal or state law,
information sufficient to satisfy the requirements of subdivision
sixteen-a of section 400.00 of this chapter, shall be transmitted by the
licensing officer to the state police, in a form as determined by the
superintendent of state police. Such transmission shall constitute a
valid registration under such section. Further provided, notwithstanding
any other section of this title, a failure to register such weapon by an
individual who possesses such weapon before the enactment of the chapter
of the laws of two thousand thirteen which amended this paragraph and
may so lawfully possess it thereafter upon registration, shall only be
subject to punishment pursuant to paragraph (c) of subdivision sixteen-a
of section 400.00 of this chapter; provided, that such a license or
registration shall not preclude a conviction for the offense defined in
subdivision three of section 265.01 of this article or section 265.01-a
of this article.
3-a. Possession of a pistol or revolver by a person undergoing
live-fire range training pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter
while such person is undergoing such training and is supervised by a
duly authorized instructor.
4. Possession of a rifle, shotgun, crossbow or longbow for use while
hunting, trapping or fishing, by a person, not a citizen of the United
States, carrying a valid license issued pursuant to section 11-0713 of
the environmental conservation law.
5. Possession of a rifle or shotgun by a person other than a person
who has been convicted of a class A-I felony or a violent felony
offense, as defined in subdivision one of section 70.02 of this chapter,
who has been convicted as specified in subdivision four of section
265.01 to whom a certificate of good conduct has been issued pursuant to
section seven hundred three-b of the correction law.
6. Possession of a switchblade for use while hunting, trapping or
fishing by a person carrying a valid license issued to him pursuant to
section 11-0713 of the environmental conservation law.
7. Possession, at an indoor or outdoor shooting range for the purpose
of loading and firing, of a rifle or shotgun, the propelling force of
which is gunpowder by a person under sixteen years of age but not under
twelve, under the immediate supervision, guidance and instruction of (a)
a duly commissioned officer of the United States army, navy, air force,
marine corps or coast guard, or of the national guard of the state of
New York; or (b) a duly qualified adult citizen of the United States who
has been granted a certificate as an instructor in small arms practice
issued by the United States army, navy, air force or marine corps, or by
the adjutant general of this state, by the national rifle association of
America, a not-for-profit corporation duly organized under the laws of
this state, or by a New York state 4-H certified shooting sports
instructor; or (c) a parent, guardian, or a person over the age of
eighteen designated in writing by such parent or guardian who shall have
a certificate of qualification in responsible hunting, including safety,
ethics, and landowner relations-hunter relations, issued or honored by
the department of environmental conservation; or (d) an agent of the
department of environmental conservation appointed to conduct courses in
responsible hunting practices pursuant to article eleven of the
environmental conservation law.
7-a. Possession and use, at an indoor or outdoor pistol range located
in or on premises owned or occupied by a duly incorporated organization
organized for conservation purposes or to foster proficiency in small
arms or at a target pistol shooting competition under the auspices of or
approved by the national rifle association for the purpose of loading
and firing the same, by a person duly licensed to possess a pistol or
revolver pursuant to section 400.00 or 400.01 of this chapter of a
pistol or revolver duly so licensed to another person who is present at
the time.
7-b. Possession and use, at an indoor or outdoor pistol range located
in or on premises owned or occupied by a duly incorporated organization
organized for conservation purposes or to foster proficiency in small
arms or at a target pistol shooting competition under the auspices of or
approved by the national rifle association for the purpose of loading
and firing the same, by a person who has applied for a license to
possess a pistol or revolver and pre-license possession of same pursuant
to section 400.00 or 400.01 of this chapter, who has not been previously
denied a license, been previously convicted of a felony or serious
offense, and who does not appear to be, or pose a threat to be, a danger
to himself or to others, and who has been approved for possession and
use herein in accordance with section 400.00 or 400.01 of this chapter;
provided however, that such possession shall be of a pistol or revolver
duly licensed to and shall be used under the supervision, guidance and
instruction of, a person specified in paragraph seven of this
subdivision and provided further that such possession and use be within
the jurisdiction of the licensing officer with whom the person has made
application therefor or within the jurisdiction of the superintendent of
state police in the case of a retired sworn member of the division of
state police who has opted to make an application pursuant to section
400.01 of this chapter.
7-c. Possession for the purpose of loading and firing, of a rifle,
pistol or shotgun, the propelling force of which may be either air,
compressed gas or springs, by a person under sixteen years of age but
not under twelve, under the immediate supervision, guidance and
instruction of (a) a duly commissioned officer of the United States
army, navy, marine corps or coast guard, or of the national guard of the
state of New York; or (b) a duly qualified adult citizen of the United
States who has been granted a certificate as an instructor in small arms
practice issued by the United States army, navy or marine corps, or by
the adjutant general of this state, by the national rifle association of
America, a not-for-profit corporation duly organized under the laws of
this state, or by a New York state 4-H certified shooting sports
instructor; or (c) a parent, guardian, or a person over the age of
eighteen designated in writing by such parent or guardian who shall have
a certificate of qualification in responsible hunting, including safety,
ethics, and landowner relations-hunter relations, issued or honored by
the department of environmental conservation.
7-d. Possession, at an indoor or outdoor shooting range for the
purpose of loading and firing, of a rifle, pistol or shotgun, the
propelling force of which may be either air, compressed gas or springs,
by a person under twelve years of age, under the immediate supervision,
guidance and instruction of (a) a duly commissioned officer of the
United States army, navy, marine corps or coast guard, or of the
national guard of the state of New York; or (b) a duly qualified adult
citizen of the United States who has been granted a certificate as an
instructor in small arms practice issued by the United States army, navy
or marine corps, or by the adjutant general of this state, by the
national rifle association of America, a not-for-profit corporation duly
organized under the laws of this state, or by a New York state 4-H
certified shooting sports instructor; or (c) a parent, guardian, or a
person over the age of eighteen designated in writing by such parent or
guardian who shall have a certificate of qualification in responsible
hunting, including safety, ethics, and landowner relations-hunter
relations, issued or honored by the department of environmental
conservation.
7-e. Possession and use of a pistol or revolver, at an indoor or
outdoor pistol range located in or on premises owned or occupied by a
duly incorporated organization organized for conservation purposes or to
foster proficiency in small arms or at a target pistol shooting
competition under the auspices of or approved by an association or
organization described in paragraph 7-a of this subdivision for the
purpose of loading and firing the same by a person at least fourteen
years of age but under the age of twenty-one who has not been previously
convicted of a felony or serious offense, and who does not appear to be,
or pose a threat to be, a danger to himself or to others; provided
however, that such possession shall be of a pistol or revolver duly
licensed to and shall be used under the immediate supervision, guidance
and instruction of, a person specified in paragraph seven of this
subdivision.
7-f. Possession and use of a magazine, belt, feed strip or similar
device, that contains more than seven rounds of ammunition, but that
does not have a capacity of or can readily be restored or converted to
accept more than ten rounds of ammunition, at an indoor or outdoor
firing range located in or on premises owned or occupied by a duly
incorporated organization organized for conservation purposes or to
foster proficiency in arms; at an indoor or outdoor firing range for the
purpose of firing a rifle or shotgun; at a collegiate, olympic or target
shooting competition under the auspices of or approved by the national
rifle association; or at an organized match sanctioned by the
International Handgun Metallic Silhouette Association.
8. The manufacturer of machine-guns, firearm silencers, assault
weapons, large capacity ammunition feeding devices, rapid-fire
modification devices, disguised guns, pilum ballistic knives,
switchblade or gravity knives, billies or blackjacks as merchandise, or
as a transferee recipient of the same for repair, lawful distribution or
research and development, and the disposal and shipment thereof direct
to a regularly constituted or appointed state or municipal police
department, sheriff, police officer or other peace officer, or to a
state prison, penitentiary, workhouse, county jail or other institution
for the detention of persons convicted or accused of crime or held as
witnesses in criminal cases, or to the military service of this state or
of the United States; or for the repair and return of the same to the
lawful possessor or for research and development.
9. The regular and ordinary transport of firearms as merchandise,
provided that the person transporting such firearms, where he knows or
has reasonable means of ascertaining what he is transporting, notifies
in writing the police commissioner, police chief or other law
enforcement officer performing such functions at the place of delivery,
of the name and address of the consignee and the place of delivery, and
withholds delivery to the consignee for such reasonable period of time
designated in writing by such police commissioner, police chief or other
law enforcement officer as such official may deem necessary for
investigation as to whether the consignee may lawfully receive and
possess such firearms.
9-a. a. Except as provided in subdivision b hereof, the regular and
ordinary transport of pistols or revolvers by a manufacturer of firearms
to whom a license as a dealer in firearms has been issued pursuant to
section 400.00 of this chapter, or by an agent or employee of such
manufacturer of firearms who is otherwise duly licensed to carry a
pistol or revolver and who is duly authorized in writing by such
manufacturer of firearms to transport pistols or revolvers on the date
or dates specified, directly between places where the manufacturer of
firearms regularly conducts business provided such pistols or revolvers
are transported unloaded, in a locked opaque container. For purposes of
this subdivision, places where the manufacturer of firearms regularly
conducts business includes, but is not limited to places where the
manufacturer of firearms regularly or customarily conducts development
or design of pistols or revolvers, or regularly or customarily conducts
tests on pistols or revolvers, or regularly or customarily participates
in the exposition of firearms to the public.
b. The transportation of such pistols or revolvers into, out of or
within the city of New York may be done only with the consent of the
police commissioner of the city of New York. To obtain such consent, the
manufacturer must notify the police commissioner in writing of the name
and address of the transporting manufacturer, or agent or employee of
the manufacturer who is authorized in writing by such manufacturer to
transport pistols or revolvers, the number, make and model number of the
firearms to be transported and the place where the manufacturer
regularly conducts business within the city of New York and such other
information as the commissioner may deem necessary. The manufacturer
must not transport such pistols and revolvers between the designated
places of business for such reasonable period of time designated in
writing by the police commissioner as such official may deem necessary
for investigation and to give consent. The police commissioner may not
unreasonably withhold his consent.
10. Engaging in the business of gunsmith or dealer in firearms by a
person to whom a valid license therefor has been issued pursuant to
section 400.00 of this chapter, provided, however, that this paragraph
shall not apply to conduct prohibited by subdivision ten of section
265.10 of this article.
11. Possession of a firearm or large capacity ammunition feeding
device by a police officer or sworn peace officer of another state while
conducting official business within the state of New York.
12. Possession of a pistol or revolver by a person who is a member or
coach of an accredited college or university target pistol team while
transporting the pistol or revolver into or through New York state to
participate in a collegiate, olympic or target pistol shooting
competition under the auspices of or approved by the national rifle
association, provided such pistol or revolver is unloaded and carried in
a locked carrying case and the ammunition therefor is carried in a
separate locked container.
12-a. Possession and use of a pistol or revolver, at an indoor or
outdoor shooting range, by a registered student of a higher education
institution chartered by the state of New York, who is participating in
a course in gun safety and proficiency offered by such institution,
under the immediate supervision, guidance, and instruction of a person
specified in paragraph seven of this subdivision.
13. Possession of pistols and revolvers by a person who is a
nonresident of this state while attending or traveling to or from, an
organized competitive pistol match or league competition under auspices
of, or approved by, the National Rifle Association and in which he is a
competitor, within forty-eight hours of such event or by a person who is
a non-resident of the state while attending or traveling to or from an
organized match sanctioned by the International Handgun Metallic
Silhouette Association and in which he is a competitor, within
forty-eight hours of such event, provided that he has not been
previously convicted of a felony or a crime which, if committed in New
York, would constitute a felony, and further provided that the pistols
or revolvers are transported unloaded in a locked opaque container
together with a copy of the match program, match schedule or match
registration card. Such documentation shall constitute prima facie
evidence of exemption, providing that such person also has in his
possession a pistol license or firearms registration card issued in
accordance with the laws of his place of residence. For purposes of this
subdivision, a person licensed in a jurisdiction which does not
authorize such license by a person who has been previously convicted of
a felony shall be presumed to have no prior conviction. The
superintendent of state police shall annually review the laws of
jurisdictions within the United States and Canada with respect to the
applicable requirements for licensing or registration of firearms and
shall publish a list of those jurisdictions which prohibit possession of
a firearm by a person previously convicted of a felony or crimes which
if committed in New York state would constitute a felony.
13-a. Except in cities not wholly contained within a single county of
the state, possession of pistols and revolvers by a person who is a
nonresident of this state while attending or traveling to or from, an
organized convention or exhibition for the display of or education about
firearms, which is conducted under auspices of, or approved by, the
National Rifle Association and in which he is a registered participant,
within forty-eight hours of such event, provided that he has not been
previously convicted of a felony or a crime which, if committed in New
York, would constitute a felony, and further provided that the pistols
or revolvers are transported unloaded in a locked opaque container
together with a copy of the convention or exhibition program, convention
or exhibition schedule or convention or exhibition registration card.
Such documentation shall constitute prima facie evidence of exemption,
providing that such person also has in his possession a pistol license
or firearms registration card issued in accordance with the laws of his
place of residence. For purposes of this paragraph, a person licensed in
a jurisdiction which does not authorize such license by a person who has
been previously convicted of a felony shall be presumed to have no prior
conviction. The superintendent of state police shall annually review the
laws of jurisdictions within the United States and Canada with respect
to the applicable requirements for licensing or registration of firearms
and shall publish a list of those jurisdictions which prohibit
possession of a firearm by a person previously convicted of a felony or
crimes which if committed in New York state would constitute a felony.
14. Possession in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph of
a self-defense spray device as defined herein for the protection of a
person or property and use of such self-defense spray device under
circumstances which would justify the use of physical force pursuant to
article thirty-five of this chapter.
(a) As used in this section "self-defense spray device" shall mean a
pocket sized spray device which contains and releases a chemical or
organic substance which is intended to produce temporary physical
discomfort or disability through being vaporized or otherwise dispensed
in the air or any like device containing tear gas, pepper or similar
disabling agent.
(b) The exemption under this paragraph shall not apply to a person
who:
(i) is less than eighteen years of age; or
(ii) has been previously convicted in this state of a felony or any
assault; or
(iii) has been convicted of a crime outside the state of New York
which if committed in New York would constitute a felony or any assault
crime.
(c) The department of health, with the cooperation of the division of
criminal justice services and the superintendent of state police, shall
develop standards and promulgate regulations regarding the type of
self-defense spray device which may lawfully be purchased, possessed and
used pursuant to this paragraph. The regulations shall include a
requirement that every self-defense spray device which may be lawfully
purchased, possessed or used pursuant to this paragraph have a label
which states: "WARNING: The use of this substance or device for any
purpose other than self-defense is a criminal offense under the law. The
contents are dangerous - use with care. This device shall not be sold by
anyone other than a licensed or authorized dealer. Possession of this
device by any person under the age of eighteen or by anyone who has been
convicted of a felony or assault is illegal. Violators may be prosecuted
under the law."
15. Possession and sale of a self-defense spray device as defined in
paragraph fourteen of this subdivision by a dealer in firearms licensed
pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter, a pharmacist licensed
pursuant to article one hundred thirty-seven of the education law or by
such other vendor as may be authorized and approved by the
superintendent of state police.
(a) Every self-defense spray device shall be accompanied by an insert
or inserts which include directions for use, first aid information,
safety and storage information and which shall also contain a toll free
telephone number for the purpose of allowing any purchaser to call and
receive additional information regarding the availability of local
courses in self-defense training and safety in the use of a self-defense
spray device.
(b) Before delivering a self-defense spray device to any person, the
licensed or authorized dealer shall require proof of age and a sworn
statement on a form approved by the superintendent of state police that
such person has not been convicted of a felony or any crime involving an
assault. Such forms shall be forwarded to the division of state police
at such intervals as directed by the superintendent of state police.
Absent any such direction the forms shall be maintained on the premises
of the vendor and shall be open at all reasonable hours for inspection
by any peace officer or police officer, acting pursuant to his or her
special duties. No more than two self-defense spray devices may be sold
at any one time to a single purchaser.
16. The terms "rifle," "shotgun," "pistol," "revolver," and "firearm"
as used in paragraphs three, four, five, seven, seven-a, seven-b, nine,
nine-a, ten, twelve, thirteen and thirteen-a of this subdivision shall
not include a disguised gun or an assault weapon.
b. Section 265.01 shall not apply to possession of that type of billy
commonly known as a "police baton" which is twenty-four to twenty-six
inches in length and no more than one and one-quarter inches in
thickness by members of an auxiliary police force of a city with a
population in excess of one million persons or the county of Suffolk
when duly authorized by regulation or order issued by the police
commissioner of such city or such county respectively. Such regulations
shall require training in the use of the police baton including but not
limited to the defensive use of the baton and instruction in the legal
use of deadly physical force pursuant to article thirty-five of this
chapter. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section or any other
provision of law, possession of such baton shall not be authorized when
used intentionally to strike another person except in those situations
when the use of deadly physical force is authorized by such article
thirty-five.
c. Sections 265.01, 265.10 and 265.15 shall not apply to possession of
billies or blackjacks by persons:
1. while employed in fulfilling contracts with New York state, its
agencies or political subdivisions for the purchase of billies or
blackjacks; or
2. while employed in fulfilling contracts with sister states, their
agencies or political subdivisions for the purchase of billies or
blackjacks; or
3. while employed in fulfilling contracts with foreign countries,
their agencies or political subdivisions for the purchase of billies or
blackjacks as permitted under federal law.
d. Subdivision one of section 265.01 and subdivision four of section
265.15 of this article shall not apply to possession or ownership of
automatic knives by any cutlery and knife museum established pursuant to
section two hundred sixteen-c of the education law or by any director,
officer, employee, or agent thereof when he or she is in possession of
an automatic knife and acting in furtherance of the business of such
museum.
e. Subdivision eight of section 265.02 and sections 265.36 and 265.37
of this chapter shall not apply to a qualified retired New York or
federal law enforcement officer as defined in subdivision twenty-five of
section 265.00 of this article, with respect to large capacity
ammunition feeding devices issued to such officer or purchased by such
officer in the course of his or her official duties and owned by such
officer at the time of his or her retirement or comparable replacements
for such devices, if: (i) the agency that employed the officer qualified
such officer in the use of the weapon which accepts such device in
accordance with applicable state or federal standards for active duty
law enforcement officers within twelve months prior to his or her
retirement; and (ii) such retired officer meets, at his or her own
expense, such applicable standards for such weapon at least once within
three years after his or her retirement date and at least once every
three years thereafter, provided, however, that any such qualified
officer who has been retired for eighteen months or more on the
effective date of this subdivision shall have eighteen months from such
effective date to qualify in the use of the weapon which accepts such
large capacity ammunition feeding device according to the provisions of
this subdivision, notwithstanding that such officer did not qualify
within three years after his or her retirement date, provided that such
officer is otherwise qualified and maintains compliance with the
provisions of this subdivision.
f. Subdivision ten of section 265.10 of this article shall not apply
to the following:
1. the disposition of a convertible pistol or the transport or
shipping as merchandise of a convertible pistol for disposition to
persons in the military service of the state of New York or the United
States when duly authorized by law or regulation to possess the same;
2. the disposition of a convertible pistol or the transport or
shipping as merchandise of a convertible pistol for disposition to
police officers as defined in subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20 of
the criminal procedure law;
3. the disposition of a convertible pistol or the transport or
shipping as merchandise of a convertible pistol for disposition to peace
officers as defined by section 2.10 of the criminal procedure law when
they are authorized to possess the same;
4. the disposition of a convertible pistol or the transport or
shipping as merchandise of a convertible pistol for disposition to
persons engaging in the business of gunsmith or dealer in firearms to
whom a valid license therefor has been issued pursuant to section 400.00
of this chapter;
5. a private party to private party transaction conducted through a
duly licensed dealer in firearms;
6. the sale, transfer, disposal, transportation, or shipment of a
convertible pistol to a duly licensed dealer in firearms or licensed
gunsmith by private party who lawfully owned such convertible pistol
prior to May thirty-first, two thousand twenty-seven;
7. the sale, transfer, disposal, transportation, or shipment of a
convertible pistol by a duly licensed dealer in firearms or licensed
gunsmith to a private person or another federal firearms licensee or
licensed gunsmith, where such convertible pistol's immediately preceding
owner and possessor, prior to the licensed dealer or licensed gunsmith,
was a private party who lawfully owned and possessed such convertible
pistol prior to May thirty-first, two thousand twenty-seven; or
8. the sale, transfer, disposal, transportation, or shipment of a
convertible pistol between members of an immediate family, as such term
is defined in section eight hundred ninety-eight of the general business
law, provided that such convertible pistol was lawfully owned and
possessed by such seller, transferor, or a member of the immediate
family of such seller or transferor prior to May thirty-first, two
thousand twenty-seven.
Certain wounds to be reported.
Every case of a bullet wound, gunshot wound, powder burn or any other
injury arising from or caused by the discharge of a gun or firearm, and
every case of a wound which is likely to or may result in death and is
actually or apparently inflicted by a knife, icepick or other sharp or
pointed instrument, shall be reported at once to the police authorities
of the city, town or village where the person reporting is located by:
(a) the physician attending or treating the case; or (b) the manager,
superintendent or other person in charge, whenever such case is treated
in a hospital, sanitarium or other institution. Failure to make such
report is a class A misdemeanor. This subdivision shall not apply to
such wounds, burns or injuries received by a member of the armed forces
of the United States or the state of New York while engaged in the
actual performance of duty.
Burn injury and wounds to be reported.
Every case of a burn injury or wound, where the victim sustained
second or third degree burns to five percent or more of the body and/or
any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal edema due to the
inhalation of super-heated air, and every case of a burn injury or wound
which is likely to or may result in death, shall be reported at once to
the office of fire prevention and control. The state fire administrator
shall accept the report and notify the proper investigatory agency. A
written report shall also be provided to the office of fire prevention
and control within seventy-two hours. The report shall be made by (a)
the physician attending or treating the case; or (b) the manager,
superintendent or other person in charge, whenever such case is treated
in a hospital, sanitarium, institution or other medical facility.
The intentional failure to make such report is a class A misdemeanor.
Certain convictions to be reported.
Every conviction under this article or section 400.00, of a person who
is not a citizen of the United States, shall be certified to the proper
officer of the United States government by the district attorney of the
county in which such conviction was had.
Prohibited use of weapons.
1. Any person hunting with a dangerous weapon in any county wholly
embraced within the territorial limits of a city is guilty of a class A
misdemeanor.
2. Any person who wilfully discharges a loaded firearm or any other
gun, the propelling force of which is gunpowder, at an aircraft while
such aircraft is in motion in the air or in motion or stationary upon
the ground, or at any railway or street railroad train as defined by the
public service law, or at a locomotive, car, bus or vehicle standing or
moving upon such railway, railroad or public highway, is guilty of a
class D felony if thereby the safety of any person is endangered, and in
every other case, of a class E felony.
3. Any person who, otherwise than in self defense or in the discharge
of official duty, (a) wilfully discharges any species of firearms,
air-gun or other weapon, or throws any other deadly missile, either in a
public place, or in any place where there is any person to be endangered
thereby, or, in Putnam county, within one-quarter mile of any occupied
school building other than under supervised instruction by properly
authorized instructors although no injury to any person ensues; (b)
intentionally, without malice, points or aims any firearm or any other
gun, the propelling force of which is gunpowder, at or toward any other
person; (c) discharges, without injury to any other person, firearms or
any other guns, the propelling force of which is gunpowder, while
intentionally without malice, aimed at or toward any person; or (d)
maims or injures any other person by the discharge of any firearm or any
other gun, the propelling force of which is gunpowder, pointed or aimed
intentionally, but without malice, at any such person, is guilty of a
class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful possession of certain ammunition feeding devices.
It shall be unlawful for a person to knowingly possess an ammunition
feeding device where such device contains more than seven rounds of
ammunition.
If such device containing more than seven rounds of ammunition is
possessed within the home of the possessor, the person so possessing the
device shall, for a first offense, be guilty of a violation and subject
to a fine of two hundred dollars, and for each subsequent offense, be
guilty of a class B misdemeanor and subject to a fine of two hundred
dollars and a term of up to three months imprisonment.
If such device containing more than seven rounds of ammunition is
possessed in any location other than the home of the possessor, the
person so possessing the device shall, for a first offense, be guilty of
a class B misdemeanor and subject to a fine of two hundred dollars and a
term of up to six months imprisonment, and for each subsequent offense,
be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
* § 265.38 Unlawful sale of a non-microstamping-enabled firearm.
1. It shall be unlawful for any dealer in firearms licensed under
section 400.00 of this chapter, to sell, offer for sale, exchange, give,
transfer or deliver any semiautomatic pistol unless such pistol has been
verified as a microstamping-enabled pistol. A pistol may be verified as
microstamping-enabled if it contains a microstamp component installed by
its manufacturer or by a state licensed person, association,
partnership, corporation, or other entity in compliance with state
standards established by the commissioner of the division of criminal
justice services or their designee. The provisions of this section shall
not apply to a pistol manufactured prior to the effective date of this
section.
2. (a) The first violation for unlawful sale of a
non-microstamping-enabled pistol pursuant to this section shall be
punishable only by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars and may
result in a suspension or revocation of the dealer's license issued
under section 400.00 of this chapter.
(b) The second violation for unlawful sale of a
non-microstamping-enabled pistol pursuant to this section shall be
punishable only by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars and may
result in a suspension or revocation of the dealer's license issued
under section 400.00 of this chapter.
(c) The third violation for unlawful sale of a
non-microstamping-enabled pistol pursuant to this section is a class A
misdemeanor and shall result in a suspension or revocation of the
dealer's license issued under section 400.00 of this chapter.
* NB Effective per requirements in § 5 of chapter 205/2022 (see
chapter)
Purchase of rifles and/or shotguns in contiguous states.
Definitions. As used in this act:
1. "Contiguous state" shall mean any state having any portion of its
border in common with a portion of the border of the state of New York;
2. All other terms herein shall be given the meaning prescribed in
Public Law 90-618 known as the "Gun Control Act of l968" (18 U.S.C.
921).
It shall be lawful for a person or persons residing in this state, to
purchase or otherwise obtain a rifle and/or shotgun in a contiguous
state, and to receive or transport such rifle and/or shotgun into this
state; provided, however, such person is otherwise eligible to possess a
rifle and/or shotgun under the laws of this state.
Failure to safely store rifles, shotguns, and firearms in the
first degree.
1. No person who owns or is custodian of a rifle, shotgun or firearm
who resides with an individual who: (i) is under eighteen years of age;
(ii) such person knows or has reason to know is prohibited from
possessing a rifle, shotgun or firearm pursuant to a temporary or final
extreme risk protection order issued under article sixty-three-A of the
civil practice law and rules or 18 U.S.C. § 922(g) (1), (4), (8) or (9);
or (iii) such person knows or has reason to know is prohibited from
possessing a rifle, shotgun or firearm based on a conviction for a
felony or a serious offense, shall store or otherwise leave such rifle,
shotgun or firearm out of his or her immediate possession or control
without having first securely locked such rifle, shotgun or firearm in
an appropriate safe storage depository or rendered it incapable of being
fired by use of a gun locking device appropriate to that weapon.
2. No person shall store or otherwise leave a rifle, shotgun, or
firearm out of such person's immediate possession or control inside a
vehicle without first removing the ammunition from and securely locking
such rifle, shotgun, or firearm in an appropriate safe storage
depository out of sight from outside of the vehicle; provided, however,
this subdivision shall not apply to a police officer as such term is
defined in subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal
procedure law, a qualified law enforcement officer authorized to carry
concealed firearms pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 926B, or a person in the
military service of the United States or the state of New York when such
police officer, qualified law enforcement officer, or person in such
military service is acting in the course of such person's official duty
or employment and otherwise complying with any applicable standards or
requirements pertaining to the storage of such rifle, shotgun, or
firearm.
3. For purposes of this section "safe storage depository" shall mean a
safe or other secure container which, when locked, is incapable of being
opened without the key, keypad, combination or other unlocking mechanism
and is capable of preventing an unauthorized person from obtaining
access to and possession of the weapon contained therein and shall be
fire, impact, and tamper resistant. Nothing in this section shall be
deemed to affect, impair or supersede any special or local act relating
to the safe storage of rifles, shotguns or firearms which impose
additional requirements on the owner or custodian of such weapons. For
the purposes of subdivision two of this section, a glove compartment or
glove box shall not be considered an appropriate safe storage
depository.
4. It shall not be a violation of this section to allow a person less
than eighteen years of age access to: (i) a firearm, rifle or shotgun
for lawful use as authorized under paragraph seven or seven-e of
subdivision a of section 265.20 of this article, or (ii) a rifle or
shotgun for lawful use as authorized by article eleven of the
environmental conservation law when such person less than eighteen years
of age is the holder of a hunting license or permit and such rifle or
shotgun is used in accordance with such law.
Failure to safely store rifles, shotguns, and firearms in the first
degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Failure to safely store rifles, shotguns, and firearms in the
second degree.
No person who owns or is custodian of a rifle, shotgun or firearm and
knows, or has reason to know, that a person less than sixteen years of
age is likely to gain access to such rifle, shotgun or firearm shall
store or otherwise leave such rifle, shotgun or firearm out of his or
her immediate possession or control without having first securely locked
such rifle, shotgun or firearm in an appropriate safe storage depository
or rendered it incapable of being fired by use of a gun locking device
appropriate to that weapon. For purposes of this section "safe storage
depository" shall have the same meaning as such term is defined in
section 265.45 of this article. Nothing in this section shall be deemed
to affect, impair or supersede any special or local act relating to the
safe storage of rifles, shotguns or firearms which impose additional
requirements on the owner or custodian of such weapons.
It shall not be a violation of this section to allow a person less
than sixteen years of age access to: (i) a firearm, rifle or shotgun for
lawful use as authorized under paragraph seven or seven-e of subdivision
a of section 265.20 of this article, or (ii) a rifle or shotgun for
lawful use as authorized by article eleven of the environmental
conservation law when such person less than sixteen years of age is the
holder of a hunting license or permit and such rifle or shotgun is used
in accordance with such law.
Failure to safely store rifles, shotguns, and firearms in the second
degree is a violation punishable only by a fine of not more than two
hundred fifty dollars.
Criminal manufacture, sale, or transport of an undetectable
firearm, rifle or shotgun.
A person is guilty of criminal manufacture, sale, or transport of an
undetectable firearm, rifle or shotgun when he or she knowingly
manufactures, causes to be manufactured, sells, exchanges, gives,
disposes of, transports, ships, or possesses with the intent to sell:
1. any firearm, rifle or shotgun that, after the removal of grips,
stocks and magazines, is not detectable by a metal detector calibrated
to detect the Security Exemplar, as defined pursuant to 18 U.S.C. §
922(p); or
2. any major component of a firearm, rifle or shotgun that, if subject
to the types of detection devices commonly used at airports for security
screening, does not generate an image that adequately displays the shape
of the component.
Criminal manufacture, sale, or transport of an undetectable firearm,
rifle or shotgun is a class D felony.
Criminal possession of an undetectable firearm, rifle or
shotgun.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of an undetectable firearm,
rifle or shotgun when he or she knowingly possesses:
1. any firearm, rifle or shotgun that, after the removal of grips,
stocks and magazines, is not detectable by a metal detector calibrated
to detect the Security Exemplar, as defined pursuant to 18 U.S.C. §
922(p); or
2. any major component of a firearm, rifle or shotgun that, if subject
to the types of detection devices commonly used at airports for security
screening, does not generate an image that adequately displays the shape
of the component.
Criminal possession of an undetectable firearm, rifle or shotgun is a
class E felony.
Criminal sale of a ghost gun in the second degree.
1. A person is guilty of criminal sale of a ghost gun in the second
degree when, knowing or having reason to know it is a ghost gun, he or
she sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of a ghost gun to another
person.
2. Notwithstanding subdivision one of this section, a person shall not
be guilty of criminal sale of a ghost gun in the second degree when such
person: (a) voluntarily surrenders such ghost gun to any law enforcement
official designated pursuant to subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of
subdivision (a) of section 265.20 of this article; or (b) within a
period of six months after the effective date of this section sells,
exchanges, gives, or disposes of such ghost gun to a gunsmith licensed
pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter.
Criminal sale of a ghost gun in the second degree is a class E felony.
Criminal sale of a ghost gun in the first degree.
1. A person is guilty of criminal sale of a ghost gun in the first
degree when, knowing or having reason to know they are ghost guns, he or
she sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of ten or more ghost guns to
another person or persons.
2. Notwithstanding subdivision one of this section, a person shall not
be guilty of criminal sale of a ghost gun in the first degree if he or
she: (a) voluntarily surrenders such ghost guns to any law enforcement
official designated pursuant to subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of
subdivision (a) of section 265.20 of this article; or (b) within a
period of six months after the effective date of this section sells,
exchanges, gives, or disposes of such ghost guns to a gunsmith licensed
pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter.
Criminal sale of a ghost gun in the first degree is a class D felony.
Criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the
second degree when, knowing it is an unserialized frame or receiver or
an unfinished frame or receiver, such person unlawfully sells,
exchanges, gives or disposes of such unserialized frame or receiver or
unfinished frame or receiver, provided that for a period of six months
after the effective date of this section, a person shall not be guilty
of criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the second degree if such
person: (a) voluntarily surrenders such unserialized frame or receiver
or unfinished frame or receiver to any law enforcement official
designated pursuant to subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of subdivision
(a) of section 265.20 of this article; or (b) sells, exchanges, gives,
or disposes of such unserialized frame or receiver or unfinished frame
or receiver to a gunsmith licensed pursuant to section 400.00 of this
chapter.
Criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the second degree is a class E
felony.
Criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the
first degree when, knowing they are unserialized frames or receivers or
unfinished frames or receivers, such person unlawfully sells, exchanges,
gives or disposes of a total of ten or more unserialized frames or
receivers or unfinished frames or receivers in a period of not more than
one year, provided that for a period of six months after the effective
date of this section, a person shall not be guilty of criminal sale of a
frame or receiver in the first degree if such person: (a) voluntarily
surrenders such unserialized frames or receivers or unfinished frames or
receivers to any law enforcement official designated pursuant to
subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of subdivision (a) of section 265.20
of this article; or (b) sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of such
unserialized frames or receivers or unfinished frames or receivers to a
gunsmith licensed pursuant to section 400.00 of this chapter.
Criminal sale of a frame or receiver in the first degree is a class D
felony.
Criminal purchase of a semiautomatic rifle.
A person is guilty of criminal purchase of a semiautomatic rifle when
he or she purchases or takes possession of a semiautomatic rifle and
does not possess a license to purchase or take possession of a
semiautomatic rifle as provided in subdivision two of section 400.00 of
this chapter. Criminal purchase of a semiautomatic rifle is a class A
misdemeanor for the first offense and a class E felony for subsequent
offenses.
Criminal sale of a semiautomatic rifle.
A person is guilty of criminal sale of a semiautomatic rifle when,
knowing or having reason to know it is a semiautomatic rifle, he or she
sells, exchanges, gives or disposes of a semiautomatic rifle to another
person and such other person does not possess a license to purchase or
take possession of a semiautomatic rifle as provided in subdivision two
of section 400.00 of this chapter.
Criminal sale of a semiautomatic rifle is a class E felony.
ARTICLE 270 Other Offenses Relating to Public Safety
Unlawfully dealing with fireworks and dangerous fireworks.
1. Definition of "fireworks" and "dangerous fireworks". (a) The term
"fireworks," as used in this section, includes:
(i) display fireworks, which means fireworks devices in a finished
state, exclusive of mere ornamentation, primarily intended for
commercial displays which are designed to produce visible and/or audible
effects by combustion, deflagration or detonation, including, but not
limited to, salutes containing more than one hundred thirty milligrams
(two grains) of explosive composition, aerial shells containing more
than forty grams of chemical composition exclusive of lift charge, and
other exhibition display items that exceed the limits of consumer
fireworks contained in the American Pyrotechnic Association (APA)
Standard 87-1, 2001 edition;
(ii) articles pyrotechnic, which means pyrotechnic devices for
professional use similar to consumer fireworks in chemical composition
and construction but not intended for consumer use and which articles
meet the weight limits for consumer fireworks but are not labeled as
such and are classified by the United States department of
transportation in 49 CFR 172.101 as UN0431;
(iii) special effects, which means any combination of chemical
elements or chemical compounds capable of burning independently of the
oxygen of the atmosphere, and designed and intended to produce an
audible, visual, mechanical, or thermal effect as an integral part of a
motion picture, radio, television, theatrical, or opera production, or
live entertainment;
(iv) consumer fireworks which are aerial in performance and are
commonly referred to as sky rockets, bottle rockets, missile type
rockets, helicopters, aerial spinners, roman candles, mines, shell
devices, aerial shell kits, reloadables and audible ground devices which
are commonly referred to as firecrackers and chasers, as well as metal
wire handheld sparklers;
(v) any blank cartridge, blank cartridge pistol, or toy cannon in
which explosives are used, firecrackers, or any preparation containing
any explosive or inflammable compound or any tablets or other device
commonly used and sold as fireworks containing nitrates, chlorates,
oxalates, sulphides of lead, barium, antimony, arsenic, mercury,
nitroglycerine, phosphorus or any compound containing any of the same or
other explosives, or any substance or combination of substances, or
article prepared for the purpose of producing a visible or an audible
effect by combustion, explosion, deflagration or detonation, or other
device containing any explosive substance, other than sparkling devices
as defined in subparagraph (vi) of this paragraph; and
(vi) "sparkling devices," as used in this section, includes:
(1) sparkling devices which are ground-based or hand-held devices that
produce a shower of white, gold, or colored sparks as their primary
pyrotechnic effect. Additional effects may include a colored flame, an
audible crackling effect, an audible whistle effect, and smoke. These
devices do not rise into the air, do not fire inserts or projectiles
into the air, and do not explode or produce a report (an audible
crackling-type effect is not considered to be a report). Ground-based or
hand-held devices that produce a cloud of smoke as their sole
pyrotechnic effect are also included in this category. Types of devices
in this category include:
(A) cylindrical fountain: cylindrical tube containing not more than
seventy-five grams of pyrotechnic composition that may be contained in a
different shaped exterior such as a square, rectangle, cylinder or other
shape but the interior tubes are cylindrical in shape. Upon ignition, a
shower of colored sparks, and sometimes a whistling effect or smoke, is
produced. This device may be provided with a spike for insertion into
the ground (spike fountain), a wood or plastic base for placing on the
ground (base fountain), or a wood or cardboard handle to be hand held
(handle fountain). When more than one tube is mounted on a common base,
total pyrotechnic composition may not exceed two hundred grams, and when
tubes are securely attached to a base and the tubes are separated from
each other on the base by a distance of at least half an inch (12.7
millimeters), a maximum total weight of five hundred grams of
pyrotechnic composition shall be allowed.
(B) cone fountain: cardboard or heavy paper cone containing not more
than fifty grams of pyrotechnic composition. The effect is the same as
that of a cylindrical fountain. When more than one cone is mounted on a
common base, total pyrotechnic composition may not exceed two hundred
grams, as is outlined in this subparagraph.
(C) wooden sparkler/dipped stick: these devices consist of a wood
dowel that has been coated with pyrotechnic composition. Upon ignition
of the tip of the device, a shower of sparks is produced. Sparklers may
contain up to one hundred grams of pyrotechnic composition per item.
(2) novelties which do not require approval from the United States
department of transportation and are not regulated as explosives,
provided that they are manufactured and packaged as described below:
(A) party popper: small devices with paper or plastic exteriors that
are actuated by means of friction (a string or trigger is typically
pulled to actuate the device). They frequently resemble champagne
bottles or toy pistols in shape. Upon activation, the device expels
flame-resistant paper streamers, confetti, or other novelties and
produces a small report. Devices may contain not more than sixteen
milligrams (0.25 grains) of explosive composition, which is limited to
potassium chlorate and red phosphorus. These devices must be packaged in
an inner packaging which contains a maximum of seventy-two devices.
(B) snapper: small, paper-wrapped devices containing not more than one
milligram of silver fulminate coated on small bits of sand or gravel.
When dropped, the device explodes, producing a small report. Snappers
must be in inner packages not to exceed fifty devices each, and the
inner packages must contain sawdust or a similar, impact-absorbing
material.
(b) The term "dangerous fireworks" means any fireworks capable of
causing serious physical injury and which are: firecrackers containing
more than fifty milligrams of any explosive substance, torpedoes,
skyrockets and rockets including all devices which employ any
combustible or explosive substance and which rise in the air during
discharge, Roman candles, and bombs, provided, however, that in cities
with a population of one million or more, the term "dangerous fireworks"
shall also include sparklers more than ten inches in length or
one-fourth of one inch in diameter, or chasers including all devices
which dart or travel about the surface of the ground during discharge.
(c) "Fireworks" and "dangerous fireworks" shall not be deemed to
include the following nor shall the purchase and use of any items listed
below be subject to the provisions of section 61 of title 12 of the New
York state codes, rules and regulations or section four hundred eighty,
four hundred eighty-one, four hundred eighty-two or four hundred
eighty-three of the general business law:
(i) flares of the type used by railroads or any warning lights
commonly known as red flares, or marine distress signals of a type
approved by the United States coast guard, or
(ii) toy pistols, toy canes, toy guns or other devices in which paper
caps containing twenty-five hundredths grains or less of explosive
compound are used, providing they are so constructed that the hand
cannot come in contact with the cap when in place for use, and toy
pistol paper caps which contain less than twenty-hundredths grains of
explosive mixture, the sale and use of which shall be permitted at all
times, or
(iii) bank security devices which contain not more than fifty grams of
any compound or substance or any combination thereof, together with an
igniter not exceeding 0.2 gram, capable of producing a lachrymating
and/or visible or audible effect, where such device is stored or used
only by banks, national banking associations, trust companies, savings
banks, savings and loan associations, industrial banks, or credit
unions, or by any manufacturer, wholesaler, dealer, jobber or common
carrier for such devices and where the total storage on any one premises
does not exceed one hundred devices, or
(iv) except in cities with a population of one million or more,
"fireworks" and "dangerous fireworks" shall not be deemed to include
"sparkling devices" as defined in subparagraph (vi) of paragraph (a) of
this subdivision. The storage and retail sale of sparkling devices shall
be regulated in a manner that is not in conflict with the provisions of
NFPA 1124, 2006 edition.
2. Offense. (a) Except as herein otherwise provided, or except where a
permit is obtained pursuant to section 405.00 of this chapter:
(i) any person who shall offer or expose for sale, sell or furnish,
any fireworks or dangerous fireworks is guilty of a class B misdemeanor;
(ii) any person who shall offer or expose for sale, sell or furnish
any fireworks or dangerous fireworks valued at five hundred dollars or
more shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor;
(iii) any person who shall possess, use, explode or cause to explode
any fireworks or dangerous fireworks is guilty of a violation;
(iv) any person who shall offer or expose for sale, sell or furnish,
any dangerous fireworks, fireworks or sparkling devices to any person
who is under the age of eighteen is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
(b) A person who has previously been convicted of a violation of
subparagraph (iv) of paragraph (a) of this subdivision within the
preceding five years and who shall offer or expose for sale, sell or
furnish, any dangerous fireworks to any person who is under the age of
eighteen, shall be guilty of a class E felony.
(c) Possession of fireworks or dangerous fireworks valued at one
hundred fifty dollars or more shall be a presumption that such fireworks
were intended to be offered or exposed for sale.
3. Exceptions. (a) The provisions of this section shall not apply to:
(i) fireworks, dangerous fireworks, and sparkling devices while in
possession of railroads, common or contract carriers, retailers,
wholesalers, distributors, jobbers and transportation companies or
transportation agencies for the purpose of transportation to points
without the state, the shipment of which is not prohibited by interstate
commerce commission regulations as formulated and published from time to
time, unless they be held voluntarily by such railroads, common or
contract carriers, retailers, wholesalers, distributors, jobbers and
transportation agencies or transporting companies as warehousemen for
delivery to points within the state;
(ii) signaling devices used by railroad companies or motor vehicles
referred to in subdivision seventeen of section three hundred
seventy-five of the vehicle and traffic law;
(iii) high explosives for blasting or similar purposes;
(iv) fireworks, dangerous fireworks and sparkling devices for the use
thereof by the United States military, and departments of the state and
federal government;
(v) the use, transportation and storage of fireworks, dangerous
fireworks and sparkling devices and special effects materials in
connection with the production of motion pictures, television programs,
commercials, and all entertainment media recorded in any current or to
be designed format when such use, transportation and storage has been
appropriately permitted by the local governmental subdivision having
jurisdiction.
(b) Nothing in this article shall be construed to prohibit:
(i) any manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, dealer or jobber from
manufacturing, possessing or selling at wholesale a sparkling device to
municipalities, religious or civic organizations, fair associations,
amusement parks, or other organizations authorized by the state to
store, transport, possess and use or to individuals to store, transport,
possess and use;
(ii) the sale or use of blank cartridges for a motion picture,
television program, commercial and all entertainment media, or for
signal purposes in athletic sports, or for dog trials or dog training;
(iii) the use, storage, transportation or sale or transfer for use of
fireworks and sparkling devices in the preparation for or in connection
with motion pictures, television programs, commercials, and all
entertainment media recorded in any current or to be designed format
when such use, transportation and storage has been appropriately
permitted by the local governmental subdivision having jurisdiction;
(iv) the manufacture or sale of sparkling devices provided they are to
be shipped directly out of such city and any such items are sold in
accordance with the provisions of this article; or
(v) except in cities with a population of one million or more,
possession of sparkling devices lawfully obtained in another
jurisdiction.
4. Sales of ammunition not prohibited. Nothing contained in this
section shall be construed to prevent, or interfere in any way with, the
sale of ammunition for revolvers or pistols of any kind, or for rifles,
shot guns, or other arms, belonging or which may belong to any persons
whether as sporting or hunting weapons or for the purpose of protection
to them in their homes, or, as they may go abroad; and manufacturers are
authorized to continue to manufacture, and wholesalers and dealers to
continue to deal in and freely to sell ammunition to all such persons
for such purposes.
5. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision four of this section,
it shall be unlawful for any dealer in firearms to sell any ammunition
designed exclusively for use in a pistol or revolver to any person, not
authorized to possess a pistol or revolver. The violation of this
section shall constitute a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawfully possessing or selling noxious material.
1. As used in this section, "noxious material" means any container
which contains any drug or other substance capable of generating
offensive, noxious or suffocating fumes, gases or vapors, or capable of
immobilizing a person.
2. A person is guilty of unlawfully possessing noxious material when
he possesses such material under circumstances evincing an intent to use
it or to cause it to be used to inflict physical injury upon or to cause
annoyance to a person, or to damage property of another, or to disturb
the public peace.
3. Possession of noxious material is presumptive evidence of intent
to use it or cause it to be used in violation of this section.
4. Bank security devices not prohibited. Notwithstanding the
provisions of subdivision one of this section, it shall not be unlawful
for any bank, national banking association, trust company, savings bank,
savings and loan association, industrial bank, or credit union to store,
possess, transport, use or cause to discharge any bank security device
as described in subdivision one of section 270.00 of this chapter; nor
shall it be unlawful for any manufacturer, wholesaler, dealer, jobber or
common carrier to manufacture, store, possess, transport, or sell such a
device to banks, national banking associations, trust companies, savings
banks, savings and loan associations, industrial banks or credit unions.
5. Self-defense spray devices not prohibited. Notwithstanding the
provisions of subdivisions two and three of this section, it shall not
be unlawful for a person eighteen years of age or older to possess a
self-defense spray device as defined in paragraph fourteen of
subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter in accordance with the
provisions set forth therein.
6. A person is guilty of unlawfully selling a noxious material when he
or she sells a self-defense spray device as defined in paragraph
fourteen of subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter and such
sale was not authorized in accordance with the provisions of paragraph
fifteen of subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter.
Unlawfully possessing or selling noxious material is a class B
misdemeanor.
Creating a hazard.
A person is guilty of creating a hazard when:
1. Having discarded in any place where it might attract children, a
container which has a compartment of more than one and one-half cubic
feet capacity and a door or lid which locks or fastens automatically
when closed and which cannot easily be opened from the inside, he fails
to remove the door, lid, locking or fastening device; or
2. Being the owner or otherwise having possession of property upon
which an abandoned well or cesspool is located, he fails to cover the
same with suitable protective construction.
Creating a hazard is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawfully refusing to yield a party line.
1. As used in this section:
(a) "Party line" means a subscriber's line telephone circuit,
consisting of two or more main telephone stations connected therewith,
each station with a distinctive ring or telephone number.
(b) "Emergency call" means a telephone call to a police or fire
department, or for medical aid or ambulance service, necessitated by a
situation in which human life or property is in jeopardy and prompt
summoning of aid is essential.
2. A person is guilty of unlawfully refusing to yield a party line
when, being informed that a party line is needed for an emergency call,
he refuses immediately to relinquish such line.
Unlawfully refusing to yield a party line is a class B misdemeanor.
Unlawful wearing of body armor.
1. A person is guilty of the unlawful wearing of body armor when
acting either alone or with one or more other persons he commits any
violent felony offense defined in section 70.02 while possessing a
firearm, rifle or shotgun and in the course of and in furtherance of
such crime he or she wears body armor.
2. For the purposes of this section "body armor" means any product
that is a personal protective body covering intended to protect against
gunfire, regardless of whether such product is to be worn alone or is
sold as a complement to another product or garment.
The unlawful wearing of body armor is a class E felony.
Unlawful purchase of body armor.
A person is guilty of the unlawful purchase of body armor when, not
being engaged or employed in an eligible profession, they knowingly
purchase or take possession of body armor, as such term is defined in
subdivision two of section 270.20 of this article. This section shall
not apply to individuals or entities engaged or employed in eligible
professions, which shall include police officers as defined in section
1.20 of the criminal procedure law, peace officers as defined in section
2.10 of the criminal procedure law, persons in military service in the
state of New York or military or other service for the United States,
and such other professions designated by the department of state in
accordance with section one hundred forty-four-a of the executive law.
Unlawful purchase of body armor is a class A misdemeanor for a first
offense and a class E felony for any subsequent offense.
Unlawful sale of body armor.
A person is guilty of the unlawful sale of body armor when they sell,
exchange, give or dispose of body armor, as such term is defined in
subdivision two of section 270.20 of this article, to an individual whom
they know or reasonably should have known is not engaged or employed in
an eligible profession, as such term is defined in section 270.21 of
this article.
Unlawful sale of body armor is a class A misdemeanor for the first
offense and a class E felony for any subsequent offense.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the
third degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor
vehicle in the third degree when, knowing that he or she has been
directed to stop his or her motor vehicle by a uniformed police officer
or a marked police vehicle by the activation of either the lights or the
lights and siren of such vehicle, he or she thereafter attempts to flee
such officer or such vehicle by driving at speeds which equal or exceed
twenty-five miles per hour above the speed limit or engaging in reckless
driving as defined by section twelve hundred twelve of the vehicle and
traffic law.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the third
degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the
second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor
vehicle in the second degree when he or she commits the offense of
unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the third
degree, as defined in section 270.25 of this article, and as a result of
such conduct a police officer or a third person suffers serious physical
injury.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the second
degree is a class E felony.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the
first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor
vehicle in the first degree when he or she commits the offense of
unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the third
degree, as defined in section 270.25 of this article, and as a result of
such conduct a police officer or a third person is killed.
Unlawful fleeing a police officer in a motor vehicle in the first
degree is a class D felony.
Unlawfully installing a gas meter.
1. As used in this section "gas meter" means any gas meter that
measures usage of any end use customer of gas services.
2. A person is guilty of unlawfully installing a gas meter when he or
she installs the gas meter or is the owner of the premises where the
meter is unlawfully installed and knows that such gas meter was
unlawfully installed. A gas meter is unlawfully installed when it is
installed by any person other than a person acting on behalf of a
utility corporation subject to the jurisdiction of the public service
commission, unless such person has received a permit to install the gas
meter from the appropriate permitting authority.
Unlawfully installing a gas meter is a class B misdemeanor.
ARTICLE 275 Offenses Relating to Unauthorized Recording
Definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article:
1. "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation or
association.
2. "Owner" means (a) the person who owns, or has the exclusive license
in the United States to reproduce or the exclusive license in the United
States to distribute to the public copies of the sounds fixed in a
master phonograph record, master disc, master tape, master film or any
other device used for reproducing sounds on phonograph records, discs,
tapes, films, videocassettes, or any other articles upon which sound is
recorded, and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly
derived; or (b) the person who owns the rights to record or authorize
the recording of a live performance.
3. "Fixed" means embodied in a recording by or under the authority of
the author, so that the matter embodied is sufficiently permanent or
stable to permit it to be perceived, reproduced, or otherwise
communicated for a period of more than transitory duration.
4. "Performer" means the person or persons appearing in a performance.
5. "Performance" means, whether live before an audience or transmitted
by wire or through the air by radio or television, a recitation,
rendering, or playing of a series of images, musical, spoken, or other
sounds, or a combination of images and sounds, in an audible sequence.
6. "Recording" means an original phonograph record, disc, tape, audio
or video cassette, wire, film, hard drive, flash drive, memory card or
other data storage device or any other medium on which such sounds,
images, or both sounds and images are or can be recorded or otherwise
stored, or a copy or reproduction that duplicates in whole or in part
the original.
Manufacture of unauthorized recordings in the second degree.
A person is guilty of the manufacture of unauthorized recordings in
the second degree when such person:
1. knowingly, and without the consent of the owner, transfers or
causes to be transferred any sound recording, with the intent to rent or
sell, or cause to be rented or sold for profit, or used to promote the
sale of any product, such article to which such recording was
transferred, or
2. transports within this state, for commercial advantage or private
financial gain, a recording, knowing that the sounds have been
reproduced or transferred without the consent of the owner; provided,
however, that this section shall only apply to sound recordings
initially fixed prior to February fifteenth, nineteen hundred
seventy-two.
Manufacture of unauthorized recordings in the second degree is a class
A misdemeanor.
Manufacture of unauthorized recordings in the first degree.
A person is guilty of manufacture of unauthorized recordings in the
first degree when he commits the crime of manufacture of unauthorized
recordings in the second degree as defined in section 275.05 of this
article and either:
1. has previously been convicted of that crime within the past five
years; or
2. commits that crime by the manufacture of one thousand unauthorized
sound recordings; provided, however, that this section shall only apply
to sound recordings initially fixed prior to February fifteenth,
nineteen hundred seventy-two.
Manufacture of unauthorized recordings in the first degree is a class
E felony.
Manufacture or sale of an unauthorized recording of a
performance in the second degree.
A person commits the crime of manufacture or sale of an unauthorized
recording of a performance in the second degree when he knowingly, and
without the consent of the performer, records or fixes or causes to be
recorded or fixed on a recording a performance, with the intent to sell
or rent or cause to be sold or rented such recording, or with the intent
to use such recording to promote the sale of any product; or when he
knowingly possesses, transports or advertises, for purposes of sale,
resale or rental or sells, resells, rents or offers for rental, sale or
resale, any recording that the person knows has been produced in
violation of this section.
Manufacture or sale of an unauthorized recording of a performance in
the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Manufacture or sale of an unauthorized recording of a
performance in the first degree.
A person commits the crime of unauthorized recording of a performance
in the first degree when he commits the crime of manufacture or sale of
an unauthorized recording of a performance in the second degree as
defined in section 275.15 of this article and either:
1. such person has previously been convicted of that crime within the
past five years; or
2. commission of that crime involves at least one thousand
unauthorized sound recordings or at least one hundred unauthorized
audio-visual recordings.
Manufacture or sale of an unauthorized recording of a performance in
the first degree is a class E felony.
Advertisement or sale of unauthorized recordings in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of the advertisement or sale of unauthorized
recordings in the second degree when such person knowingly advertises,
offers for sale, resale, or rental, or sells, resells, rents,
distributes or possesses for any such purposes, any recording that has
been produced or transferred without the consent of the owner; provided,
however, that this section shall only apply to sound recordings
initially fixed prior to February fifteenth, nineteen hundred
seventy-two.
Advertisement or sale of unauthorized recordings in the second degree
is a class A misdemeanor.
Advertisement or sale of unauthorized recordings in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of the advertisement or sale of unauthorized
recordings in the first degree when such person commits the crime of
advertisement or sale of unauthorized recordings in the second degree as
defined in section 275.25 of this article and either:
1. such person has previously been convicted of that crime within the
past five years; or
2. commission of that crime involves at least one thousand
unauthorized sound recordings or at least one hundred unauthorized
audiovisual recordings.
Advertisement and sale of unauthorized recordings in the first degree
is a class E felony.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or
live theater in the third degree.
1. A person is guilty of unlawful operation of a recording device in a
motion picture or live theater in the third degree when without
authority or written permission from the operator of a motion picture
theater or live theater, the person operates a recording device in such
theater.
2. As used in this section (a) "recording device" means a photographic
or video camera, or any audiovisual recording function of any device
used for recording the sound or picture of a motion picture;
(b) "operator" means the owner or lessee of a motion picture theater
or live theater or the authorized agent or employee of such owner or
lessee;
(c) "motion picture theater" means a theater, screening room,
auditorium or other venue that is being utilized primarily for the
exhibition of a motion picture at the time of the offense; and
(d) "live theater" means a concert hall, recital hall, theater, or
auditorium in which a presentation is rendered, consisting in whole or
in part of a musical, dramatic, dance, or other stage rendition by one
or more professional performers who appear in person in the immediate
presence of their audiences, and admission to which is limited by its
operator to persons holding an admission ticket or who have other
authority or written permission to enter. Live theater shall not mean or
include a musical, dramatic, dance, or other stage rendition that is
performed by students enrolled in a school or college or as a part of a
children's camp or similar program.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or live
theater in the third degree is a violation.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or
live theater in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful operation of a recording device in a
motion picture or live theater in the second degree when he or she
violates section 275.32 of this article:
1. for financial profit or commercial purposes; or
2. in circumstances where the material recorded is fifteen or more
minutes, or all or a substantial portion, of the motion picture or live
theatrical performance; or
3. in circumstances where such person has previously been convicted
within the past five years of violating section 275.32 or 275.34 of this
article or this section.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or live
theater in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or
live theater in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unlawful operation of a recording device in a
motion picture or live theater in the first degree when he or she
commits the crime of unlawful operation of a recording device in a
motion picture or live theater in the second degree as defined in
section 275.33 of this article and has previously been convicted within
the past ten years of violating section 275.33 of this article or this
section.
Unlawful operation of a recording device in a motion picture or live
theatre in the first degree is a class E felony.
Failure to disclose the origin of a recording in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of failure to disclose the origin of a recording in
the second degree when, for commercial advantage or private financial
gain, he knowingly advertises or offers for sale, resale, or rental, or
sells, resells, or rents, or possesses for such purposes, a recording
the cover, box, jacket or label does not clearly and conspicuously
disclose the actual name and address of the manufacturer or the name of
the performer or principal artist. The omission of the actual name and
address of the manufacturer, or the omission of the name of the
performer or principal artist, or the omission of both, shall constitute
the failure to disclose the origin of a recording.
Failure to disclose the origin of a recording in the second degree is
a class A misdemeanor.
Failure to disclose the origin of a recording in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of failure to disclose the origin of a recording in
the first degree when such person commits the crime of failure to
disclose the origin of a recording in the second degree as defined in
section 275.35 of this article and either:
1. such person has been convicted of failure to disclose the origin of
a recording in the first or second degree within the past five years; or
2. commission of the crime involves at least one hundred unauthorized
sound recordings or at least one hundred unauthorized audiovisual
recordings.
Failure to disclose the origin of a recording in the first degree is a
class E felony.
Limitations of application.
1. This article does not apply to:
(a) any broadcaster who, in connection with or as part of a radio,
television, or cable broadcast transmission, or for the purpose of
archival preservation, transfers any such recorded sounds or images; or
(b) any person who transfers such sounds or images for personal use,
and without profit for such transfer.
2. This article shall neither enlarge nor diminish the rights of
parties in civil litigation.
ARTICLE 280 Offenses Relating to Unlawful Use of a Drone
Definitions.
As used in this article, the following terms shall have the following
meanings:
1. "Drone" shall mean an unmanned aircraft and its associated
operating system, including the hardware and software that manages
flight control, navigation, and sensors for autonomous or remote flight
without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on
the aircraft.
2. "Nefarious manner" shall mean engaging in conduct that:
(a) constitutes or facilitates the commission of a crime as defined by
subdivision six of section 10.00 of the penal law;
(b) recklessly creates a substantial risk of physical injury to
another person;
(c) recklessly creates a substantial risk of damage to property;
(d) knowingly or intentionally interferes with, obstructs, or impedes
an emergency response, law enforcement operation, search and rescue
operation, disaster response, medical evacuation, or other public
safety-related operation;
(e) is knowingly or intentionally used to harass, intimidate, stalk,
surveil, or physically menace another person in a manner that would
otherwise violate state or local law;
(f) is knowingly or intentionally used to deliver, attempt to deliver,
or facilitate the delivery of contraband to a correctional facility,
detention facility, secure treatment facility, or other secure
governmental facility;
(g) constitutes operating a drone knowing such drone is equipped,
modified, or operated to discharge, drop, spray, project, or release any
projectile, substance, or object in a manner that creates a substantial
risk of physical injury to a person, substantial risk of property
damage, or disruption of public safety operations; or
(h) is used for the unauthorized surveillance of a state or federal
military installation.
3. (a) "Recreational drone" shall mean a drone:
(i) operated exclusively in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 and weighs
0.55 pounds or less on takeoff, including everything that is on board or
otherwise attached to the drone;
(ii) operated solely for personal recreational purposes; and
(iii) is not operated in connection with any business commercial,
governmental, or surveillance activity.
(b) An unmanned aircraft does not qualify as a recreational drone at
any time during which it is carrying a payload other than equipment
integral to its flight or its onboard sensor system.
4. (a) "Toy drone" shall mean a drone:
(i) operated exclusively in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 and weighs
0.55 pounds or less on takeoff;
(ii) operated within the visual line of sight of the operator without
the use of any other devices or other additional equipment;
(iii) is not equipped with any camera, video transmission system, or
other sensor capable of recording or transmitting, imagery, audio, or
geospatial data;
(iv) is operated solely for personal recreational purposes; and
(v) is not operated in connection with any business commercial,
governmental, or surveillance activity.
(b) An unmanned aircraft does not qualify as a toy drone at any time
during which it is carrying a payload other than equipment integral to
its flight or its onboard sensor system.
5. "Prohibited space" shall mean any area within five hundred feet
horizontally of the outer perimeter or boundary of the following
locations, and the airspace (a) up to four hundred feet vertically above
the surface of the ground within those boundaries, and (b) when not
authorized by the federal aviation administration, at any distance
vertically above those boundaries, of: an airport; state or federal
military installation; state, local, or federal correctional facility;
police station; fire department station; emergency services dispatch
station; large public gathering, which shall mean an event where there
are five hundred or more persons, and shall include but not be limited
to festivals, concerts, or sporting events; any critical infrastructure,
as defined in subdivision five of section eighty-six of the public
officers law; and any school as defined in subdivision ten of section
eleven hundred twenty-five of the education law.
Unlawful use of a drone.
A person commits unlawful use of a drone when such person:
1. operates a drone in a nefarious manner; or
2. operates a drone over prohibited space without express prior
approval from someone the person reasonably believes has the authority
to grant such approval.
Unlawful use of a drone is a class A misdemeanor.
Applicability and restrictions.
The provisions of this article shall not apply to the following
persons or entities:
1. A toy drone operated solely for recreation, unless such toy drone
is operated in a manner that would recklessly create a substantial risk
of physical injury to another person or substantial risk of damage to
property.
2. A recreational drone operated solely for hobby or recreational
purposes and operates in compliance with all applicable federal laws,
rules, regulations, authorizations, waivers, or exemptions and all other
applicable state and local laws, rules, and regulations, unless such
recreational drone is operated in a manner that recklessly creates a
substantial risk of physical injury to another person or substantial
risk of damage to property.
3. A drone operated for commercial, educational, agricultural,
journalistic, infrastructure, or other lawful purposes in compliance
with all applicable federal laws, rules, regulations, authorizations,
waivers, or exemptions and all other applicable state and local laws,
rules and regulations, unless such drone is operated in a manner that
recklessly creates a substantial risk of physical injury to another
person or substantial risk of damage to property.
4. A governmental employee, or a person acting on behalf of a state or
local government entity, provided that such person or employee is acting
in a manner consistent with such person's governmental duties.
PART 4 Administrative Provisions
TITLE W Provisions Relating to Firearms, Fireworks, Pornography Equipment and Vehicles Used In the Transportation of Gambling Records
ARTICLE 400 Licensing and Other Provisions Relating to Firearms
Licensing and other provisions relating to firearms.
1. Eligibility. No license shall be issued or renewed pursuant to this
section except by the licensing officer, and then only after
investigation and finding that all statements in a proper application
for a license are true. No license shall be issued or renewed except for
an applicant (a) twenty-one years of age or older, provided, however,
that where such applicant has been honorably discharged from the United
States army, navy, marine corps, air force or coast guard, or the
national guard of the state of New York, no such age restriction shall
apply; (b) of good moral character, which, for the purposes of this
article, shall mean having the essential character, temperament and
judgement necessary to be entrusted with a weapon and to use it only in
a manner that does not endanger oneself or others; (c) who has not been
convicted anywhere of a felony or a serious offense or who is not the
subject of an outstanding warrant of arrest issued upon the alleged
commission of a felony or serious offense; (d) who is not a fugitive
from justice; (e) who is not an unlawful user of or addicted to any
controlled substance as defined in section 21 U.S.C. 802; (f) who being
a noncitizen (i) is not illegally or unlawfully in the United States or
(ii) has not been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant
visa subject to the exception in 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(2); (g) who has not
been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions; (h)
who, having been a citizen of the United States, has not renounced his
or her citizenship; (i) who has stated whether he or she has ever
suffered any mental illness; (j) who has not been involuntarily
committed to a facility under the jurisdiction of an office of the
department of mental hygiene pursuant to article nine or fifteen of the
mental hygiene law, article seven hundred thirty or section 330.20 of
the criminal procedure law or substantially similar laws of any other
state, section four hundred two or five hundred eight of the correction
law, section 322.2 or 353.4 of the family court act, has not been
civilly confined in a secure treatment facility pursuant to article ten
of the mental hygiene law, or has not been the subject of a report made
pursuant to section 9.46 of the mental hygiene law; (k) who has not had
a license revoked or who is not under a suspension or ineligibility
order issued pursuant to the provisions of section 530.14 of the
criminal procedure law or section eight hundred forty-two-a of the
family court act; (l) in the county of Westchester, who has successfully
completed a firearms safety course and test as evidenced by a
certificate of completion issued in his or her name and endorsed and
affirmed under the penalties of perjury by a duly authorized instructor,
except that: (i) persons who are honorably discharged from the United
States army, navy, marine corps or coast guard, or of the national guard
of the state of New York, and produce evidence of official qualification
in firearms during the term of service are not required to have
completed those hours of a firearms safety course pertaining to the safe
use, carrying, possession, maintenance and storage of a firearm; (ii)
persons who were licensed to possess a pistol or revolver prior to the
effective date of this paragraph are not required to have completed a
firearms safety course and test, provided, however, persons with a
license issued under paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this section
prior to the effective date of the laws of two thousand twenty-two which
amended this paragraph shall be required to complete the training
required by subdivision nineteen of this section prior to the
recertification of such license; and (iii) persons applying for a
license under paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this section on or
after the effective date of the chapter of the laws of two thousand
twenty-two which amended this paragraph who shall be required to
complete the training required under subdivision nineteen of this
section for such license; (m) who has not had a guardian appointed for
him or her pursuant to any provision of state law, based on a
determination that as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, mental
illness, incompetency, incapacity, condition or disease, he or she lacks
the mental capacity to contract or manage his or her own affairs; (n)
for a license issued under paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this
section, that the applicant has not been convicted within five years of
the date of the application of any of the following: (i) assault in the
third degree, as defined in section 120.00 of this chapter; (ii)
misdemeanor driving while intoxicated, as defined in section eleven
hundred ninety-two of the vehicle and traffic law; or (iii) menacing, as
defined in section 120.15 of this chapter; and (o) for a license issued
under paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this section, the applicant
shall meet in person with the licensing officer for an interview and
shall, in addition to any other information or forms required by the
license application submit to the licensing officer the following
information: (i) names and contact information for the applicant's
current spouse, or domestic partner, any other adults residing in the
applicant's home, including any adult children of the applicant, and
whether or not there are minors residing, full time or part time, in the
applicant's home; (ii) names and contact information of no less than
four character references who can attest to the applicant's good moral
character and that such applicant has not engaged in any acts, or made
any statements that suggest they are likely to engage in conduct that
would result in harm to themselves or others; (iii) certification of
completion of the training required in subdivision nineteen of this
section; (iv) a list of former and current social media accounts of the
applicant from the past three years to confirm the information regarding
the applicants character and conduct as required in subparagraph (ii) of
this paragraph; and (v) such other information required by the licensing
officer that is reasonably necessary and related to the review of the
licensing application.
1-a. No person shall engage in the business of gunsmith or dealer in
firearms unless licensed pursuant to this section. An applicant to
engage in such business shall also be a citizen of the United States,
more than twenty-one years of age and shall be required to maintain a
place of business in the city or county where the license is issued. For
such business, if the applicant is a firm or partnership, each member
thereof shall comply with all of the requirements set forth in this
subdivision and if the applicant is a corporation, each officer thereof
shall so comply.
1-b. For purposes of subdivision one of this section, serious offense
shall include an offense in any jurisdiction or the former penal law
that includes all of the essential elements of a serious offense as
defined by subdivision seventeen of section 265.00 of this chapter.
Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude the denial of a license based
on the commission of, arrest for or conviction of an offense in any
other jurisdiction which does not include all of the essential elements
of a serious offense.
2. Types of licenses. A license for gunsmith or dealer in firearms
shall be issued to engage in such business. A license for a
semiautomatic rifle, other than an assault weapon or disguised gun,
shall be issued to purchase or take possession of such a semiautomatic
rifle when such transfer of ownership occurs on or after the effective
date of chapter two hundred twelve of the laws of two thousand
twenty-two that amended this subdivision. A license for a pistol or
revolver, other than an assault weapon or a disguised gun, shall be
issued to (a) have and possess in his dwelling by a householder; (b)
have and possess in his place of business by a merchant or storekeeper;
(c) have and carry concealed while so employed by a messenger employed
by a banking institution or express company; (d) have and carry
concealed by a justice of the supreme court in the first or second
judicial departments, or by a judge of the New York city civil court or
the New York city criminal court; (e) have and carry concealed while so
employed by a regular employee of an institution of the state, or of any
county, city, town or village, under control of a commissioner of
correction of the city or any warden, superintendent or head keeper of
any state prison, penitentiary, workhouse, county jail or other
institution for the detention of persons convicted or accused of crime
or held as witnesses in criminal cases, provided that application is
made therefor by such commissioner, warden, superintendent or head
keeper; (f) have and carry concealed, without regard to employment or
place of possession subject to the restrictions of state and federal
law, by any person; and (g) have, possess, collect and carry antique
pistols which are defined as follows: (i) any single shot, muzzle
loading pistol with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar
type of ignition system manufactured in or before 1898, which is not
designed for using rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition;
and (ii) any replica of any pistol described in clause (i) hereof if
such replica;
(1) is not designed or redesigned for using rimfire or conventional
centerfire fixed ammunition, or
(2) uses rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition which is
no longer manufactured in the United States and which is not readily
available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.
3. Applications. (a) Applications shall be made and renewed, in the
case of a license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver or to
purchase or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle, to the licensing
officer in the city or county, as the case may be, where the applicant
resides, is principally employed or has his or her principal place of
business as merchant or storekeeper; and, in the case of a license as
gunsmith or dealer in firearms, to the licensing officer where such
place of business is located. Blank applications shall, except in the
city of New York, be approved as to form by the superintendent of state
police. An application shall state the full name, date of birth,
residence, present occupation of each person or individual signing the
same, whether or not he or she is a citizen of the United States,
whether or not he or she complies with each requirement for eligibility
specified in subdivision one of this section and such other facts as may
be required to show the good character, competency and integrity of each
person or individual signing the application. An application shall be
signed and verified by the applicant. Each individual signing an
application shall submit one photograph of himself or herself and a
duplicate for each required copy of the application. Such photographs
shall have been taken within thirty days prior to filing the
application. In case of a license as gunsmith or dealer in firearms, the
photographs submitted shall be two inches square, and the application
shall also state the previous occupation of each individual signing the
same and the location of the place of such business, or of the bureau,
agency, subagency, office or branch office for which the license is
sought, specifying the name of the city, town or village, indicating the
street and number and otherwise giving such apt description as to point
out reasonably the location thereof. In such case, if the applicant is a
firm, partnership or corporation, its name, date and place of formation,
and principal place of business shall be stated. For such firm or
partnership, the application shall be signed and verified by each
individual composing or intending to compose the same, and for such
corporation, by each officer thereof.
(b) Application for an exemption under paragraph seven-b of
subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter. Each applicant desiring
to obtain the exemption set forth in paragraph seven-b of subdivision a
of section 265.20 of this chapter shall make such request in writing of
the licensing officer with whom his application for a license is filed,
at the time of filing such application. Such request shall include a
signed and verified statement by the person authorized to instruct and
supervise the applicant, that has met with the applicant and that he has
determined that, in his judgment, said applicant does not appear to be
or poses a threat to be, a danger to himself or to others. He shall
include a copy of his certificate as an instructor in small arms, if he
is required to be certified, and state his address and telephone number.
He shall specify the exact location by name, address and telephone
number where such instruction will take place. Such licensing officer
shall, no later than ten business days after such filing, request the
duly constituted police authorities of the locality where such
application is made to investigate and ascertain any previous criminal
record of the applicant pursuant to subdivision four of this section.
Upon completion of this investigation, the police authority shall report
the results to the licensing officer without unnecessary delay. The
licensing officer shall no later than ten business days after the
receipt of such investigation, determine if the applicant has been
previously denied a license, been convicted of a felony, or been
convicted of a serious offense, and either approve or disapprove the
applicant for exemption purposes based upon such determinations. If the
applicant is approved for the exemption, the licensing officer shall
notify the appropriate duly constituted police authorities and the
applicant. Such exemption shall terminate if the application for the
license is denied, or at any earlier time based upon any information
obtained by the licensing officer or the appropriate police authorities
which would cause the license to be denied. The applicant and
appropriate police authorities shall be notified of any such
terminations.
4. Investigation. Before a license is issued or renewed, there shall
be an investigation of all statements required in the application by the
duly constituted police authorities of the locality where such
application is made, including but not limited to such records as may be
accessible to the division of state police or division of criminal
justice services pursuant to section 400.02 of this article. For that
purpose, the records of the appropriate office of the department of
mental hygiene concerning previous or present mental illness of the
applicant shall be available for inspection by the investigating officer
of the police authority. Where the applicant is domiciled in a foreign
state, the investigation shall include inquiry of the foreign state for
records concerning the previous or present mental illness of the
applicant, and, to the extent necessary for inspection by the
investigating officer, the applicant shall execute a waiver of
confidentiality of such record in such form as may be required by the
foreign state. In order to ascertain any previous criminal record, the
investigating officer shall take the fingerprints and physical
descriptive data in quadruplicate of each individual by whom the
application is signed and verified. Two copies of such fingerprints
shall be taken on standard fingerprint cards eight inches square, and
one copy may be taken on a card supplied for that purpose by the federal
bureau of investigation; provided, however, that in the case of a
corporate applicant that has already been issued a dealer in firearms
license and seeks to operate a firearm dealership at a second or
subsequent location, the original fingerprints on file may be used to
ascertain any criminal record in the second or subsequent application
unless any of the corporate officers have changed since the prior
application, in which case the new corporate officer shall comply with
procedures governing an initial application for such license. When
completed, one standard card shall be forwarded to and retained by the
division of criminal justice services in the executive department, at
Albany. A search of the files of such division and written notification
of the results of the search shall be forwarded to the investigating
officer and shall be made without unnecessary delay. Thereafter, such
division shall notify the licensing officer and the executive
department, division of state police, Albany, of any criminal record of
the applicant filed therein subsequent to the search of its files. A
second standard card, or the one supplied by the federal bureau of
investigation, as the case may be, shall be forwarded to that bureau at
Washington with a request that the files of the bureau be searched and
notification of the results of the search be made to the investigating
police authority. Of the remaining two fingerprint cards, one shall be
filed with the executive department, division of state police, Albany,
within ten days after issuance of the license, and the other shall
remain on file with the investigating police authority. No such
fingerprints may be inspected by any person other than a peace officer,
who is acting pursuant to his or her special duties, or a police
officer, except on order of a judge or justice of a court of record
either upon notice to the licensee or without notice, as the judge or
justice may deem appropriate. Upon completion of the investigation, the
police authority shall report the results to the licensing officer
without unnecessary delay.
4-a. Appeals from denial of an application, renewal, recertification
or license revocation. If an application for a license is denied, not
renewed, not recertified, or revoked, the licensing officer shall issue
a written notice to the applicant setting forth the reasons for such
denial. An applicant may, within ninety days of receipt of such notice,
request a hearing to appeal the denial to the appeals board created by
the division of criminal justice services and the superintendent of
state police. An individual may be represented by counsel at any
appearance before the appeals board and shall be afforded an opportunity
to present additional evidence in support of their application. The
commissioner of criminal justice services and the superintendent of
state police shall promulgate rules and regulations governing such
appeals process.
4-b. Processing of license applications. Applications for licenses
shall be accepted for processing by the licensing officer at the time of
presentment. Except upon written notice to the applicant specifically
stating the reasons for any delay, in each case the licensing officer
shall act upon any application for a license pursuant to this section
within six months of the date of presentment of such an application to
the appropriate authority. Such delay may only be for good cause and
with respect to the applicant. In acting upon an application, the
licensing officer shall either deny the application for reasons
specifically and concisely stated in writing or grant the application
and issue the license applied for.
4-c. Westchester county firearms safety course certificate. In the
county of Westchester, at the time of application, the licensing officer
to which the license application is made shall provide a copy of the
safety course booklet to each license applicant. Before such license is
issued, such licensing officer shall require that the applicant submit a
certificate of successful completion of a firearms safety course and
test issued in his or her name and endorsed and affirmed under the
penalties of perjury by a duly authorized instructor.
5. Filing of approved applications. (a) The application for any
license, if granted, shall be filed by the licensing officer with the
clerk of the county of issuance, except that in the city of New York
and, in the counties of Nassau and Suffolk, the licensing officer shall
designate the place of filing in the appropriate division, bureau or
unit of the police department thereof, and in the county of Suffolk the
county clerk is hereby authorized to transfer all records or
applications relating to firearms to the licensing authority of that
county. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this
subdivision, the name and address of any person to whom an application
for any license has been granted shall be a public record. Upon
application by a licensee who has changed his place of residence such
records or applications shall be transferred to the appropriate officer
at the licensee's new place of residence. A duplicate copy of such
application shall be filed by the licensing officer in the executive
department, division of state police, Albany, within ten days after
issuance of the license. The superintendent of state police may
designate that such application shall be transmitted to the division of
state police electronically. In the event the superintendent of the
division of state police determines that it lacks any of the records
required to be filed with the division, it may request that such records
be provided to it by the appropriate clerk, department or authority and
such clerk, department or authority shall provide the division with such
records. In the event such clerk, department or authority lacks such
records, the division may request the license holder provide information
sufficient to constitute such record and such license holder shall
provide the division with such information. Such information shall be
limited to the license holder's name, date of birth, gender, race,
residential address, social security number and firearms possessed by
said license holder. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to
change the expiration date or term of such licenses if otherwise
provided for in law. Records assembled or collected for purposes of
inclusion in the database established by this section shall be released
pursuant to a court order. Records assembled or collected for purposes
of inclusion in the database created pursuant to section 400.02 of this
chapter shall not be subject to disclosure pursuant to article six of
the public officers law.
(b) Each application for a license pursuant to paragraph (a) of this
subdivision shall include, on a separate written form prepared by the
division of state police within thirty days of the effective date of the
chapter of the laws of two thousand thirteen, which amended this
section, and provided to the applicant at the same time and in the same
manner as the application for a license, an opportunity for the
applicant to request an exception from his or her application
information becoming public record pursuant to paragraph (a) of this
subdivision. Such forms, which shall also be made available to
individuals who had applied for or been granted a license prior to the
effective date of the chapter of the laws of two thousand thirteen which
amended this section, shall notify applicants that, upon discovery that
an applicant knowingly provided false information, such applicant may be
subject to penalties pursuant to section 175.30 of this chapter, and
further, that his or her request for an exception shall be null and
void, provided that written notice containing such determination is
provided to the applicant. Further, such forms shall provide each
applicant an opportunity to specify the grounds on which he or she
believes his or her application information should not be publicly
disclosed. These grounds, which shall be identified on the application
with a box beside each for checking, as applicable, by the applicant,
shall be as follows:
(i) the applicant's life or safety may be endangered by disclosure
because:
(A) the applicant is an active or retired police officer, peace
officer, probation officer, parole officer, or corrections officer;
(B) the applicant is a protected person under a currently valid order
of protection;
(C) the applicant is or was a witness in a criminal proceeding
involving a criminal charge;
(D) the applicant is participating or previously participated as a
juror in a criminal proceeding, or is or was a member of a grand jury;
or
(E) the applicant is a spouse, domestic partner or household member of
a person identified in this subparagraph or subparagraph (ii) of this
paragraph, specifying which subparagraph or subparagraphs and clauses
apply.
(ii) the applicant has reason to believe his or her life or safety may
be endangered by disclosure due to reasons stated by the applicant.
(iii) the applicant has reason to believe he or she may be subject to
unwarranted harassment upon disclosure of such information.
(c) Each form provided for recertification pursuant to paragraph (b)
of subdivision ten of this section shall include an opportunity for the
applicant to request an exception from the information provided on such
form becoming public record pursuant to paragraph (a) of this
subdivision. Such forms shall notify applicants that, upon discovery
that an applicant knowingly provided false information, such applicant
may be subject to penalties pursuant to section 175.30 of this chapter,
and further, that his or her request for an exception shall be null and
void, provided that written notice containing such determination is
provided to the applicant. Further, such forms shall provide each
applicant an opportunity to either decline to request the grant or
continuation of an exception, or specify the grounds on which he or she
believes his or her information should not be publicly disclosed. These
grounds, which shall be identified in the application with a box beside
each for checking, as applicable, by the applicant, shall be the same as
provided in paragraph (b) of this subdivision.
(d) Information submitted on the forms described in paragraph (b) of
this subdivision shall be excepted from disclosure and maintained by the
entity retaining such information separate and apart from all other
records.
(e) (i) Upon receiving a request for exception from disclosure, the
licensing officer shall grant such exception, unless the request is
determined to be null and void, pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this
subdivision.
(ii) A request for an exception from disclosure may be submitted at
any time, including after a license or recertification has been granted.
(iii) If an exception is sought and granted pursuant to paragraph (b)
of this subdivision, the application information shall not be public
record, unless the request is determined to be null and void. If an
exception is sought and granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this
subdivision, the information concerning such recertification application
shall not be public record, unless the request is determined to be null
and void. Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this subparagraph,
local and state law enforcement shall, upon request, be granted access
to and copies of such application information provided that such
information obtained by law enforcement pursuant to this subparagraph
shall not be considered a public record of such law enforcement agency.
(f) The information of licensees or applicants for a license shall not
be disclosed to the public during the first one hundred twenty days
following the effective date of the chapter of the laws of two thousand
thirteen, which amended this section. After such period, the information
of those who had applied for or been granted a license prior to the
preparation of the form for requesting an exception, pursuant to
paragraph (b) of this subdivision, may be released only if such
individuals did not file a request for such an exception during the
first sixty days following such preparation; provided, however, that no
information contained in an application for licensure or recertification
shall be disclosed by an entity that has not completed processing any
such requests received during such sixty days.
(g) If a request for an exception is determined to be null and void
pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this subdivision, an applicant may
request review of such determination pursuant to article seventy-eight
of the civil practice laws and rules. Such proceeding must commence
within thirty days after service of the written notice containing the
adverse determination. Notice of the right to commence such a petition,
and the time period therefor, shall be included in the notice of the
determination. Disclosure following such a petition shall not be made
prior to the disposition of such review.
6. License: validity. Any license issued pursuant to this section
shall be valid notwithstanding the provisions of any local law or
ordinance. No license shall be transferable to any other person or
premises. A license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver, or to
purchase or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle, not otherwise
limited as to place or time of possession, shall be effective throughout
the state, except that the same shall not be valid within the city of
New York unless a special permit granting validity is issued by the
police commissioner of that city. Such license to carry or possess shall
be valid within the city of New York in the absence of a permit issued
by the police commissioner of that city, provided that (a) the firearms
covered by such license have been purchased from a licensed dealer
within the city of New York and are being transported out of said city
forthwith and immediately from said dealer by the licensee in a locked
container during a continuous and uninterrupted trip; or provided that
(b) the firearms covered by such license are being transported by the
licensee in a locked container and the trip through the city of New York
is continuous and uninterrupted; or provided that (c) the firearms
covered by such license are carried by armored car security guards
transporting money or other valuables, in, to, or from motor vehicles
commonly known as armored cars, during the course of their employment;
or provided that (d) the licensee is a retired police officer as police
officer is defined pursuant to subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20
of the criminal procedure law or a retired federal law enforcement
officer, as defined in section 2.15 of the criminal procedure law, who
has been issued a license by an authorized licensing officer as defined
in subdivision ten of section 265.00 of this chapter; provided, further,
however, that if such license was not issued in the city of New York it
must be marked "Retired Police Officer" or "Retired Federal Law
Enforcement Officer", as the case may be, and, in the case of a retired
officer the license shall be deemed to permit only police or federal law
enforcement regulations weapons; or provided that (e) the licensee is a
peace officer described in subdivision four of section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law and the license, if issued by other than the city
of New York, is marked "New York State Tax Department Peace Officer" and
in such case the exemption shall apply only to the firearm issued to
such licensee by the department of taxation and finance. A license as
gunsmith or dealer in firearms shall not be valid outside the city or
county, as the case may be, where issued. Notwithstanding any
inconsistent provision of state or local law or rule or regulation, the
premises limitation set forth in any license to have and possess a
pistol or revolver in the licensee's dwelling or place of business
pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of subdivision two of this section
shall not prevent the transport of such pistol or revolver directly to
or from (i) another dwelling or place of business of the licensee where
the licensee is authorized to have and possess such pistol or revolver,
(ii) an indoor or outdoor shooting range that is authorized by law to
operate as such, (iii) a shooting competition at which the licensee may
possess such pistol or revolver consistent with the provisions of
subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter or consistent with the
law applicable at the place of such competition, or (iv) any other
location where the licensee is lawfully authorized to have and possess
such pistol or revolver; provided however, that during such transport to
or from a location specified in clauses (i) through (iv) of this
paragraph, the pistol or revolver shall be unloaded and carried in a
locked container, and the ammunition therefor shall be carried
separately; provided further, however, that a license to have and
possess a pistol or revolver in the licensee's dwelling or place of
business pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of subdivision two of this
section that is issued by a licensing officer other than the police
commissioner of the city of New York shall not authorize transport of a
pistol or revolver into the city of New York in the absence of written
authorization to do so by the police commissioner of that city. The term
"locked container" shall not include the glove compartment or console of
a vehicle.
7. License: form. Any license issued pursuant to this section shall,
except in the city of New York, be approved as to form by the
superintendent of state police. A license to carry or possess a pistol
or revolver or to purchase or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle
shall have attached the licensee's photograph, and a coupon which shall
be removed and retained by any person disposing of a firearm to the
licensee. A license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver shall
specify the weapon covered by calibre, make, model, manufacturer's name
and serial number, or if none, by any other distinguishing number or
identification mark, and shall indicate whether issued to carry on the
person or possess on the premises, and if on the premises shall also
specify the place where the licensee shall possess the same. If such
license is issued to a noncitizen, or to a person not a citizen of and
usually a resident in the state, the licensing officer shall state in
the license the particular reason for the issuance and the names of the
persons certifying to the good character of the applicant. Any license
as gunsmith or dealer in firearms shall mention and describe the
premises for which it is issued and shall be valid only for such
premises.
8. License: exhibition and display. Every licensee while carrying a
pistol or revolver shall have on his or her person a license to carry
the same. Every person licensed to possess a pistol or revolver on
particular premises shall have the license for the same on such
premises. Every person licensed to purchase or take possession of a
semiautomatic rifle shall have the license for the same on his or her
person while purchasing or taking possession of such weapon. Upon
demand, the license shall be exhibited for inspection to any peace
officer, who is acting pursuant to his or her special duties, or police
officer. A license as gunsmith or dealer in firearms shall be
prominently displayed on the licensed premises. A gunsmith or dealer of
firearms may conduct business temporarily at a location other than the
location specified on the license if such temporary location is the
location for a gun show or event sponsored by any national, state, or
local organization, or any affiliate of any such organization devoted to
the collection, competitive use or other sporting use of firearms. Any
sale or transfer at a gun show must also comply with the provisions of
article thirty-nine-DD of the general business law. Records of receipt
and disposition of firearms transactions conducted at such temporary
location shall include the location of the sale or other disposition and
shall be entered in the permanent records of the gunsmith or dealer of
firearms and retained on the location specified on the license. Nothing
in this section shall authorize any licensee to conduct business from
any motorized or towed vehicle. A separate fee shall not be required of
a licensee with respect to business conducted under this subdivision.
Any inspection or examination of inventory or records under this section
at such temporary location shall be limited to inventory consisting of,
or records related to, firearms held or disposed at such temporary
locations. Failure of any licensee to so exhibit or display his or her
license, as the case may be, shall be presumptive evidence that he or
she is not duly licensed.
9. License: amendment. Elsewhere than in the city of New York, a
person licensed to carry or possess a pistol or revolver or to purchase
or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle may apply at any time to his
or her licensing officer for amendment of his or her license to include
one or more such weapons or to cancel weapons held under license. If
granted, a record of the amendment describing the weapons involved shall
be filed by the licensing officer in the executive department, division
of state police, Albany. The superintendent of state police may
authorize that such amendment be completed and transmitted to the state
police in electronic form. Notification of any change of residence shall
be made in writing by any licensee within ten days after such change
occurs, and a record of such change shall be inscribed by such licensee
on the reverse side of his or her license. Elsewhere than in the city of
New York, and in the counties of Nassau and Suffolk, such notification
shall be made to the executive department, division of state police,
Albany, and in the city of New York to the police commissioner of that
city, and in the county of Nassau to the police commissioner of that
county, and in the county of Suffolk to the licensing officer of that
county, who shall, within ten days after such notification shall be
received by him or her, give notice in writing of such change to the
executive department, division of state police, at Albany.
10. License: expiration, certification and renewal. (a) Any license
for gunsmith or dealer in firearms and, in the city of New York, any
license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver, issued at any time
pursuant to this section or prior to the first day of July, nineteen
hundred sixty-three and not limited to expire on an earlier date fixed
in the license, shall, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of
this subdivision, expire not more than three years after the date of
issuance. In the counties of Nassau, Suffolk and Westchester, any
license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver, issued at any time
pursuant to this section or prior to the first day of July, nineteen
hundred sixty-three and not limited to expire on an earlier date fixed
in the license, shall expire not more than five years after the date of
issuance; however, in the county of Westchester, any such license shall
be certified prior to the first day of April, two thousand, in
accordance with a schedule to be contained in regulations promulgated by
the commissioner of the division of criminal justice services, and every
such license shall, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of
this subdivision, be recertified every five years thereafter. For
purposes of this section certification shall mean that the licensee
shall provide to the licensing officer the following information only:
current name, date of birth, current address, and the make, model,
caliber and serial number of all firearms currently possessed. Such
certification information shall be filed by the licensing officer in the
same manner as an amendment. Elsewhere than in the city of New York and
the counties of Nassau, Suffolk and Westchester, any license to carry or
possess a pistol or revolver, issued at any time pursuant to this
section or prior to the first day of July, nineteen hundred sixty-three
and not previously revoked or cancelled, shall be in force and effect
until revoked as herein provided. Any license not previously cancelled
or revoked shall remain in full force and effect for thirty days beyond
the stated expiration date on such license. Any application to renew a
license that has not previously expired, been revoked or cancelled shall
thereby extend the term of the license until disposition of the
application by the licensing officer. In the case of a license for
gunsmith or dealer in firearms, in counties having a population of less
than two hundred thousand inhabitants, photographs and fingerprints
shall be submitted on original applications and upon renewal thereafter
at three year intervals. Upon satisfactory proof that a currently valid
original license has been despoiled, lost or otherwise removed from the
possession of the licensee and upon application containing an additional
photograph of the licensee, the licensing officer shall issue a
duplicate license.
(b) All licensees shall be recertified to the division of state police
every five years thereafter, except as otherwise provided in paragraph
(d) of this subdivision. Any license issued before the effective date of
the chapter of the laws of two thousand thirteen which added this
paragraph shall be recertified by the licensee on or before January
thirty-first, two thousand eighteen, and not less than one year prior to
such date, the state police shall send a notice to all license holders
who have not recertified by such time. Such recertification shall be in
a form as approved by the superintendent of state police, which shall
request the license holder's name, date of birth, gender, race,
residential address, social security number, firearms possessed by such
license holder, email address at the option of the license holder and an
affirmation that such license holder is not prohibited from possessing
firearms. The form may be in an electronic form if so designated by the
superintendent of state police. Failure to recertify shall act as a
revocation of such license. If the New York state police discover as a
result of the recertification process that a licensee failed to provide
a change of address, the New York state police shall not require the
licensing officer to revoke such license.
(c) A license to purchase or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle
as defined in subdivision two of this section shall be recertified to
the applicable licensing officer every five years following the issuance
of such license. Failure to renew such a license shall be a violation
punishable by a fine not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars, and such
failure to renew shall be considered by the licensing officer when
reviewing future license applications by the license holder pursuant to
this chapter.
(d) Licenses issued under paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this
section shall be recertified or renewed in the same form and manner as
otherwise required by this subdivision, provided however, that such
licenses shall be recertified or renewed every three years following the
issuance of such license. For licenses issued prior to the effective
date of this paragraph that were issued more than three years prior to
such date, or will expire in less than one year from such date shall be
recertified or renewed within one year of such date.
11. License: revocation and suspension. (a) The conviction of a
licensee anywhere of a felony or serious offense or a licensee at any
time becoming ineligible to obtain a license, including engaging in
conduct that would have resulted in the denial of a license, under this
section shall operate as or be grounds for, a revocation of the license.
A license may be revoked or suspended as provided for in section 530.14
of the criminal procedure law or section eight hundred forty-two-a of
the family court act. Except for a license issued pursuant to section
400.01 of this article, a license may be revoked and cancelled at any
time in the city of New York, and in the counties of Nassau and Suffolk,
by the licensing officer, and elsewhere than in the city of New York by
any judge or justice of a court of record; a license issued pursuant to
section 400.01 of this article may be revoked and cancelled at any time
by the licensing officer or any judge or justice of a court of record. A
license to engage in the business of dealer may be revoked or suspended
for any violation of the provisions of article thirty-nine-BB of the
general business law. The official revoking a license shall give written
notice thereof without unnecessary delay to the executive department,
division of state police, Albany, and shall also notify immediately the
duly constituted police authorities of the locality. The licensing
officer shall revoke any license issued in which an applicant knowingly
made a material false statement on the application. Notice of a
revocation under this subdivision shall be issued in writing and shall
include the basis for the determination, which shall be supported by a
preponderance of the evidence. Such notice shall also include
information regarding the ability to appeal such decision in accordance
with subdivision four-a of this section.
(b) Whenever the director of community services or his or her designee
makes a report pursuant to section 9.46 of the mental hygiene law, the
division of criminal justice services shall convey such information,
whenever it determines that the person named in the report possesses a
license issued pursuant to this section, to the appropriate licensing
official, who shall issue an order suspending or revoking such license.
(c) In any instance in which a person's license is suspended or
revoked under paragraph (a) or (b) of this subdivision, such person
shall surrender such license to the appropriate licensing official and
any and all firearms, rifles, or shotguns owned or possessed by such
person shall be surrendered to an appropriate law enforcement agency as
provided in subparagraph (f) of paragraph one of subdivision a of
section 265.20 of this chapter. In the event such license, firearm,
shotgun, or rifle is not surrendered, such items shall be removed and
declared a nuisance and any police officer or peace officer acting
pursuant to his or her special duties is authorized to remove any and
all such weapons.
12. Records required of gunsmiths and dealers in firearms. In addition
to the requirements set forth in article thirty-nine-BB of the general
business law, any person licensed as gunsmith or dealer in firearms
shall keep a record book approved as to form, except in the city of New
York, by the superintendent of state police. In the record book shall be
entered at the time of every transaction involving a firearm the date,
name, age, occupation and residence of any person from whom a firearm is
received or to whom a firearm is delivered, and the calibre, make,
model, manufacturer's name and serial number, or if none, any other
distinguishing number or identification mark on such firearm. Before
delivering a firearm to any person, the licensee shall require him to
produce either a license valid under this section to carry or possess
the same, or proof of lawful authority as an exempt person pursuant to
section 265.20 of this chapter and either (a) the National Instant
Criminal Background Check System (NICS) or its successor has issued a
"proceed" response to the licensee, or (b) thirty calendar days have
elapsed since the date the licensee contacted NICS to initiate a
national instant criminal background check and NICS has not notified the
licensee that the transfer of the firearm to such person should be
denied. In addition, before delivering a firearm to a peace officer, the
licensee shall verify that person's status as a peace officer with the
division of state police. After completing the foregoing, the licensee
shall remove and retain the attached coupon and enter in the record book
the date of such license, number, if any, and name of the licensing
officer, in the case of the holder of a license to carry or possess, or
the shield or other number, if any, assignment and department, unit or
agency, in the case of an exempt person. The original transaction report
shall be forwarded to the division of state police within ten days of
delivering a firearm to any person, and a duplicate copy shall be kept
by the licensee. The superintendent of state police may designate that
such record shall be completed and transmitted in electronic form. A
dealer may be granted a waiver from transmitting such records in
electronic form if the superintendent determines that such dealer is
incapable of such transmission due to technological limitations that are
not reasonably within the control of the dealer, or other exceptional
circumstances demonstrated by the dealer, pursuant to a process
established in regulation, and at the discretion of the superintendent.
Records assembled or collected for purposes of inclusion in the database
created pursuant to section 400.02 of this article shall not be subject
to disclosure pursuant to article six of the public officers law. The
record book shall be maintained on the premises mentioned and described
in the license and shall be open at all reasonable hours for inspection
by any peace officer, acting pursuant to his special duties, or police
officer. In the event of cancellation or revocation of the license for
gunsmith or dealer in firearms, or discontinuance of business by a
licensee, such record book shall be immediately surrendered to the
licensing officer in the city of New York, and in the counties of Nassau
and Suffolk, and elsewhere in the state to the executive department,
division of state police.
12-a. State police regulations applicable to licensed gunsmiths
engaged in the business of assembling or manufacturing firearms. The
superintendent of state police is hereby authorized to issue such rules
and regulations as he deems reasonably necessary to prevent the manu-
facture and assembly of unsafe firearms in the state. Such rules and
regulations shall establish safety standards in regard to the manu-
facture and assembly of firearms in the state, including specifications
as to materials and parts used, the proper storage and shipment of
firearms, and minimum standards of quality control. Regulations issued
by the state police pursuant to this subdivision shall apply to any
person licensed as a gunsmith under this section engaged in the business
of manufacturing or assembling firearms, and any violation thereof shall
subject the licensee to revocation of license pursuant to subdivision
eleven of this section.
12-c. Firearms records. (a) Every employee of a state or local agency,
unit of local government, state or local commission, or public or
private organization who possesses a firearm or machine-gun under an
exemption to the licensing requirements under this chapter, shall
promptly report in writing to his employer the make, model, calibre and
serial number of each such firearm or machine-gun. Thereafter, within
ten days of the acquisition or disposition of any such weapon, he shall
furnish such information to his employer, including the name and address
of the person from whom the weapon was acquired or to whom it was
disposed.
(b) Every head of a state or local agency, unit of local government,
state or local commission, public authority or public or private
organization to whom an employee has submitted a report pursuant to
paragraph (a) of this subdivision shall promptly forward such report to
the superintendent of state police.
(c) Every head of a state or local agency, unit of local government,
state or local commission, public authority, or any other agency, firm
or corporation that employs persons who may lawfully possess firearms or
machine-guns without the requirement of a license therefor, or that
employs persons licensed to possess firearms or machine-guns, shall
promptly report to the superintendent of state police, in the manner
prescribed by him, the make, model, calibre and serial number of every
firearm or machine-gun possessed by it on the effective date of this act
for the use of such employees or for any other use. Thereafter, within
ten days of the acquisition or disposition of any such weapon, such head
shall report such information to the superintendent of the state police,
including the name and address of the person from whom the weapon was
acquired or to whom it was disposed.
13. Expenses. The expense of providing a licensing officer with blank
applications, licenses and record books for carrying out the provisions
of this section shall be a charge against the county, and in the city of
New York against the city.
14. Fees. In the city of New York and the counties of Nassau and
Westchester, the annual license fee shall be twenty-five dollars for
gunsmiths and fifty dollars for dealers in firearms. In such city, the
city council and in the counties of Nassau and Westchester the
legislative body of such county shall fix the fee to be charged for a
license to carry or possess a pistol or revolver or to purchase or take
possession of a semiautomatic rifle and provide for the disposition of
such fees. Elsewhere in the state, the licensing officer shall collect
and pay into the county treasury the following fees: for each license to
carry or possess a pistol or revolver or to purchase or take possession
of a semiautomatic rifle, not less than three dollars nor more than ten
dollars as may be determined by the legislative body of the county; for
each amendment thereto, three dollars, and five dollars in the county of
Suffolk; and for each license issued to a gunsmith or dealer in
firearms, ten dollars. The fee for a duplicate license shall be five
dollars. The fee for processing a license transfer between counties
shall be five dollars. The fee for processing a license or renewal
thereof for a qualified retired police officer as defined under
subdivision thirty-four of section 1.20 of the criminal procedure law,
or a qualified retired sheriff, undersheriff, or deputy sheriff of the
city of New York as defined under subdivision two of section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law, or a qualified retired bridge and tunnel
officer, sergeant or lieutenant of the triborough bridge and tunnel
authority as defined under subdivision twenty of section 2.10 of the
criminal procedure law, or a qualified retired uniformed court officer
in the unified court system, or a qualified retired court clerk in the
unified court system in the first and second judicial departments, as
defined in paragraphs a and b of subdivision twenty-one of section 2.10
of the criminal procedure law or a retired correction officer as defined
in subdivision twenty-five of section 2.10 of the criminal procedure law
shall be waived in all counties throughout the state.
15. Any violation by any person of any provision of this section is a
class A misdemeanor.
16. Unlawful disposal. No person shall except as otherwise authorized
pursuant to law dispose of any firearm unless he is licensed as gunsmith
or dealer in firearms.
16-a. Registration. (a) An owner of a weapon defined in paragraph (e)
or (f) of subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 of this chapter,
possessed before the date of the effective date of the chapter of the
laws of two thousand thirteen which added this paragraph, must make an
application to register such weapon with the superintendent of state
police, in the manner provided by the superintendent, or by amending a
license issued pursuant to this section within one year of the effective
date of this subdivision except any weapon defined under subparagraph
(vi) of paragraph (g) of subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 of
this chapter transferred into the state may be registered at any time,
provided such weapons are registered within thirty days of their
transfer into the state. Registration information shall include the
registrant's name, date of birth, gender, race, residential address,
social security number and a description of each weapon being
registered. A registration of any weapon defined under subparagraph (vi)
of paragraph (g) of subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 or a
feeding device as defined under subdivision twenty-three of section
265.00 of this chapter shall be transferable, provided that the seller
notifies the state police within seventy-two hours of the transfer and
the buyer provides the state police with information sufficient to
constitute a registration under this section. Such registration shall
not be valid if such registrant is prohibited or becomes prohibited from
possessing a firearm pursuant to state or federal law. The
superintendent shall determine whether such registrant is prohibited
from possessing a firearm under state or federal law. Such check shall
be limited to determining whether the factors in 18 USC 922 (g) apply or
whether a registrant has been convicted of a serious offense as defined
in subdivision sixteen-b of section 265.00 of this chapter, so as to
prohibit such registrant from possessing a firearm, and whether a report
has been issued pursuant to section 9.46 of the mental hygiene law. All
registrants shall recertify to the division of state police every five
years thereafter. Failure to recertify shall result in a revocation of
such registration.
(a-1) Notwithstanding any inconsistent provisions of paragraph (a) of
this subdivision, an owner of an assault weapon as defined in
subdivision twenty-two of section 265.00 of this chapter, who is a
qualified retired New York or federal law enforcement officer as defined
in subdivision twenty-five of section 265.00 of this chapter, where such
weapon was issued to or purchased by such officer prior to retirement
and in the course of his or her official duties, and for which such
officer was qualified by the agency that employed such officer within
twelve months prior to his or her retirement, must register such weapon
within sixty days of retirement.
(b) The superintendent of state police shall create and maintain an
internet website to educate the public as to which semiautomatic rifle,
semiautomatic shotgun or semiautomatic pistol or weapon that are illegal
as a result of the enactment of the chapter of the laws of two thousand
thirteen which added this paragraph, as well as such assault weapons
which are illegal pursuant to article two hundred sixty-five of this
chapter. Such website shall contain information to assist the public in
recognizing the relevant features proscribed by such article two hundred
sixty-five, as well as which make and model of weapons that require
registration.
(c) A person who knowingly fails to apply to register such weapon, as
required by this section, within one year of the effective date of the
chapter of the laws of two thousand thirteen which added this paragraph
shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor and such person who unknowingly
fails to validly register such weapon within such one year period shall
be given a warning by an appropriate law enforcement authority about
such failure and given thirty days in which to apply to register such
weapon or to surrender it. A failure to apply or surrender such weapon
within such thirty-day period shall result in such weapon being removed
by an appropriate law enforcement authority and declared a nuisance.
16-b. The cost of the software, programming and interface required to
transmit any record that must be electronically transmitted by the
dealer or licensing officer to the division of state police pursuant to
this chapter shall be borne by the state.
17. Applicability of section. The provisions of article two hundred
sixty-five of this chapter relating to illegal possession of a firearm,
shall not apply to an offense which also constitutes a violation of this
section by a person holding an otherwise valid license under the
provisions of this section and such offense shall only be punishable as
a class A misdemeanor pursuant to this section. In addition, the
provisions of such article two hundred sixty-five of this chapter shall
not apply to the possession of a firearm in a place not authorized by
law, by a person who holds an otherwise valid license or possession of a
firearm by a person within a one year period after the stated expiration
date of an otherwise valid license which has not been previously
cancelled or revoked shall only be punishable as a class A misdemeanor
pursuant to this section.
18. Notice. Upon the issuance of a license, the licensing officer
shall issue therewith, and such licensee shall attest to the receipt of,
the following information and notifications: (a) the grounds for which
the license issued may be revoked, which shall include but not be
limited to the areas and locations for which the licenses issued under
paragraph (f) of subdivision two of this section prohibits the
possession of firearms, rifles, and shotguns, and that a conviction
under sections 265.01-d and 265.01-e of this chapter are felonies for
which licensure will be revoked;
(b) a notification regarding the requirements for safe storage which
shall be in conspicuous and legible twenty-four point type on eight and
one-half inches by eleven inches paper stating in bold print the
following:
WARNING: RESPONSIBLE FIREARM STORAGE IS THE LAW IN NEW YORK STATE.
WHEN STORED IN A HOME FIREARMS, RIFLES, OR SHOTGUNS MUST EITHER BE
STORED WITH A GUN LOCKING DEVICE OR IN A SAFE STORAGE DEPOSITORY OR NOT
BE LEFT OUTSIDE THE IMMEDIATE POSSESSION AND CONTROL OF THE OWNER OR
OTHER LAWFUL POSSESSOR IF A CHILD UNDER THE AGE OF EIGHTEEN RESIDES IN
THE HOME OR IS PRESENT, OR IF THE OWNER OR POSSESSOR RESIDES WITH A
PERSON PROHIBITED FROM POSSESSING A FIREARM UNDER STATE OR FEDERAL LAW.
FIREARMS SHOULD BE STORED BY REMOVING THE AMMUNITION FROM AND SECURELY
LOCKING SUCH FIREARM IN A LOCATION SEPARATE FROM AMMUNITION. LEAVING
FIREARMS ACCESSIBLE TO A CHILD OR OTHER PROHIBITED PERSON MAY SUBJECT
YOU TO IMPRISONMENT, FINE, OR BOTH. WHEN STORED IN A VEHICLE OUTSIDE THE
OWNER'S IMMEDIATE POSSESSION OR CONTROL, FIREARMS, RIFLES, AND SHOTGUNS
MUST BE STORED IN AN APPROPRIATE SAFE STORAGE DEPOSITORY AND OUT OF
SIGHT FROM OUTSIDE OF THE VEHICLE.
(c) any other information necessary to ensure such licensee is aware
of their responsibilities as a license holder; and
(d) statewide resources and information relating to safe storage of
firearms, child access prevention and firearm violence prevention as
well as information on county and local specific laws and regulations
related to child access prevention and the safe storage of firearms.
Nothing in this subdivision shall be deemed to affect, impair or
supersede any special or local law relating to providing notice
regarding the safe storage of rifles, shotguns or firearms.
19. Prior to the issuance or renewal of a license under paragraph (f)
of subdivision two of this section, issued or renewed on or after the
effective date of this subdivision, an applicant shall complete an
in-person live firearms safety course conducted by a duly authorized
instructor with curriculum approved by the division of criminal justice
services and the superintendent of state police, and meeting the
following requirements: (a) a minimum of sixteen hours of in-person live
curriculum approved by the division of criminal justice services and the
superintendent of state police, conducted by a duly authorized
instructor approved by the division of criminal justice services, and
shall include but not be limited to the following topics: (i) general
firearm safety; (ii) safe storage requirements and general secure
storage best practices; (iii) state and federal gun laws; (iv)
situational awareness; (v) conflict de-escalation; (vi) best practices
when encountering law enforcement; (vii) the statutorily defined
sensitive places in subdivision two of section 265.01-e of this chapter
and the restrictions on possession on restricted places under section
265.01-d of this chapter; (viii) conflict management; (ix) use of deadly
force; (x) suicide prevention; and (xi) the basic principles of
marksmanship; and (b) a minimum of two hours of a live-fire range
training course. The applicant shall be required to demonstrate
proficiency by scoring a minimum of eighty percent correct answers on a
written test for the curriculum under paragraph (a) of this subdivision
and the proficiency level determined by the rules and regulations
promulgated by the division of criminal justice services and the
superintendent of state police for the live-fire range training under
paragraph (b) of this subdivision. Upon demonstration of such
proficiency, a certificate of completion shall be issued to such
applicant in the applicant's name and endorsed and affirmed under the
penalties of perjury by such duly authorized instructor. An applicant
required to complete the training required herein prior to renewal of a
license issued prior to the effective date of this subdivision shall
only be required to complete such training for the first renewal of such
license after such effective date.
20. Firearms dealers; required warnings. (a) (i) Every person licensed
as a gunsmith or a dealer in firearms shall post the following notice at
the site where such rifles, shotguns, or firearms are sold, displayed or
delivered to the purchaser, at the entrance to the site and in at least
one additional area where sales occur, conspicuously stating, in no
smaller than twenty-six-point type on a sign at least eight and one-half
by eleven inches in bold print:
WARNING
ACCESS TO A RIFLE, SHOTGUN, OR FIREARM IN THE HOME SIGNIFICANTLY
INCREASES THE RISK OF SUICIDE, DEATH DURING DOMESTIC DISPUTES, AND/OR
UNINTENTIONAL DEATHS TO CHILDREN, HOUSEHOLD MEMBERS AND OTHERS.
IF YOU OR A LOVED ONE IS EXPERIENCING DISTRESS AND/OR DEPRESSION, CALL
THE NATIONAL SUICIDE PREVENTION LIFELINE AT 988.
(ii) Every firearms dealer shall distribute a notice to the purchaser
at the time of each individual sale of a rifle, shotgun, or firearm,
conspicuously stating, in no smaller than twenty-six-point type and on
paper at least eight and one-half by eleven inches in bold print the
following warning:
WARNING
ACCESS TO A RIFLE, SHOTGUN, OR FIREARM IN THE HOME SIGNIFICANTLY
INCREASES THE RISK OF SUICIDE, DEATH DURING DOMESTIC DISPUTES, AND/OR
UNINTENTIONAL DEATHS TO CHILDREN, HOUSEHOLD MEMBERS AND OTHERS.
IF YOU OR A LOVED ONE IS EXPERIENCING DISTRESS AND/OR DEPRESSION, CALL
THE NATIONAL SUICIDE PREVENTION LIFELINE AT 988.
(iii) Upon the issuance of or amendment to a rifle, shotgun, or
firearm license and/or permit, the licensing officer shall provide the
licensee/permittee a written copy of a warning notice conspicuously
stating in no smaller than twenty-six-point type and on paper at least
eight and one-half by eleven inches in bold print the following warning:
WARNING
ACCESS TO A RIFLE, SHOTGUN, OR FIREARM IN THE HOME SIGNIFICANTLY
INCREASES THE RISK OF SUICIDE, DEATH DURING DOMESTIC DISPUTES, AND/OR
UNINTENTIONAL DEATHS TO CHILDREN, HOUSEHOLD MEMBERS AND OTHERS.
IF YOU OR A LOVED ONE IS EXPERIENCING DISTRESS AND/OR DEPRESSION, CALL
THE NATIONAL SUICIDE PREVENTION LIFELINE AT 988.
(b) No licensing officer, local government, or any employee thereof
shall be liable to any person by reason of any injury or damage
resulting from the failure of any gunsmith or firearms dealer to comply
with this subdivision or in consequence of any act or omission in
connection with the implementation or enforcement of this subdivision.
(c) Any person, firm, or corporation required to post or distribute
warnings pursuant to subparagraph (i) or (ii) of paragraph (a) of this
subdivision who fails to post or distribute in the manner provided for
in such provisions shall be guilty of a violation punishable by
imprisonment of not more than fifteen days or by a fine of not more than
one thousand dollars, or both. Each day that a violation continues shall
be deemed a separate offense.
(d) The provisions of this subdivision shall not supersede any local
law or ordinance that imposes stricter disclosure or notice
requirements; and notices required by this subdivision shall be in
addition to any other notices required by any other federal, state or
local law, ordinance, rule or regulation.
License to carry and possess firearms for retired sworn members
of the division of state police.
1. A license to carry or possess a firearm or to purchase or take
possession of a semiautomatic rifle for a retired sworn member of the
division of state police shall be granted in the same manner and upon
the same terms and conditions as licenses issued under section 400.00 of
this article provided, however, that applications for such license may
be made to, and the licensing officer may be, the superintendent of
state police.
2. For purposes of this section, a "retired sworn member of the
division of state police" shall mean a former sworn member of the
division of state police, who upon separation from the division of state
police was immediately entitled to receive retirement benefits under the
provisions of the retirement and social security law.
3. The provisions of this section shall only apply to license
applications made or renewals which must be made on or after the
effective date of this section. A license to carry or possess a pistol
or revolver or to purchase or take possession of a semiautomatic rifle
issued pursuant to the provisions of section 400.00 of this article to a
person covered by the provisions of this section shall be valid until
such license would have expired pursuant to the provisions of section
400.00 of this article; provided that, on or after the effective date of
this section, an application or renewal of such license shall be made
pursuant to the provisions of this section.
4. Except for the designation of the superintendent of state police as
the licensing officer for retired sworn members of the division of state
police who have opted to obtain such license under this section, all of
the provisions and requirements of section 400.00 of this article and
any other provision of law shall be applicable to individuals licensed
pursuant to this section. In addition all provisions of section 400.00
of this article, except for the designation of the superintendent of
state police as licensing officer are hereby deemed applicable to
individuals licensed pursuant to this section.
Statewide license and record database.
1. There shall be a statewide license and record database which shall
be created and maintained by the division of state police the cost of
which shall not be borne by any municipality. Records assembled or
collected for purposes of inclusion in such database shall not be
subject to disclosure pursuant to article six of the public officers
law. All records containing granted license applications from all
licensing authorities shall be monthly checked by the division of
criminal justice services in conjunction with the division of state
police against criminal conviction, criminal indictment, mental health,
extreme risk protection orders, orders of protection, and all other
records as are necessary to determine their continued accuracy as well
as whether an individual is no longer a valid license holder. The
division of criminal justice services shall also check pending
applications made pursuant to this article against such records to
determine whether a license may be granted. All state and local agencies
shall cooperate with the division of criminal justice services, as
otherwise authorized by law, in making their records available for such
checks. The division of criminal justice services, upon determining that
an individual is ineligible to possess a license, or is no longer a
valid license holder, shall notify the applicable licensing official of
such determination and such licensing official shall not issue a license
or shall revoke such license and any weapons owned or possessed by such
individual shall be removed consistent with the provisions of
subdivision eleven of section 400.00 of this article. Local and state
law enforcement shall have access to such database in the performance of
their duties. Records assembled or collected for purposes of inclusion
in the database established by this section shall be released pursuant
to a court order.
2. There shall be a statewide license and record database specific for
ammunition sales which shall be created and maintained by the division
of state police the cost of which shall not be borne by any municipality
no later than thirty days upon designating the division of state police
as the point of contact to perform both firearm and ammunition
background checks under federal and state law. Records assembled or
collected for purposes of inclusion in such database shall not be
subject to disclosure pursuant to article six of the public officers
law. All records containing granted license applications from all
licensing authorities shall be monthly checked by the division of
criminal justice services in conjunction with the division of state
police against criminal conviction, criminal indictments, mental health,
extreme risk protection orders, orders of protection, and all other
records as are necessary to determine their continued accuracy as well
as whether an individual is no longer a valid license holder. The
division of criminal justice services shall also check pending
applications made pursuant to this article against such records to
determine whether a license may be granted. All state and local agencies
shall cooperate with the division of criminal justice services, as
otherwise authorized by law, in making their records available for such
checks. No later than thirty days after the superintendent of the state
police certifies that the statewide license and record database
established pursuant to this section and the statewide license and
record database established for ammunition sales are operational for the
purposes of this section, a dealer in firearms licensed pursuant to
section 400.00 of this article, a seller of ammunition as defined in
subdivision twenty-four of section 265.00 of this chapter shall not
transfer any ammunition to any other person who is not a dealer in
firearms as defined in subdivision nine of such section 265.00 or a
seller of ammunition as defined in subdivision twenty-four of section
265.00 of this chapter, unless:
(a) before the completion of the transfer, the licensee or seller
contacts the statewide license and record database and provides the
database with information sufficient to identify such dealer or seller
transferee based on information on the transferee's identification
document as defined in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, as well as the
amount, caliber, manufacturer's name and serial number, if any, of such
ammunition;
(b) the licensee or seller is provided with a unique identification
number; and
(c) the transferor has verified the identity of the transferee by
examining a valid state identification document of the transferee issued
by the department of motor vehicles or if the transferee is not a
resident of the state of New York, a valid identification document
issued by the transferee's state or country of residence containing a
photograph of the transferee.
Sellers of ammunition.
1. A seller of ammunition as defined in subdivision twenty-four of
section 265.00 of this chapter shall register with the superintendent of
state police in a manner provided by the superintendent. Any dealer in
firearms that is validly licensed pursuant to section 400.00 of this
article shall not be required to complete such registration.
2. Any seller of ammunition or dealer in firearms shall keep either an
electronic record, or dataset, or an organized collection of structured
information, or data, typically stored electronically in a computer
system approved as to form by the superintendent of state police. In the
record shall be entered at the time of every transaction involving
ammunition the date, name, age, occupation and residence of any person
from whom ammunition is received or to whom ammunition is delivered, and
the amount, calibre, manufacturer's name and serial number, or if none,
any other distinguishing number or identification mark on such
ammunition.
3. No later than thirty days after the superintendent of the state
police certifies that the statewide license and record database
established pursuant to section 400.02 of this article is operational
for the purposes of this section, a dealer in firearms licensed pursuant
to section 400.00 of this article, a seller of ammunition as defined in
subdivision twenty-four of section 265.00 of this chapter shall not
transfer any ammunition to any other person who is not a dealer in
firearms as defined in subdivision nine of such section 265.00 or a
seller of ammunition as defined in subdivision twenty-four of section
265.00 of this chapter, unless:
(a) before the completion of the transfer, the licensee or seller
contacts the statewide license and record database and provides the
database with information sufficient to identify such dealer or seller,
transferee based on information on the transferee's identification
document as defined in paragraph (c) of this subdivision, as well as the
amount, calibre, manufacturer's name and serial number, if any, of such
ammunition;
(b) the system provides the licensee or seller with a unique
identification number; and
(c) the transferor has verified the identity of the transferee by
examining a valid state identification document of the transferee issued
by the department of motor vehicles or if the transferee is not a
resident of the state of New York, a valid identification document
issued by the transferee's state or country of residence containing a
photograph of the transferee.
4. If the database determines that the purchaser of ammunition is
eligible to possess ammunition pursuant to state and federal laws, the
system shall:
(a) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and
(b) provide the licensee or seller with the number.
5. If the statewide license and record database notifies the licensee
or seller that the information available to the database does not
demonstrate that the receipt of ammunition by such other person would
violate 18 U.S.C. 922(g) or state law, and the licensee transfers
ammunition to such other person, the licensee shall indicate to the
database that such transaction has been completed at which point a
record of such transaction shall be created which shall be accessible by
the division of state police and maintained for no longer than one year
from point of purchase, which shall not be incorporated into the
database established pursuant to section 400.02 of this article or the
registry established pursuant to subdivision sixteen-a of section 400.00
of this article. The division of state police may share such information
with a local law enforcement agency. Evidence of the purchase of
ammunition is not sufficient to establish probable cause to believe that
the purchaser has committed a crime absent other information tending to
prove the commission of a crime. Records assembled or accessed pursuant
to this section shall not be subject to disclosure pursuant to article
six of the public officers law. This requirement of this section shall
not apply (i) if a background check cannot be completed because the
system is not operational as determined by the superintendent of state
police, or where it cannot be accessed by the practitioner due to a
temporary technological or electrical failure, as set forth in
regulation, or (ii) a dealer or seller has been granted a waiver from
conducting such background check if the superintendent of state police
determines that such dealer is incapable of such check due to
technological limitations that are not reasonably within the control of
the dealer, or other exceptional circumstances demonstrated by the
dealer, pursuant to a process established in regulation, and at the
discretion of such superintendent.
6. If the superintendent of state police certifies that background
checks of ammunition purchasers may be conducted through the national
instant criminal background check system or through the division of
state police once the division has been designated point of contact, a
dealer or seller shall contact the division of state police to conduct
such check which shall be sufficient to satisfy subdivisions four and
five of this section.
7. No commercial transfer of ammunition shall take place unless a
licensed dealer in firearms or registered seller of ammunition acts as
an intermediary between the transferor and the ultimate transferee of
the ammunition for the purposes of contacting the statewide license and
record database pursuant to this section. Such transfer between the
dealer or seller, and transferee must occur in person.
8. A seller of ammunition who fails to register pursuant to this
section and sells ammunition, for a first offense, shall be guilty of a
violation and subject to the fine of one thousand dollars and for a
second offense, shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
A seller of ammunition that fails to keep any record required pursuant
to this section, for a first offense shall be guilty of a violation and
subject to a fine of five hundred dollars, and for a second offense
shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor, and the registration of such
seller shall be revoked.
Disposition of weapons and dangerous instruments, appliances
and substances.
1. Any weapon, instrument, appliance or substance specified in article
two hundred sixty-five, when unlawfully possessed, manufactured,
transported or disposed of, or when utilized in the commission of an
offense, is hereby declared a nuisance. When the same shall come into
the possession of any police officer or peace officer, it shall be
surrendered immediately to the official mentioned in paragraph (f) of
subdivision one of section 265.20, except that such weapon, instrument,
appliance or substance coming into the possession of the state police
shall be surrendered to the superintendent of state police.
2. The official to whom the weapon, instrument, appliance or substance
which has subsequently been declared a nuisance pursuant to subdivision
one of this section is so surrendered shall, at any time but at least
once each year, destroy the same or cause it to be destroyed, or render
the same or cause it to be rendered ineffective and useless for its
intended purpose and harmless to human life.
3. Notwithstanding subdivision two of this section, the official to
whom the weapon, instrument, appliance or substance is so surrendered
shall not destroy the same if (a) a judge or justice of a court of
record, or a district attorney, shall file with the official a
certificate that the non-destruction thereof is necessary or proper to
serve the ends of justice; or (b) the official directs that the same be
retained in any laboratory conducted by any police or sheriff's
department for the purpose of research, comparison, identification or
other endeavor toward the prevention and detection of crime.
4. In the case of any machine-gun or firearm taken from the possession
of any person, the official to whom such weapon is surrendered pursuant
to subdivision one of this section shall immediately notify the
executive department, division of state police, Albany, giving the
calibre, make, model, manufacturer's name and serial number, or if none,
any other distinguishing number or identification mark. A search of the
files of such division and notification of the results of the search to
such official shall immediately be made.
5. Before any machine-gun or firearm is destroyed pursuant to
subdivision two of this section, (a) the official to whom the same has
been surrendered shall forward to the executive department, division of
state police, Albany, a notice of intent to destroy and the calibre,
make, model, manufacturer's name and serial number, or if none, any
other distinguishing number or identification mark of the machine-gun or
firearm; (b) such division shall make and keep a record of such
description together with the name and address of the official reporting
the same and the date such notice was received; and (c) a search of the
files of such division and notification of the results of the search to
such official shall be made without unnecessary delay.
6. A firearm or other weapon which is surrendered, or is otherwise
voluntarily delivered pursuant to section 265.20 of this chapter and
which has not been declared a nuisance pursuant to subdivision one of
this section, shall be retained by the official to whom it was delivered
for a period not to exceed one year. Prior to the expiration of such
time period, a person who surrenders a firearm shall have the right to
arrange for the sale, or transfer, of such firearm to a dealer in
firearms licensed in accordance with this chapter or for the transfer of
such firearm to himself or herself provided that a license therefor has
been issued in accordance with this chapter. If no lawful disposition of
the firearm or other weapon is made within the time provided, the
firearm or weapon concerned shall be declared a nuisance and shall be
disposed of in accordance with the provisions of this section.
National instant criminal background checks.
1. Any dealer in firearms that sells, delivers or otherwise transfers
any firearm shall contact the division of state police to conduct a
national instant criminal background check pursuant to section two
hundred twenty-eight of the executive law.
2. Failure to comply with the requirements of this section is a class
A misdemeanor.
Report of theft or loss of a firearm, rifle or shotgun.
1. (a) Any owner or other person lawfully in possession of: (i) a
firearm, rifle or, shotgun who suffers the loss or theft of said weapon;
(ii) ammunition as well as a firearm, rifle or shotgun who suffers the
loss or theft of such ammunition as well as a firearm, rifle or shotgun;
or (iii) ammunition and is a dealer in firearms or seller of ammunition
who suffers the loss or theft of such ammunition shall within
twenty-four hours of the discovery of the loss or theft report the facts
and circumstances of the loss or theft to a police department or
sheriff's office.
(b) Whenever a person reports the theft or loss of a firearm, rifle,
shotgun or ammunition to any police department or sheriff's office, the
officer or department receiving such report shall forward notice of such
theft or loss to the division of state police via the New York Statewide
Police Information Network. The notice shall contain information in
compliance with the New York Statewide Police Information Network
Operating Manual, including the caliber, make, model, manufacturer's
name and serial number, if any, and any other distinguishing number or
identification mark on the weapon.
2. The division of state police shall receive, collect and file the
information referred to in subdivision one of this section. The division
shall cooperate, and undertake to furnish or make available to law
enforcement agencies this information, for the purpose of coordinating
law enforcement efforts to locate such weapons.
3. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a violation of
paragraph (a) of subdivision one of this section shall be a class A
misdemeanor.
Waiting period in connection with the sale or transfer of a
rifle or shotgun.
When a national instant criminal background check is required pursuant
to state or federal law to be conducted through the National Instant
Criminal Background Check System (NICS) or its successor in connection
with the sale or transfer of a rifle or shotgun to any person, before
delivering a rifle or shotgun to such person, either (a) NICS has issued
a "proceed" response to the seller or transferor, or (b) thirty calendar
days shall have elapsed since the date the seller or transferor
contacted NICS to initiate a national instant criminal background check
and NICS has not notified the seller or transferor that the transfer of
the rifle or shotgun to such person should be denied.
Application.
Nothing in this article shall be construed to impair or in any way
prevent the enactment or application of any local law, code, ordinance,
rule or regulation that is more restrictive than any requirement set
forth in or established by this article.
ARTICLE 405 Licensing and Other Provisions Relating to Fireworks
Permits for public displays of fireworks.
1. Definition of "permit authority." The term "permit authority," as
used in this section, means and includes the agency authorized to grant
and issue the permits provided in this section. The permit authority on
or within state property shall be the office of fire prevention and
control. The permit authority for territory within a county park shall
be the county park commission, or such other agency having jurisdiction,
control and/or operation of the parks or parkways within which any
fireworks are to be displayed. The permit authority in a city shall be
the duly constituted licensing agency thereof and, in the absence of
such agency, shall be an officer designated for the purpose by the
legislative body thereof. The permit authority in a village shall be an
officer designated for the purpose by the board of trustees thereof and
the permit authority in the territory of a town outside of villages
shall be an officer designated for the purpose by the town board
thereof.
2. Permits for fireworks displays. Notwithstanding the provisions of
section 270.00 of this chapter, the permit authority for state property,
county parks, cities, villages, or towns may grant a permit for the
display of fireworks to municipalities, fair associations, amusement
parks, persons, or organizations of individuals that submit an
application in writing. The application for such permit shall set forth:
(a) The name of the body sponsoring the display and the names of the
persons actually to be in charge of the firing of the display who shall
possess a valid certificate of competence as a pyrotechnician as
required under the general business law and article sixteen of the labor
law. The permit application shall further contain a verified statement
from the applicant identifying the individuals who are authorized to
fire the display including their certificate numbers, and that such
individuals possess a valid certificate of competence as a
pyrotechnician.
(b) The date and time of day at which the display is to be held.
(c) The exact location planned for the display.
(d) The number and kind of fireworks to be discharged.
(e) The manner and place of storage of such fireworks prior to the
display.
(f) A diagram of the grounds on which the display is to be held
showing the point at which the fireworks are to be discharged, the
location of all buildings, highways and other lines of communication,
the lines behind which the audience will be restrained and the location
of all nearby trees, telegraph or telephone lines or other overhead
obstructions.
(g) Such other information as the permit authority may deem necessary
to protect persons or property.
3. Applications for permits. All applications for permits for the
display of fireworks shall be made at least five days in advance of the
date of the display and the permit shall contain provisions that the
actual point at which the fireworks are to be fired be in accordance
with the rules promulgated by the commissioner of labor pursuant to
section four hundred sixty-two of the labor law and that all the persons
in actual charge of firing the fireworks shall be over the age of
eighteen years, competent and physically fit for the task, that there
shall be at least two such operators constantly on duty during the
discharge and that at least two approved type fire extinguishers shall
be kept at as widely separated points as possible within the actual area
of the display. For any applications made for the display of fireworks
on state property, the state fire administrator shall coordinate the
issuance of such permits with the head of the police or fire department
or both, where there are such departments. The legislative body of a
county park, city, village or town may provide for approval of such
permit by the head of the police or fire department or both where there
are such departments. No permit granted and issued hereunder shall be
transferable. After such permit shall have been granted, sales,
possession, use and distribution of fireworks for such display shall be
lawful solely therefor.
3-a. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision three of this
section, no permit may be issued to conduct a display of fireworks upon
any property where the boundary line of such property is less than five
hundred yards from the boundary line of any property which is owned,
leased or operated by any breeder as defined in subdivision four of
section two hundred fifty-one of the racing, pari-mutuel wagering and
breeding law.
4. Bonds. Before granting and issuing a permit for a display of
fireworks as herein provided, the permit authority shall require an
adequate bond from the applicant therefor, unless it is a state entity,
county park, city, village or town, in a sum to be fixed by the permit
authority, which, however, shall not be less than one million dollars,
conditioned for the payment of all damages, which may be caused to a
person or persons or to property, by reason of the display so permitted
and arising from any acts of the permittee, his or her agents,
employees, contractors or subcontractors. Such bond shall run to the
state if the permit is granted for a display on state property, or to
the county park, city, village or town in which the permit is granted
and issued and shall be for the use and benefit of any person or persons
or any owner or owners of any property so injured or damaged, and such
person or persons or such owner or owners are hereby authorized to
maintain an action thereon, which right of action also shall accrue to
the heirs, executors, administrators, successors or assigns of such
person or persons or such owner or owners. The permit authority may
accept, in lieu of such bond, an indemnity insurance policy with
liability coverage and indemnity protection equivalent to the terms and
conditions upon which such bond is predicated and for the purposes
provided in this section.
5. Local ordinances superseded. (a) All local ordinances regulating or
prohibiting the display of fireworks are hereby superseded by the
provisions of this section. Every city, town or village shall have the
power to enact ordinances or local laws regulating or prohibiting the
use, or the storage, transportation or sale for use of fireworks in the
preparation for or in connection with television broadcasts.
(b) Notwithstanding any inconsistent provision of law, a county may
enact a local law to prohibit the sale and use of "sparkling devices",
as such term is defined in section 270.00 of this chapter, provided,
however, any such local law shall not establish:
(i) an offense greater than a violation for a person who shall use,
explode or cause to be exploded a sparkling device; or
(ii) an offense greater than a class B misdemeanor for a person who
shall offer or expose for sale, sell or furnish a sparkling device
valued at less than five hundred dollars unless such offer, sale or
furnishing is to a person less than eighteen years of age.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subdivision, any city wholly
contained within the county of Orange may enact a local law to prohibit
the sale and use of "sparkling devices" as defined in section 270.00 of
this chapter, in accordance with subparagraphs (i) and (ii) of paragraph
(b) of this subdivision, notwithstanding that such county has not
enacted a local law to prohibit the sale and use of such sparkling
devices.
Seizure and destruction of fireworks.
Fireworks possessed unlawfully may be seized by any peace officer,
acting pursuant to his special duties, or police officer, who must
deliver the same to the magistrate before whom the person arrested is
required to be taken. The magistrate must, upon the examination of the
defendant, or if such examination is delayed or prevented, without
awaiting such examination, determine whether the fireworks had been
possessed by the defendant in violation of the provisions of section
270.00; and if he finds that the fireworks had been so possessed by the
defendant, he must cause such fireworks to be destroyed, in a way safe
for the particular type of such fireworks, or to be delivered to the
district attorney of the county in which the defendant is liable to
indictment or trial, as the interests of justice and public safety may,
in his opinion, require. Upon the conviction of the defendant, the
district attorney must cause to be destroyed, in a way safe for the
particular type of such fireworks, the fireworks in respect whereof the
defendant stands convicted, and which remain in the possession or under
the control of the district attorney.
Permits for indoor pyrotechnics.
1. Definitions. For the purposes of this section, the following terms
have the following meanings:
a. Airburst. A pyrotechnic device that is suspended in the air to
simulate outdoor aerial fireworks shells without producing hazardous
debris.
b. Areas of public assembly. All buildings or portions of buildings
used for gathering together fifty or more persons for amusement,
athletic, civic, dining, educational, entertainment, patriotic,
political, recreational, religious, social, or similar purposes, the
entire fire area of which they are a part, and the means of egress
therefrom.
c. Assistant. A person who works under the supervision of the
pyrotechnic operator.
d. Audience. Spectators whose primary purpose is to view a
performance.
e. Building. A combination of any materials, whether portable or
fixed, having a roof, to form a structure affording shelter for persons,
animals, or property. The word "building" shall be construed for the
purposes of this section as though followed by the words "or part or
parts thereof", unless the context clearly requires a different meaning.
f. Concussion mortar. A device specifically designed and constructed
to produce a loud noise and a violent jarring shock for dramatic effect
without producing any damage.
g. Fallout area. The area in which any hazardous debris falls after a
pyrotechnic device is fired. The fallout area is defined as a circle
that, in turn, is defined by the fallout radius.
h. Fallout radius. A line that defines the fallout area of a
pyrotechnic device. The line is defined by two points. The first point
is at the center of a pyrotechnic device. The second point is the point
most distant from the center of the pyrotechnic device at which any
hazardous debris from the device can fall.
i. Fire area. The floor area of a story of a building within exterior
walls, party walls, fire walls, or any combination thereof.
j. Hazardous debris. Any debris, produced or expelled by the
functioning of a pyrotechnic device, that is capable of causing personal
injury or unpredicted property damage. This includes, but is not limited
to, hot sparks, heavy casing fragments, and unignited components.
Materials such as confetti, lightweight foam pieces, feathers, or
novelties are not to be construed as hazardous debris.
k. Owner. Any person, agent, firm, association, limited liability
company, partnership, or corporation having a legal or equitable
interest in the property.
l. Performance. The enactment of a musical, dramatic, operatic, or
other entertainment production. The enactment may begin and progress to
its end according to a script, plan, or other preconceived list of
events, or deviate therefrom. A performance includes any encores.
m. Performer. Any person active in a performance during which
pyrotechnics are used and who is not part of the audience or support
personnel. Among others, performers include, but are not limited to,
actors, singers, musicians, and acrobats.
n. Permit authority. The agency authorized to grant and issue the
permits provided for in this section on or within state property shall
be the office of fire prevention and control, in the territory within a
county park shall be the county park commission, or such other agency
having jurisdiction, control, and/or operation of the parks or parkways
within which any pyrotechnics are to be used, in a city shall be the
duly constituted licensing agency thereof and, in the absence of such
agency, shall be an officer designated for the purpose by the
legislative body thereof, in a village shall be an officer designated
for the purpose by the board of trustees thereof, and, in the territory
of a town outside of villages, shall be an officer designated for the
purpose by the town board thereof.
o. Permittee. (1) The person or persons who are responsible, as
provided in subparagraph two of this paragraph, for obtaining the
necessary permit or permits for the use of indoor pyrotechnics in areas
of public assembly or for a production, or who are responsible for
obtaining such permit or permits under an applicable local law or
ordinance authorized pursuant to subdivision five of this section.
(2) The owner of a place of public assembly or building in which
pyrotechnics are to be used shall be responsible for obtaining such
permit or permits; provided, however, that such owner, in writing, by
agreement or lease, may require or otherwise authorize a lessee,
licensee, pyrotechnic operator, or other party to be responsible for
obtaining such permit or permits, in which case such other party or
parties shall be deemed responsible for obtaining such permit or permits
and shall be the permittee for purposes of this article; provided
further that the structure is otherwise appropriate for such use under
the New York state fire prevention and building code or other such
applicable code.
p. Producer. An individual who has overall responsibility for the
operation and management of the performance where the pyrotechnics are
to be used. Generally, the producer is an employee of the promotion
company, entertainment company, festival, theme park, or other
entertainment group.
q. Production. All the performances of a musical, dramatic, operatic,
or other show or series of shows.
r. Pyrotechnic device. Any device containing pyrotechnic materials and
capable of producing a special effect as defined in this subdivision.
s. Pyrotechnic material (Pyrotechnic special effects material). A
chemical mixture used in the entertainment industry to produce visible
or audible effects by combustion, deflagration, or detonation. Such a
chemical mixture consists predominantly of solids capable of producing a
controlled, self-sustaining, and self-contained exothermic chemical
reaction that results in heat, gas, sound, light, or a combination of
these effects. The chemical reaction functions without external oxygen.
t. Pyrotechnic operator (Special effects operator). An individual who
has responsibility for pyrotechnic safety and who controls, initiates,
or otherwise creates special effects.
u. Pyrotechnic special effect. A special effect created through the
use of pyrotechnic materials and devices.
v. Pyrotechnics. Controlled exothermic chemical reactions that are
timed to create the effects of heat, gas, sound, dispersion of aerosols,
emission of visible electromagnetic radiation, or a combination of these
effects to provide the maximum effect from the least volume.
w. Rocket. A pyrotechnic device that moves by the ejection of matter
produced by the internal combustion of propellants.
x. Special effect. A visual or audible effect used for entertainment
purposes, often produced to create an illusion. For example, smoke might
be produced to create the impression of fog being present, or a puff of
smoke, a flash of light, and a loud sound might be produced to create
the impression that a cannon has been fired.
y. Support personnel. Any individual who is not a performer or member
of the audience. Among others, support personnel include the road crew
of any production, stage hands, property masters, security guards, fire
watch officers, janitors, or any other employee.
z. Venue manager. An individual who has overall responsibility for the
operation and management of the facility where pyrotechnics are to be
used in a performance.
2. Permit requirements. a. All uses of all pyrotechnics in areas of
public assembly shall be approved by the permit authority. The permit
authority shall determine that appropriate measures are established to
provided acceptable crowd management, security, fire protection,
(including sprinklers), and other emergency services. All planning and
use of pyrotechnics shall be coordinated with the venue manager and
producer.
b. Before the performance of any production, the permittee shall
submit a plan for the use of pyrotechnics to the permit authority. After
a permit has been granted, the permittee shall keep the plan available
at the site for safety inspectors or other designated agents of the
permit authority. Any addition of pyrotechnics to a performance or any
significant change in the presentation of pyrotechnics shall require
approval by the permit authority, except that reducing the number or
size of pyrotechnics to be used in a performance shall not be considered
to be a significant change in the presentation.
c. (1) The plan for the use of pyrotechnics shall be made in writing
or such other form as is required or approved by the permit authority.
(2) The plan shall provide the following:
(a) Name of the person, group, organization, or other entity
sponsoring the production.
(b) Date and time of day of the production.
(c) Exact location of the production.
(d) Name of the person actually in charge of firing the pyrotechnics
(i.e., the pyrotechnic operator).
(e) Number, names, and ages of all assistants who are to be present.
(f) Qualifications of the pyrotechnic operator.
(g) Pyrotechnic experience of the operator.
(h) Confirmation of any applicable local, state, and federal licenses
held by the operator or assistant.
(i) Evidence of the permittee's insurance carrier or financial
responsibility.
(j) Number and types of pyrotechnic devices and materials to be used,
the operator's experience with those devices and effects, and a
definition of the general responsibilities of assistants.
(k) Diagram of the grounds or facilities where the production is to be
held. This diagram shall show the point at which the pyrotechnic devices
are to be fired, the fallout radius for each pyrotechnic device used in
the performance, the lines behind which the audience shall be
restrained, and the placement of sprinkler systems.
(l) Point of on-site assembly of pyrotechnic devices.
(m) Manner and place of storage of the pyrotechnic materials and
devices.
(n) Material safety data sheet (MSDS) for the pyrotechnic materials to
be used.
(o) Certification that the set, scenery, and rigging materials are
inherently flame-retardant or have been treated to achieve flame
retardancy.
(p) Certification that all materials worn by performers in the fallout
area during use of pyrotechnic effects shall be inherently
flame-retardant or have been treated to achieve flame retardancy.
(3) All plans shall be submitted as soon as is possible so that the
permit authority has time to be present and to notify other interested
parties. In no event shall such advance notice be less than five
business days.
d. A walk-through and a representative demonstration of the
pyrotechnics shall be approved by the permit authority before a permit
is approved. The permit authority may waive this requirement based on
past history, prior knowledge, and other factors; provided that the
authority is confident that the discharge of pyrotechnics can be
conducted safely. The demonstration shall be scheduled with sufficient
time allowed to reset/reload the pyrotechnics before the arrival of the
audience.
e. All pyrotechnic operators shall be at least twenty-one years old
and licensed or approved by the permit authority in accordance with all
applicable laws, if any. All assistants shall be at least eighteen years
old.
3. Conduct of pyrotechnic performances. a. Two or more fire
extinguishers of the proper classification and size as approved by the
permit authority shall be readily accessible while the pyrotechnics are
being loaded, prepared for firing, or fired. In all cases, at least two
pressurized water or pump extinguishers shall be available. Additional
fire extinguishing equipment shall be provided as required by the permit
authority. Personnel who have a working knowledge of the use of the
applicable fire extinguishers shall be present while the pyrotechnics
are being handled, used, or removed. No personnel shall use or handle
pyrotechnic materials or devices while under the influence of
intoxicating beverages, narcotics, controlled substances, and
prescription or nonprescription drugs that can impair judgment. Fire
detection and life safety systems shall not be interrupted during the
operation of pyrotechnic effects.
b. (1) All pyrotechnic devices shall be mounted in a secure manner to
maintain their proper positions and orientations so that, when they are
fired, the pyrotechnic effects described in the plan submitted by the
permittee are produced. Pyrotechnic devices shall be mounted so that no
fallout from the device endangers human lives, results in personal
injury, or damages property. Pyrotechnic materials shall be fired only
from equipment specifically constructed for the purpose of firing
pyrotechnic materials. The pyrotechnic operator shall be responsible for
selecting equipment and materials that are compatible.
(2) Where rockets are launched before an audience, performers, or
support personnel, the rockets shall be attached securely to a guide
wire or cable with both ends securely attached and placed on an
impact-resistant surface located at the terminal end of the guide. This
guide wire or cable shall be of sufficient strength and flame resistance
to withstand the exhaust from the rocket. An effective arrangement to
stop the rocket shall be provided.
(3) Pyrotechnics shall be: (a) placed so that any hazardous debris
falls into a safe, flame-resistant area; (b) fired so that the
trajectory of their pyrotechnic material is not carried over the
audience; and (c) placed for firing so that no flammable materials are
within their fallout area.
(4) Pyrotechnic devices and materials used indoors shall be
specifically manufactured and marked for indoor use by the manufacturer.
(5) Airbursts shall be permitted to be fired above the assembled
audience, subject to the following conditions:
(a) The airburst shall be suspended by a minimum 30-gauge metal wire
that is attached securely to a secure support acceptable to the
authority having jurisdiction.
(b) The airburst shall occur at a minimum height of three times the
diameter of the effect.
(c) Where the effect is demonstrated, there shall be no burning or
glowing particles below the fifteen-foot level above the floor.
c. Each pyrotechnic device fired during a performance shall be
separated from the audience by at least fifteen feet but not by less
than twice the fallout radius of the device. Concussion mortars shall be
separated from the audience by a minimum of twenty-five feet. There
shall be no glowing or flaming particles within ten feet of the
audience.
d. (1) The facility where pyrotechnic materials and devices are
handled and used shall be maintained in a neat and orderly condition and
shall be kept free of any conditions that can create a fire hazard.
(2) Smoking shall not be permitted within twenty-five feet of the area
where pyrotechnics are being handled or fired; provided that smoking by
performers as part of the performance shall be permitted as blocked in
rehearsals and if expressly approved by the pyrotechnic operator and the
permit authority.
e. (1) The pyrotechnic effect operator shall advise all performers and
support personnel that they are exposed to a potentially hazardous
situation when performing or otherwise carrying out their
responsibilities in the vicinity of a pyrotechnic effect. Performers and
support personnel familiar and experienced with the pyrotechnic effects
being used shall be permitted to be in the area of a pyrotechnic effect,
but only voluntarily and in the performance of their duties.
(2) No part, projectile, or debris from the pyrotechnic material or
device shall be propelled so that it damages overhead properties,
overhead equipment, or the ceiling and walls of the facility.
(3) Immediately before any performance, the pyrotechnic operator shall
make a final check of wiring, positions, hook-ups, and pyrotechnic
devices to ensure that they are in proper working order. The pyrotechnic
operator also shall verify safety distances.
(4) The placement and wiring of all pyrotechnic devices shall be
designed to minimize the possibility of performers and support personnel
disturbing the devices during a performance.
(5) The pyrotechnic operator shall exercise extreme care throughout
the performance to ensure that the pyrotechnic devices function
correctly and that the performers, support personnel, and audience are
clear of the devices.
(6) When pyrotechnics are fired, the quantity of smoke developed shall
be controlled so as not to obscure the visibility of exit signs or paths
of egress.
4. Bonds. Before granting and issuing a permit for a use of
pyrotechnics as provided in this section, the permit authority shall
require an adequate bond from the applicant therefor, unless such
applicant is a state entity, county park, city, village, or town, or
from the person to whom a contract for such use shall be awarded, in a
sum to be fixed by the permit authority, which, however, shall not be
less than five hundred thousand dollars, conditioned for the payment of
all damages which may be caused to a person or persons or to property by
reason of the use so permitted and arising from any acts of the
permittee, his or her agents, employees, contractors, or subcontractors.
Such bond shall run to the owner of the facility for which the permit is
granted and issued and shall be for the use and benefit of any person or
persons or any owner or owners of any property so injured or damaged,
and such person or persons or such owner or owners are hereby authorized
to maintain an action thereon, which right of action also shall accrue
to the heirs, executors, administrators, successors, or assigns of such
person or persons or such owner or owners. The permit authority may
accept, in lieu of such bond, an indemnity insurance policy with
liability coverage and indemnity protection equivalent to the terms and
conditions upon which such bond is predicated and for the purposes
herein provided.
5. Local laws or ordinances superseded. All local laws or ordinances
regulating the use of pyrotechnics within the contemplation of this
section are hereby superseded by the provisions of this section, with
the exception of:
a. all laws or ordinances enacted by a city of one million or more;
and
b. other local laws or ordinances that prohibit the use of indoor
pyrotechnics.
Unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree.
A person is guilty of unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the
second degree when he or she is responsible for obtaining a necessary
permit to use indoor pyrotechnics, as required by paragraph o of
subdivision one of section 405.10 of this article, and, without
obtaining such permit or knowing that he or she is not in compliance
with the terms of a permit, he or she intentionally ignites or detonates
pyrotechnics for which such permit is required, or knowingly permits
another to ignite or detonate such pyrotechnics, in a building, as
defined in paragraph e of subdivision one of section 405.10 of this
article.
Unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree is a class
A misdemeanor.
Unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first degree.
A person is guilty of unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the
first degree when he or she commits the crime of unpermitted use of
indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree, as defined in section 405.12
of this article, and, within the previous five year period, he or she
has been convicted one or more times of the crime of unpermitted use of
indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree, as defined in section 405.12
of this article, or unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first
degree, as defined in this section.
Unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first degree is a class
E felony.
Aggravated unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated unpermitted use of indoor
pyrotechnics in the second degree when he or she commits the crime of
unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree, as defined
in section 405.12 of this article, and, by means of igniting or
detonating such indoor pyrotechnics, he or she recklessly: (1) causes
physical injury to another person; or (2) damages the property of
another person in an amount that exceeds two hundred fifty dollars.
Aggravated unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree
is a class E felony.
Aggravated unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of aggravated unpermitted use of indoor
pyrotechnics in the first degree when he or she commits the crime of
unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the second degree, as defined
in section 405.12 of this article, and, by means of igniting or
detonating such indoor pyrotechnics, he or she recklessly causes serious
physical injury or death to another person.
Aggravated unpermitted use of indoor pyrotechnics in the first degree
is a class D felony.
ARTICLE 410 Seizure and Forfeiture of Equipment Used In Promoting Pornography
Seizure and forfeiture of equipment used in photographing,
filming, producing, manufacturing, projecting or distributing
pornographic still or motion pictures.
1. Any peace officer, acting pursuant to his special duties, or police
officer of this state may seize any equipment used in the photographing,
filming, printing, producing, manufacturing or projecting of
pornographic still or motion pictures and may seize any vehicle or other
means of transportation, other than a vehicle or other means of
transportation used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction
of business as such common carrier, used in the distribution of such
obscene prints and articles and such equipment or vehicle or other means
of transportation shall be subject to forfeiture as hereinafter in this
section provided.
2. The seized property shall be delivered by the police officer or
peace officer having made the seizure to the custody of the district
attorney of the county wherein the seizure was made, except that in the
cities of New York, Yonkers and Buffalo, the seized property shall be
delivered to the custody of the police department of such cities,
together with a report of all the facts and circumstances of the
seizure.
3. It shall be the duty of the district attorney of the county wherein
the seizure was made, if elsewhere than in the cities of New York or
Buffalo, and where the seizure is made in either such city it shall be
the duty of the corporation counsel of the city, to inquire into the
facts of the seizure so reported to him and if it appears probable that
a forfeiture has been incurred, for the determination of which the
institution of proceedings in the supreme court is necessary, to cause
the proper proceedings to be commenced and prosecuted, at any time after
thirty days from the date of seizure, to declare such forfeiture,
unless, upon inquiry and examination such district attorney or
corporation counsel decides that such proceedings can not probably be
sustained or that the ends of public justice do not require that they
should be instituted or prosecuted, in which case, the district attorney
or corporation counsel shall cause such seized property to be returned
to the owner thereof.
4. Notice of the institution of the forfeiture proceeding shall be
served either (a) personally on the owners of the seized property or (b)
by registered mail to the owners' last known address and by publication
of the notice once a week for two successive weeks in a newspaper
published or circulated in the county wherein the seizure was made.
5. Forfeiture shall not be adjudged where the owners established by
preponderance of the evidence that (a) the use of such seized property
was not intentional on the part of any owner, or (b) said seized
property was used by any person other than an owner thereof, while such
seized property was unlawfully in the possession of a person who
acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal laws of the
United States, or of any state.
6. The district attorney or the police department having custody of
the seized property, after such judicial determination of forfeiture,
shall, by a public notice of at least five days, sell such forfeited
property at public sale. The net proceeds of any such sale, after
deduction of the lawful expenses incurred, shall be paid into the
general fund of the county wherein the seizure was made except that the
net proceeds of the sale of property seized in the cities of New York
and Buffalo shall be paid into the respective general funds of such
cities.
7. Whenever any person interested in any property which is seized and
declared forfeited under the provisions of this section files with a
justice of the supreme court a petition for the recovery of such
forfeited property, the justice of the supreme court may restore said
forfeited property upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable
and just, if the petitioner establishes either of the affirmative
defenses set forth in subdivision five of this section and that the
petitioner was without personal or actual knowledge of the forfeiture
proceeding. If the petition be filed after the sale of the forfeited
property, any judgment in favor of the petitioner shall be limited to
the net proceeds of such sale, after deduction of the lawful expenses
and costs incurred by the district attorney, police department or
corporation counsel.
8. No suit or action under this section for wrongful seizure shall be
instituted unless such suit or action is commenced within two years
after the time when the property was seized.
9. For the purposes of this section only, a pornographic still or
motion picture, is defined as a still or motion picture showing acts of
sexual intercourse or acts of sexual perversion. This section shall not
be construed as applying to bona fide medical photographs or films.
ARTICLE 415 Seizure and Forfeiture of Vehicles, Vessels and Aircraft Used to Transport or Conceal Gambling Records
Seizure and forfeiture of vehicles, vessels and aircraft used
to transport or conceal gambling records.
1. It shall be unlawful to transport, carry, convey or conceal in,
upon or by means of any vehicle, vessel or aircraft, with knowledge of
the contents thereof, any writing, paper, instrument or article:
(a) Of a kind commonly used in the operation or promotion of a
bookmaking scheme or enterprise, and constituting, reflecting or
representing more than five bets totaling more than five thousand
dollars; or
(b) Of a kind commonly used in the operation, promotion or playing of
a lottery or policy scheme or enterprise, and constituting, reflecting
or representing more than five hundred plays or chances therein.
2. Any vehicle, vessel or aircraft which has been or is being used in
violation of subdivision one by a person other than a bettor, player or
shareholder whose bets, plays or shares are represented by all such
writings, papers, instruments or articles, shall be seized by any peace
officer, who is acting pursuant to his special duties, or police
officer, and forfeited as provided in this section. However, such
forfeiture and seizure provisions shall not apply to any vehicle, vessel
or aircraft used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of
business as such common carrier.
3. The seized property shall be delivered by the police officer or
peace officer having made the seizure to the custody of the district
attorney of the county wherein the seizure was made, except that in the
cities of New York, Yonkers and Buffalo, the seized property shall be
delivered to the custody of the police department of such cities,
together with a report of all the facts and circumstances of the
seizure.
4. It shall be the duty of the district attorney of the county wherein
the seizure is made, if elsewhere than in the cities of New York,
Yonkers or Buffalo, and where the seizure is made in either such city it
shall be the duty of the corporation counsel of the city, to inquire
into the facts of the seizure so reported to him and if it appears
probable that a forfeiture has been incurred by reason of a violation of
this section, for the determination of which the institution of
proceedings in the supreme court is necessary, to cause the proper
proceedings to be commenced and prosecuted, at any time after thirty
days from the date of seizure, to declare such forfeiture, unless, upon
inquiry and examination, such district attorney or corporation counsel
decides that such proceedings can not probably be sustained or that the
ends of public justice do not require that they should be instituted or
prosecuted, in which case, the district attorney or corporation counsel
shall cause such seized property to be returned to the owner thereof.
5. Notice of the institution of the forfeiture proceeding shall be
served either (a) personally on the owners of the seized property, or
(b) by registered mail to the owners' last known address and by
publication of the notice once a week for two successive weeks in a
newspaper published or circulated in the county wherein the seizure was
made.
6. Forfeiture shall not be adjudged where the owners establish by
preponderance of the evidence that (a) the use of such seized property,
in violation of subdivision one of this section, was not intentional on
the part of any owner, or (b) said seized property was used in violation
of subdivision one of this section by any person other than an owner
thereof, while such seized property was unlawfully in the possession of
a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal
laws of the United States, or of any state.
7. The district attorney or the police department having custody of
the seized property, after such judicial determination of forfeiture,
shall, at their discretion, either retain such seized property for the
official use of their office or department, or, by a public notice of at
least five days, sell such forfeited property at public sale. The net
proceeds of any such sale, after deduction of the lawful expenses
incurred, shall be paid into the general fund of the county wherein the
seizure was made except that the net proceeds of the sale of property
seized in the cities of New York, Yonkers and Buffalo shall be paid into
the respective general funds of such cities.
8. Whenever any person interested in any property which is seized and
declared forfeited under the provisions of this section files with a
justice of the supreme court a petition for the recovery of such
forfeited property, the justice of the supreme court may restore said
forfeited property upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable
and just, if the petitioner establishes either of the affirmative
defenses set forth in subdivision six of this section and that the
petitioner was without personal or actual knowledge of the forfeiture
proceeding. If the petition be filed after the sale of the forfeited
property, any judgment in favor of the petitioner shall be limited to
the net proceeds of such sale after deduction of the lawful expenses and
costs incurred by the district attorney, police department or
corporation counsel.
9. No suit or action under this section for wrongful seizure shall be
instituted unless such suit or action is commenced within two years
after the time when the property was seized.
ARTICLE 420 Seizure and Destruction of Unauthorized Recordings of Sound and Forfeiture of Equipment Used In the Production Thereof
Seizure and destruction of unauthorized recordings.
Any article produced in violation of article two hundred seventy-five
of this chapter may be seized by any police officer upon the arrest of
any individual in possession of same. Upon final determination of the
charges, the court shall, upon proper notice by the district attorney or
representative of the crime victim or victims, after prior notice to the
district attorney and custodian of the seized property, enter an order
preserving any goods manufactured, sold, offered for sale, distributed
or produced in violation of this article, as evidence for use in other
cases, including a civil action. This notice must be received within
thirty days of final determination of the charges. The cost of storage,
security, and destruction of goods so ordered for preservation and use
as evidence in a civil action, other than a civil action under article
thirteen-A of the civil practice law and rules initiated by the district
attorney, shall be paid by the party seeking preservation of the
evidence for a civil action. If no such order is entered within the
thirty day period, the district attorney or custodian of the seized
property must cause such articles to be destroyed. Destruction shall not
include auction, sale, or distribution of the items in their original
form.
Seizure and forfeiture of equipment used in the production of
unauthorized recordings.
1. Any police officer of this state may seize any equipment, or
components, used in the manufacture or production of unauthorized
recordings and may seize any vehicle or other means of transportation,
other than a vehicle or means of transportation used by any person as a
common carrier in the transaction of business as such common carrier,
used in the distribution of such unauthorized recordings and such
equipment or vehicle or other means of transportation shall be subject
to forfeiture as provided in this section.
2. The seized property shall be delivered by the police officer having
made the seizure to the custody of the district attorney of the county
wherein the seizure was made, except that in the cities of New York,
Yonkers and Buffalo, the seized property shall be delivered to the
custody of the police department of such cities, together with a report
of all the facts and circumstances of the seizure.
3. It shall be the duty of the district attorney of the county wherein
the seizure was made, if elsewhere than in the city of New York, Yonkers
or Buffalo, and where the seizure is made in either such city, it shall
be the duty of the corporation counsel of the city, to inquire into the
facts of the seizure so reported to him and if it appears probable that
a forfeiture has been incurred for the determination of which the
institution of proceedings in the supreme court is necessary, to cause
the proper proceedings to be commenced and prosecuted, at any time after
thirty days from the date of seizure, to declare such forfeiture,
unless, upon inquiry and examination such district attorney or
corporation counsel decides that such proceedings cannot probably be
sustained or that the ends of public justice do not require that they
should be instituted or prosecuted, in which case, the district attorney
or corporation counsel shall cause such seized property to be returned
to the owner thereof.
4. Notice of the institution of the forfeiture proceeding shall be
served either:
(a) personally on the owners of the seized property; or
(b) by registered mail to the owners' last known address and by
publication of the notice once a week for two successive weeks in a
newspaper published or circulated in the county wherein the seizure was
made.
5. Forfeiture shall not be adjudged where the owners established by
preponderance of the evidence that:
(a) the use of such seized property was not intentional on the part of
any owner; or
(b) said seized property was used by any person other than an owner
thereof, while such seized property was unlawfully in the possession of
a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal
laws of the United States, or of any state.
6. The district attorney or the police department having custody of
the seized property, after such judicial determination of forfeiture,
shall, by a public notice of at least five days, sell such forfeited
property at public sale. The net proceeds of any such sale, after
deduction of the lawful expenses incurred, shall be paid into the
general fund of the county wherein the seizure was made except that the
net proceeds of the sale of property seized in the cities of New York,
Yonkers and Buffalo shall be paid into the respective general funds of
such cities.
7. Whenever any person interested in any property which is seized and
declared forfeited under the provisions of this section files with a
justice of the supreme court a petition for the recovery of such
forfeited property, the justice of the supreme court may restore said
forfeited property upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable
and just, if the petitioner establishes either of the affirmative
defenses set forth in subdivision five of this section and that the
petitioner was without personal or actual knowledge of the forfeiture
proceeding. If the petition be filed after the sale of the forfeited
property, any judgment in favor of the petitioner shall be limited to
the net proceeds of such sale, after deduction of the lawful expenses
and costs incurred by the district attorney, police department or
corporation counsel.
8. No suit or action under this section for wrongful seizure shall be
instituted unless such suit or action is commenced within two years
after the time when the property was seized.
ARTICLE 450 Disposal of Stolen Property
Disposal of stolen property.
1. When property, other than contraband including but not limited to
those items subject to the provisions of sections 410.00, 415.00, 420.00
and 420.05 of this chapter, alleged to have been stolen is in the
custody of a police officer, a peace officer or a district attorney and
a request for its release is made prior to or during the criminal
proceeding, it may not be released except as provided in subdivisions
two, three and four of this section. When a request is made for the
return of stolen property under this section, the police officer, peace
officer or district attorney in possession of such property must provide
written notice to the defendant or his counsel of such request as soon
as practicable. Such notice shall advise the defendant or his counsel of
the date on which the property will be released and the name and address
of a person with whom arrangements can be made for the examination,
testing, photographing, photocopying or other reproduction of said
property.
2. Both the defendant's counsel and the prosecutor thereafter shall
make a diligent effort to examine, test and photograph, photocopy or
otherwise reproduce the property. Either party may apply to the court
for an extension of any period allowed for examination, testing,
photographing, photocopying or otherwise reproducing the property. For
good cause shown the court may order retention of the property for use
as evidence by either party. Unless extended by a court order sought by
either party on notice to the other, the property shall be released no
later than the time periods for retention set forth in subdivisions
three and four of this section to the person making such request after
satisfactory proof of such person's entitlement to the possession
thereof. Unless a court, upon applicaton of either party with notice to
the other, orders otherwise, the release of property in accordance with
the provisions of this section shall be unconditional.
3. Except as provided in subdivision four of this section, when a
request is made for the release of property described in subdivision one
of this section, the property shall be retained until either the
expiration of a fifteen day period from receipt by the defendant or his
counsel of the notice of the request, or the examination testing and
photographing, photocopying or other reproduction of such property, by
the parties, whichever event occurs first. The fifteen day period may be
extended by up to five additional days by agreement between the parties.
4. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this
subdivision and in subdivision eleven of this section, when a request is
made for the release of property described in subdivision one of this
section, and the property shall consist of perishables, fungible retail
items, motor vehicles or any other property release of which is
necessary for either the operation of a business or the health or
welfare of any person, the property shall be retained until either the
expiration of a forty-eight hour period from the receipt by the
defendant's counsel of the notice of the request, or the examination,
testing and photocopying, photographing or other reproduction of such
property, by the parties whichever event occurs first. The forty-eight
hour period may be extended by up to twenty-four additional hours by
agreement between the parties. For the purposes of this section,
perishables shall mean any property likely to spoil or decay or diminish
significantly in value within twenty days of the initial retention of
the property.
(b) If, upon oral or written application by the district attorney with
notice to the defendant or his counsel, a court determines that
immediate release of property described in paragraph (a) of this
subdivision is required under the attendant circumstances, the court
shall issue an order releasing the property and, if requested by either
party, setting, as a part of such order, any condition appropriate in
the furtherance of justice.
(c) A motor vehicle alleged to have been stolen but not alleged to
have been used in connection with any crime or criminal transaction
other than the theft or unlawful use of said motor vehicle, which is in
the custody of a police officer, a peace officer or a district attorney,
may be released expeditiously to its registered owner or the owner's
representative without prior notice to the defendant. Before such
release, evidentiary photographs shall be taken of such motor vehicle.
Such photographs shall include the vehicle identification number,
registration on windshield, license plates, each side of the vehicle,
including vent windows, door locks and handles, the front and back of
the vehicle, the interior of the vehicle, including ignition lock, seat
to floor clearance, center console, radio receptacle and dashboard area,
the motor, and any other interior or exterior surfaces showing any and
all damage to the vehicle. Notice of such release, and the photographs
taken of said vehicle, shall be furnished to the defendant within
fifteen days after arraignment or after counsel initially appears on
behalf of the defendant or respondent, whichever occurs later.
5. If stolen property comes into the custody of a court, it must,
unless temporary retention be deemed necessary in furtherance of
justice, be delivered to the owner, on satisfactory proof of his title,
and on his paying the necessary expenses incurred in its preservation,
to be certified by the court.
6. If stolen property has not been delivered to the owner, the court
before which a trial is had for stealing it, may, on proof of his title,
order it to be restored to the owner.
7. If stolen property is not claimed by the owner, before the
expiration of six months from the conviction of a person for stealing
it, the court or other officer having it in custody must, on payment of
the necessary expenses incurred in its preservation, deliver it to the
county commissioner of social services, or in the city of New York, to
the commissioner of social services, to be applied for the benefit of
the poor of the county or city, as the case may be.
8. Except in the city of New York, when money or other property is
taken from a defendant, arrested upon a charge of an offense, the
officer taking it must, at the time, give duplicate receipts therefor,
specifying particularly the amount of property taken, one of which
receipts he must deliver to the defendant, and the other of which he
must forthwith file with the court in which the criminal action is
pending.
9. The commissioners of police of the city of New York may designate
some person to take charge of all property alleged to be stolen, and
which may be brought into the police office, and all property taken from
the person of a prisoner, and may prescribe regulations in regard to the
duties of the clerk or clerks so designated, and to require and take
security for the faithful performance of the duties imposed by this
subdivision, and it shall be the duty of every officer into whose
possession such property may come, to deliver the same forthwith to the
person so designated.
10. Where there has been a failure to comply with the provisions of
this section, and where the district attorney does not demonstrate to
the satisfaction of the court that such failure has not caused the
defendant prejudice, the court shall instruct the jury that it may
consider such failure in determining the weight to be given such
evidence and may also impose any other sanction set forth in subdivision
one of section 245.80 of the criminal procedure law; provided, however,
that unless the defendant has convinced the court that such failure has
caused him undue prejudice, the court shall not preclude the district
attorney from introducing into evidence the property, photographs,
photocopies, or other reproductions of the property or, where
appropriate, testimony concerning its value and condition, where such
evidence is otherwise properly authenticated and admissible under the
rules of evidence. Failure to comply with any one or more of the
provisions of this section shall not for that reason alone be grounds
for dismissal of the accusatory instrument.
11. When a request for the release of stolen property is made pursuant
to paragraph (a) of subdivision four of this section and the defendant
is not represented by counsel the notice required pursuant to
subdivision one of this section shall be personally delivered to the
defendant and release of said property shall not occur for a period less
than five days: from (a) the delivery of such notice; or (b) in the case
of delivery to such person in custody, from the first appearance before
the court, whichever is later.
TITLE X Organized Crime Control Act
ARTICLE 460 Enterprise Corruption
Legislative findings.
The legislature finds and determines as follows:
Organized crime in New York state involves highly sophisticated,
complex and widespread forms of criminal activity. The diversified
illegal conduct engaged in by organized crime, rooted in the illegal use
of force, fraud, and corruption, constitutes a major drain upon the
state's economy, costs citizens and businesses of the state billions of
dollars each year, and threatens the peace, security and general welfare
of the people of the state.
Organized crime continues to expand its corrosive influence in the
state through illegal enterprises engaged in such criminal endeavors as
the theft and fencing of property, the importation and distribution of
narcotics and other dangerous drugs, arson for profit, hijacking, labor
racketeering, loansharking, extortion and bribery, the illegal disposal
of hazardous wastes, syndicated gambling, trafficking in stolen
securities, insurance and investment frauds, and other forms of economic
and social exploitation.
The money and power derived by organized crime through its illegal
enterprises and endeavors is increasingly being used to infiltrate and
corrupt businesses, unions and other legitimate enterprises and to
corrupt our democratic processes. This infiltration takes several forms
with legitimate enterprises being employed as instrumentalities, injured
as victims, or taken as prizes. Through such infiltration the power of
an enterprise can be diverted to criminal ends, its resources looted, or
it can be taken over entirely, either on paper or de facto. Thus, for
purposes of making both criminal and civil remedies available to deal
with the corruption of such enterprises, the concept of criminal
enterprise should not be limited to traditional criminal syndicates or
crime families, and may include persons who join together in a criminal
enterprise, as defined by subdivision three of section 460.10 of this
article, for the purpose of corrupting such legitimate enterprises or
infiltrating and illicitly influencing industries.
One major cause of the continuing growth of organized criminal
activities within the state is the inadequacy and limited nature of
sanctions and remedies available to state and local law enforcement
officials to deal with this intricate and varied criminal conduct.
Existing penal law provisions are primarily concerned with the
commission of specific and limited criminal acts without regard to the
relationships of particular criminal acts or the illegal profits derived
therefrom, to legitimate or illicit enterprises operated or controlled
by organized crime. Further, traditional penal law provisions only
provide for the imposition of conventional criminal penalties, including
imprisonment, fines and probation, for entrenched organized crime
enterprises. Such penalties are not adequate to enable the state to
effectively fight organized crime. Instead, new penal prohibitions and
enhanced sanctions, and new civil and criminal remedies are necessary to
deal with the unlawful activities of persons and enterprises engaged in
organized crime. Comprehensive statutes enacted at the federal level
and in a number of other states with significant organized crime
problems, have provided law enforcement agencies with an effective tool
to fight organized crime. Such laws permit law enforcement authorities
(i) to charge and prove patterns of criminal activity and their
connection to ongoing enterprises, legitimate or illegal, that are
controlled or operated by organized crime, and (ii) to apply criminal
and civil penalties designed to prevent and eliminate organized crime's
involvement with such enterprises. The organized crime control act is a
statute of comparable purpose but tempered by reasonable limitations on
its applicability, and by due regard for the rights of innocent persons.
Because of its more rigorous definitions, this act will not apply to
some situations encompassed within comparable statutes in other
jurisdictions. This act is vital to the peace, security and general
welfare of the state.
In part because of its highly diverse nature, it is impossible to
precisely define what organized crime is. This article, however, does
attempt to define and criminalize what organized crime does. This
article focuses upon criminal enterprises because their sophistication
and organization make them more effective at their criminal purposes and
because their structure and insulation protect their leadership from
detection and prosecution.
At the same time, this article is not intended to be employed to
prosecute relatively minor or isolated acts of criminality which, while
related to an enterprise and arguably part of a pattern as defined in
this article, can be adequately and more fairly prosecuted as separate
offenses. Similarly, particular defendants may play so minor a role in a
criminal enterprise that their culpability would be unfairly distorted
by prosecution and punishment for participation in the enterprise.
The balance intended to be struck by this act cannot readily be
codified in the form of restrictive definitions or a categorical list of
exceptions. General, yet carefully drawn definitions of the terms
"pattern of criminal activity" and "criminal enterprise" have been
employed. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5.00 of this
chapter these definitions should be given their plain meaning, and
should not be construed either liberally or strictly, but in the context
of the legislative purposes set forth in these findings. Within the
confines of these and other applicable definitions, discretion ought
still be exercised. Once the letter of the law is complied with,
including the essential showing that there is a pattern of conduct which
is criminal under existing statutes, the question whether to prosecute
under those statutes or for the pattern itself is essentially one of
fairness. The answer will depend on the particular situation, and is
best addressed by those institutions of government which have
traditionally exercised that function: the grand jury, the public
prosecutor, and an independent judiciary.
Definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article.
1. "Criminal act" means conduct constituting any of the following
crimes, or conspiracy or attempt to commit any of the following
felonies:
(a) Any of the felonies set forth in this chapter: sections 120.05,
120.10 and 120.11 relating to assault; sections 121.12 and 121.13
relating to strangulation; sections 125.10 to 125.27 relating to
homicide; sections 130.25, 130.30 and 130.35 relating to rape; sections
135.20 and 135.25 relating to kidnapping; sections 135.35 and 135.37
relating to labor trafficking; section 135.65 relating to coercion;
sections 140.20, 140.25 and 140.30 relating to burglary; sections
145.05, 145.10 and 145.12 relating to criminal mischief; article one
hundred fifty relating to arson; sections 155.30, 155.35, 155.40 and
155.42 relating to grand larceny; sections 177.10, 177.15, 177.20 and
177.25 relating to health care fraud; article one hundred sixty relating
to robbery; sections 165.45, 165.50, 165.52 and 165.54 relating to
criminal possession of stolen property; sections 165.72 and 165.73
relating to trademark counterfeiting; sections 170.10, 170.15, 170.25,
170.30, 170.40, 170.65 and 170.70 relating to forgery; sections 175.10,
175.25, 175.35, 175.40 and 210.40 relating to false statements; sections
176.15, 176.20, 176.25 and 176.30 relating to insurance fraud; sections
178.20 and 178.25 relating to criminal diversion of prescription
medications and prescriptions; sections 180.03, 180.08, 180.15, 180.25,
180.40, 180.45, 200.00, 200.03, 200.04, 200.10, 200.11, 200.12, 200.20,
200.22, 200.25, 200.27, 200.56, 215.00, 215.05 and 215.19 relating to
bribery; sections 187.10, 187.15, 187.20 and 187.25 relating to
residential mortgage fraud, sections 190.40 and 190.42 relating to
criminal usury; section 190.65 relating to schemes to defraud; any
felony defined in article four hundred ninety-six; sections 205.60 and
205.65 relating to hindering prosecution; sections 210.10, 210.15, and
215.51 relating to perjury and contempt; section 215.40 relating to
tampering with physical evidence; sections 220.06, 220.09, 220.16,
220.18, 220.21, 220.31, 220.34, 220.39, 220.41, 220.43, 220.46, 220.55,
220.60, 220.65 and 220.77 relating to controlled substances; sections
225.10 and 225.20 relating to gambling; sections 230.25, 230.30, and
230.32 relating to promoting prostitution; section 230.34 relating to
sex trafficking; section 230.34-a relating to sex trafficking of a
child; sections 235.06, 235.07, 235.21 and 235.22 relating to obscenity;
sections 263.10 and 263.15 relating to promoting a sexual performance by
a child; sections 265.02, 265.03, 265.04, 265.11, 265.12, 265.13 and the
provisions of section 265.10 which constitute a felony relating to
firearms and other dangerous weapons; sections 265.14 and 265.16
relating to criminal sale of a firearm; section 265.50 relating to the
criminal manufacture, sale or transport of an undetectable firearm,
rifle or shotgun; section 275.10, 275.20, 275.30, or 275.40 relating to
unauthorized recordings; and sections 470.05, 470.10, 470.15 and 470.20
relating to money laundering; or
(b) Any felony set forth elsewhere in the laws of this state and
defined by the tax law relating to alcoholic beverage, cigarette,
gasoline and similar motor fuel taxes; article seventy-one of the
environmental conservation law relating to water pollution, hazardous
waste or substances hazardous or acutely hazardous to public health or
safety of the environment; article twenty-three-A of the general
business law relating to prohibited acts concerning stocks, bonds and
other securities, article twenty-two of the general business law
concerning monopolies.
2. "Enterprise" means either an enterprise as defined in subdivision
one of section 175.00 of this chapter or criminal enterprise as defined
in subdivision three of this section.
3. "Criminal enterprise" means a group of persons sharing a common
purpose of engaging in criminal conduct, associated in an ascertainable
structure distinct from a pattern of criminal activity, and with a
continuity of existence, structure and criminal purpose beyond the scope
of individual criminal incidents.
4. "Pattern of criminal activity" means conduct engaged in by persons
charged in an enterprise corruption count constituting three or more
criminal acts that:
(a) were committed within ten years of the commencement of the
criminal action;
(b) are neither isolated incidents, nor so closely related and
connected in point of time or circumstance of commission as to
constitute a criminal offense or criminal transaction, as those terms
are defined in section 40.10 of the criminal procedure law; and
(c) are either: (i) related to one another through a common scheme or
plan or (ii) were committed, solicited, requested, importuned or
intentionally aided by persons acting with the mental culpability
required for the commission thereof and associated with or in the
criminal enterprise.
Enterprise corruption.
1. A person is guilty of enterprise corruption when, having knowledge
of the existence of a criminal enterprise and the nature of its
activities, and being employed by or associated with such enterprise,
he:
(a) intentionally conducts or participates in the affairs of an
enterprise by participating in a pattern of criminal activity; or
(b) intentionally acquires or maintains any interest in or control of
an enterprise by participating in a pattern of criminal activity; or
(c) participates in a pattern of criminal activity and knowingly
invests any proceeds derived from that conduct, or any proceeds derived
from the investment or use of those proceeds, in an enterprise.
2. For purposes of this section, a person participates in a pattern of
criminal activity when, with intent to participate in or advance the
affairs of the criminal enterprise, he engages in conduct constituting,
or, is criminally liable for pursuant to section 20.00 of this chapter,
at least three of the criminal acts included in the pattern, provided
that:
(a) Two of his acts are felonies other than conspiracy;
(b) Two of his acts, one of which is a felony, occurred within five
years of the commencement of the criminal action; and
(c) Each of his acts occurred within three years of a prior act.
3. For purposes of this section, the enterprise corrupted in violation
of subdivision one of this section need not be the criminal enterprise
by which the person is employed or with which he is associated, and may
be a legitimate enterprise.
Enterprise corruption is a class B felony.
Aggravated enterprise corruption.
A person is guilty of aggravated enterprise corruption when he or she
commits the crime of enterprise corruption and two or more of the acts
that constitute his or her pattern of criminal activity are class B
felonies or higher, and at least two acts are armed felonies as defined
in paragraph (a) of subdivision forty-one of section 1.20 of the
criminal procedure law or one act is such an armed felony and one act is
a violation of subdivision two of section 265.17 of this chapter or one
act is a class B violent felony and two are violations of subdivision
two of section 265.17 of this chapter.
Aggravated enterprise corruption is a class A-I felony.
Enterprise corruption; limitations.
1. For purposes of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this article,
a person does not acquire or maintain an interest in an enterprise by
participating in a pattern of criminal activity when he invests proceeds
derived from a pattern of criminal activity in such enterprise.
2. For purposes of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this article,
it shall not be unlawful to:
(a) purchase securities on the open market with intent to make an
investment, and without the intent of controlling or participating in
the control of the issuer, or of assisting another to do so, if the
securities of the issuer held by the purchaser, the members of his
immediate family, and his or their accomplices in any pattern of
criminal activity do not amount in the aggregate to five percent of the
outstanding securities of any one class and do not confer, either in the
law or in fact, the power to elect one or more directors of the issuer;
(b) make a deposit in an account maintained in a savings and loan
association, or a deposit in any other such financial institution, that
creates an ownership interest in that association or institution;
(c) purchase shares in co-operatively owned residential or commercial
property;
(d) purchase non-voting shares in a limited partnership, with intent
to make an investment, and without the intent of controlling or
participating in the control of the partnership.
Enterprise corruption; forfeiture.
1. Any person convicted of enterprise corruption may be required
pursuant to this section to criminally forfeit to the state:
(a) any interest in, security of, claim against or property or
contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence over any
enterprise whose affairs he has controlled or in which he has
participated in violation of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this
article and for which he was convicted and the use of which interest,
security, claim or right by him contributed directly and materially to
the crime for which he was convicted unless such forfeiture is
disproportionate to the defendant's gain from his association or
employment with the enterprise, in which event the jury may recommend
forfeiture of a portion thereof;
(b) any interest, including proceeds, he has acquired or maintained in
an enterprise in violation of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this
article and for which he was convicted unless such forfeiture is
disproportionate to the conduct he engaged in and on which the
forfeiture is based, in which event the jury may recommend forfeiture of
a portion thereof; or
(c) any interest, including proceeds he has derived from an investment
of proceeds in an enterprise in violation of subdivision one of section
460.20 of this article and for which he was convicted unless such
forfeiture is disproportionate to the conduct he engaged in and on which
the forfeiture is based, in which event the jury may recommend
forfeiture of a portion thereof.
2. (a) Forfeiture may be ordered when the grand jury returning an
indictment charging a person with enterprise corruption has received
evidence legally sufficient to establish, and providing reasonable cause
to believe, that the property or other interest is subject to forfeiture
under this section. In that event, the grand jury shall file a special
information, not to be disclosed to the jury in the criminal action
prior to verdict on the criminal charges, specifying the property or
other interest for which forfeiture is sought and containing a plain and
concise factual statement which sets forth the basis for the forfeiture.
Alternatively, where the defendant has waived indictment and consented
to be prosecuted by superior court information pursuant to article one
hundred ninety-five of the criminal procedure law, the prosecutor may
file, in addition to the superior court information charging enterprise
corruption, a special information specifying the property or other
interest for which forfeiture is sought and containing a plain and
concise factual statement which sets forth the basis for the forfeiture.
(b) After returning a verdict of guilty on an enterprise corruption
count or counts, the jury shall be given the special information and
hear any additional evidence which is relevant and legally admissible
upon the forfeiture count or counts of the special information. After
hearing such evidence, the jury shall then deliberate upon the
forfeiture count or counts and, based upon all the evidence received in
connection with the indictment or superior court information and the
special information, may, if satisfied by proof beyond a reasonable
doubt that the property or other interest, or a portion thereof, is
subject to forfeiture under this section return a verdict determining
such property or other interest, or portion thereof, is subject to
forfeiture, provided, however, where a defendant has waived a jury trial
pursuant to article three hundred twenty of the criminal procedure law,
the court may hear and receive all of the evidence upon the indictment
or superior court information and the special information and render a
verdict upon the enterprise corruption count or counts and the
forfeiture count or counts.
(c) After the verdict of forfeiture, the court shall hear arguments
and may receive additional evidence upon a motion of the defendant that
the verdict of forfeiture (i) is against the weight of the evidence, or
(ii) is, with respect to a forfeiture pursuant to paragraph (a) of
subdivision one of this section, disproportionate to the defendant's
gain from his association or employment with the enterprise, or, with
respect to a forfeiture pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of subdivision
one of this section, disproportionate to the conduct he engaged in on
which the forfeiture is based. Upon such a finding the court may in the
interests of justice set aside, modify, limit or otherwise condition an
order of forfeiture.
3. (a) An order of criminal forfeiture shall authorize the prosecutor
to seize all property or other interest declared forfeited under this
section upon such terms and conditions as the court shall deem proper.
If a property right or other interest is not exercisable or transferable
for value by the prosecutor, it shall expire and shall not revert to the
convicted person. The court ordering any forfeiture may remit such
forfeiture or any portion thereof.
(b) No person shall forfeit any right, title or interest in any
property or enterprise under this article who has not been convicted of
a violation of section 460.20 of this article. Any person other than the
convicted person claiming an interest in forfeited property or other
interest may bring a special proceeding to determine that claim, before
or after trial, pursuant to section thirteen hundred twenty-seven of the
civil practice law and rules, provided, however, that if such an action
is brought before trial, it may, upon motion of the prosecutor, and in
the court's discretion, be postponed by the court until completion of
the trial. In addition, any person claiming an interest in property
subject to forfeiture may petition for remission as provided in
subdivision seven of section thirteen hundred eleven of such law and
rules.
4. All property and other interests which are criminally forfeited
following the commencement of an action under this article, whether by
plea, verdict or other agreement, shall be disposed of in accordance
with the provisions of section thirteen hundred forty-nine of the civil
practice law and rules. In any case where one or more of the counts upon
which a person is convicted specifically includes as a criminal act a
violation of any offense defined in article two hundred twenty of this
chapter, the court shall determine what portion of that property or
interest derives from or relates to such criminal act, and direct that
distribution of that portion be conducted in the manner prescribed for
actions grounded upon offenses in violation of article two hundred
twenty.
5. Any person convicted of a violation of section 460.20 of this
article through which he derived pecuniary value, or by which he caused
personal injury or property damage or other loss, may be sentenced to
pay a fine not in excess of three times the gross value he gained or
three times the gross loss he caused, whichever is greater. Moneys so
collected shall be paid as restitution to victims of the crime for
medical expenses actually incurred, loss of earnings or property loss or
damage caused thereby. Any excess after restitution shall be paid to the
state treasury. In any case where one or more of the counts upon which a
person is convicted specifically includes as a criminal act a violation
of any offense defined in article two hundred twenty of this chapter,
the court shall determine what proportion of the entire pattern such
criminal acts constitute and distribute such portion in the manner
prescribed by section three hundred forty-nine of the civil practice law
and rules for forfeiture actions grounded upon offenses in violation of
article two hundred twenty. When the court imposes a fine pursuant to
this subdivision, the court shall make a finding as to the amount of the
gross value gained or the gross loss caused. If the record does not
contain sufficient evidence to support such a finding the court may
conduct a hearing upon the issue. In imposing a fine, the court shall
consider the seriousness of the conduct, whether the amount of the fine
is disproportionate to the conduct in which he engaged, its impact on
victims and the enterprise corrupted by that conduct, as well as the
economic circumstances of the convicted person, including the effect of
the imposition of such a fine upon his immediate family.
6. The imposition of an order of criminal forfeiture pursuant to
subdivision one of this section, a judgment of civil forfeiture pursuant
to article thirteen-A of the civil practice law and rules, or a fine
pursuant to subdivision five of this section or paragraph (b) of
subdivision one of section 80.00 of this chapter, shall preclude the
imposition of any other such order or judgment of forfeiture or fine
based upon the same criminal conduct, provided however that where an
order of criminal forfeiture is imposed pursuant to subdivision one of
this section, an action pursuant to article thirteen-A of the civil
practice law and rules may nonetheless be brought, and an order imposed
in that action, for forfeiture of the proceeds of a crime or the
substituted proceeds of a crime where such proceeds are not subject to
criminal forfeiture pursuant to subdivision one of this section. The
imposition of a fine pursuant to subdivision five of this section or
paragraph (b) of subdivision one of section 80.00 of this chapter, shall
preclude the imposition of any other fine pursuant to any other
provision of this chapter.
7. Other than as provided in subdivision six, the imposition of a
criminal penalty, forfeiture or fine under this section shall not
preclude the application of any other criminal penalty or civil remedy
under this article or under any other provision of law.
8. Any payment made as restitution to victims pursuant to this section
shall not limit, preclude or impair any liability for damages in any
civil action or proceeding for an amount in excess of such payment.
Enterprise corruption; jurisdiction.
A person may be prosecuted for enterprise corruption:
1. in any county in which the principal place of business, if any, of
the enterprise was located at the time of the offense, and, if the
enterprise had a principal place or business located in more than one
county, then in any such county in which any conduct occurred
constituting or requisite to the completion of the offense of enterprise
corruption; or
2. in any county in which any act included in the pattern of criminal
activity could have been prosecuted pursuant to article twenty of the
criminal procedure law; provided, however, that such person may not be
prosecuted for enterprise corruption in such county based on this
subdivision if the jurisdiction of such county is based solely on
section 20.60 of the criminal procedure law; or
3. in any county in which he:
(a) conducts or participates in the affairs of the enterprise in
violation of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this article,
(b) acquires or maintains an interest in or control of the enterprise
in violation of subdivision one of section 460.20 of this article,
(c) invests proceeds in an enterprise in violation of subdivision one
of section 460.20 of this article; or
4. in any county in which the conduct of the actor had or was likely
to have a particular effect upon such county or a political subdivision
or part thereof, and was performed with intent that it would, or with
knowledge that it was likely to, have such particular effect therein.
Enterprise corruption; prosecution.
1. Subject to the provisions of section 460.60 of this article, a
charge of enterprise corruption may be prosecuted by: (a) the district
attorney of any county with jurisdiction over the offense pursuant to
section 460.40 of this article; (b) the deputy attorney general in
charge of the statewide organized crime task force when authorized by
subdivision seven of section seventy-a of the executive law; or (c) the
attorney general when he is otherwise authorized by law to prosecute
each of the criminal acts specifically included in the pattern of
criminal activity alleged in the enterprise corruption charge.
2. For purposes of paragraph (c) of subdivision one of this section, a
criminal act or an offense is specifically included in a pattern of
criminal activity when the count of the accusatory instrument charging a
person with enterprise corruption alleges a pattern of criminal activity
and the act is alleged to be a criminal act within the pattern of
criminal activity.
Enterprise corruption; consent to prosecute.
1. For purposes of this section, when a grand jury proceeding concerns
a possible charge of enterprise corruption, or when an accusatory
instrument includes a count charging a person with enterprise
corruption, the affected district attorneys are the district attorneys
otherwise empowered to prosecute any of the underlying acts of criminal
activity in a county with jurisdiction over the offense of enterprise
corruption pursuant to section 460.40 of this article, in which:
(a) there has been substantial and significant activity by the
particular enterprise; or
(b) conduct occurred constituting a criminal act specifically included
in the pattern of criminal activity charged in the accusatory instrument
and not previously prosecuted; or
(c) the particular enterprise has its principal place of business.
2. A grand jury proceeding concerning a possible charge of enterprise
corruption may be instituted only with the consent of the affected
district attorneys. Should the possibility of such a charge develop
after a grand jury proceeding has been instituted, the consent of the
affected district attorneys shall be sought as soon as is practical, and
an indictment charging a person with enterprise corruption may not be
voted upon by the grand jury without such consent.
3. A person may be charged in an accusatory instrument with enterprise
corruption only with the consent of the affected district attorneys.
When it is impractical to obtain the consent specified in subdivision
two of this section prior to the filing of the accusatory instrument,
then that consent must be secured within twenty days thereafter.
4. When the prosecutor is the deputy attorney general in charge of the
statewide organized crime task force, the consent required by
subdivisions two and three of this section shall be in addition to that
required by subdivision seven of section seventy-a of the executive law.
5. Within fifteen days after the arraignment of any person on an
indictment charging a person with the crime of enterprise corruption the
prosecutor shall provide a copy of the indictment to those district
attorneys whose consent was required pursuant to subdivision three of
this section, and shall notify the court and defendant of those district
attorneys whose consent the prosecutor has secured. The court shall then
review the indictment and the grand jury minutes, notify any district
attorney whose consent under subdivision one of this section should have
been but was not obtained, direct that the prosecutor provide that
district attorney with the portion of the indictment and grand jury
minutes that are relevant to a determination whether that district
attorney is an "affected district attorney" within the meaning of
subdivision one of this section.
6. The failure to obtain from any district attorney the consent
required by subdivision two or three of this section shall not be
grounds for dismissal of the accusatory instrument or for any other
relief upon motion of a defendant in the criminal action.
Upon motion of a district attorney whose consent, pursuant to
subdivision three of this section, the court determines was required but
not obtained, the court may not dismiss the accusatory instrument or any
count thereof but may grant any appropriate relief. Such relief may
include, but is not limited to:
(a) ordering that any money forfeited by a defendant in the criminal
action, or the proceeds from the sale of any other property forfeited in
the criminal action by a defendant, which would have been paid to the
county of that district attorney pursuant to section thirteen hundred
forty-nine of the civil practice law and rules had the forfeiture action
been prosecuted in the county of that district attorney, be paid in
whole or in part to the county of that district attorney; or
(b) upon consent of the defendant, ordering the transfer of the
prosecution, or any part thereof, to that district attorney or to any
other prosecutor with jurisdiction over the prosecution, of the part
thereof to be transferred. However, prior to ordering any transfer of
the prosecution, the court shall provide to those district attorneys who
have previously consented to the prosecution an opportunity to intervene
and be heard concerning such transfer.
7. A district attorney whose consent, pursuant to subdivision three of
this section, the court determines was required but not obtained may
seek the relief described in subdivision six of this section exclusively
by a pre-trial motion in the criminal action based on the indictment
charging the crime of enterprise corruption. Such relief must be sought
within forty-five days of the receipt of notice from the court pursuant
to subdivision five of this section.
Provisional remedies.
1. The provisional remedies authorized by article thirteen-A of the
civil practice law and rules shall be available in all criminal actions
in which criminal forfeiture or a fine pursuant to section 460.60 is
sought to the extent and under the same terms and conditions as provided
in article thirteen-A of such law and rules.
2. Upon the filing of an indictment and special information seeking
criminal forfeiture under this article all further proceedings with
respect to provisional remedies shall be heard by the judge or justice
in the criminal part to which the indictment and special information are
assigned.
3. For purposes of this section, the indictment and special
information seeking criminal forfeiture shall constitute the summons and
complaint referred to in article thirteen-A of the civil practice law
and rules.
Court ordered disclosure.
Notwithstanding the provisions of article two hundred forty-five of
the criminal procedure law, when forfeiture is sought pursuant to
section 460.30 of this article, the court may order discovery of any
property not otherwise disclosed which is material and reasonably
necessary for preparation by the defendant with respect to the
forfeiture proceeding pursuant to such section. The court may issue a
protective order denying, limiting, conditioning, delaying or regulating
such discovery where a danger to the integrity of physical evidence or a
substantial risk of physical harm, intimidation, economic reprisal,
bribery or unjustified annoyance or embarrassment to any person or an
adverse effect upon the legitimate needs of law enforcement, including
the protection of the confidentiality of informants, or any other factor
or set of factors outweighs the usefulness of the discovery.
ARTICLE 470 Money Laundering
Definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article.
1. "Monetary instrument" means coin and currency of the United States
or of any other country; personal checks; bank checks; traveler's
checks; money orders; and investment securities and negotiable
instruments, in bearer form or otherwise, in such form that title
thereto passes on delivery, except that "monetary instrument" shall not
include payments to attorneys for legal services.
2. "Conducts" includes initiating, concluding or participating in
initiating or concluding a transaction.
3. "Transaction" includes a payment, purchase, sale, loan, pledge,
gift, transfer, or delivery, and with respect to a financial institution
includes a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of
currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock,
bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument, use of a
safe deposit box, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by,
through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected,
except that "transaction" shall not include payments to attorneys for
legal services.
4. "Criminal conduct" means conduct which is a crime under the laws of
this state or conduct committed in any other jurisdiction which is or
would be a crime under the laws of this state.
5. "Specified criminal conduct" means criminal conduct committed in
this state constituting a criminal act, as the term criminal act is
defined in section 460.10 of this chapter, or constituting the crime of
enterprise corruption, as defined in section 460.20 of this chapter, or
conduct committed in any other jurisdiction which is or would be
specified criminal conduct if committed in this state.
6. "Financial institution" means :
(a) an insured bank, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit
Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(h);
(b) a commercial bank or trust company;
(c) a private banker;
(d) an agency or branch of a foreign bank in the United States;
(e) a credit union;
(f) a thrift institution;
(g) a broker or dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange
Commission under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934, U.S.C. 78a et
seq.;
(h) a broker or dealer in securities or commodities;
(i) an investment banker or investment company;
(j) a currency exchange;
(k) an issuer, redeemer, or cashier of travelers' checks, checks,
money orders, or similar instruments;
(l) an operator of a credit card system;
(m) an insurance company;
(n) a dealer in precious metals, stones, or jewels;
(o) a pawnbroker;
(p) a loan or finance company;
(q) a travel agency;
(r) a person licensed to engage in the business of receiving money for
transmission or transmitting the same by whatever means, or any other
person engaged in such business as an agent of a licensee or engaged in
such business without a license;
(s) a telegraph company;
(t) a business engaged in vehicle sales, including automobile,
airplane and boat sales;
(u) persons involved in real estate closings and settlements;
(v) the United States Postal Service;
(w) an agency of the United States government or of a state or local
government carrying out a duty or power of a business described in this
subdivision;
(x) a casino, gambling casino, or gaming establishment with an annual
gaming revenue of more than a million dollars which:
(i) is licensed as a casino, gambling casino or gaming establishment
under the laws of any state or any political subdivision of any state;
or
(ii) is an Indian gaming operation conducted under or pursuant to the
Indian Gaming Regulatory Act other than an operation which is limited to
class 1 gaming as defined in subdivision six of section four of such
act; or
(y) any business or agency engaged in any activity which the
superintendent of financial services or the United States Secretary of
the Treasury determines, by regulation, to be an activity which is
similar to, related to, or a substitute for activity which any business
as described in this subdivision is authorized to engage.
7. "Financial transaction" means a transaction involving:
(a) the movement of funds by wire or other means; or
(b) one or more monetary instruments; or
(c) the transfer of title to any real property, vehicle, vessel or
aircraft; or
(d) the use of a financial institution.
8. "Represented" means any representation made by a law enforcement
officer, or by another person at the direction of, or with the approval
of, such law enforcement officer.
9. "Law enforcement officer" means any public servant, federal or
state, who is authorized to conduct an investigation, prosecute or make
an arrest for a criminal offense.
10. For the purpose of this article, each of the five counties in the
city of New York shall be considered as a separate county.
Money laundering: aggregation of value; other matters.
1. For purposes of subdivisions one and three of sections 470.05,
470.10, 470.15, 470.21, 470.22 and 470.23, and for purposes of
subdivisions one and two of sections 470.20 and 470.24 of this article,
financial transactions may be considered together and the value of the
property involved may be aggregated, provided that the transactions are
all part of a single "criminal transaction" as defined in subdivision
two of section 40.10 of the criminal procedure law.
2. For purposes of subdivision two of sections 470.05, 470.10, 470.15,
470.21, 470.22 and 470.23 of this article, separate occasions involving
the transport, transmittal or transfer of monetary instruments may be
considered together and the value of the monetary instruments involved
may be aggregated, provided that the occasions are all part of a single
"criminal transaction" as defined in subdivision two of section 40.10 of
the criminal procedure law.
3. Nothing in sections 470.05, 470.21, 470.22, 470.23 and 470.24;
paragraph (b) of subdivision one, paragraph (b) of subdivision two and
paragraph (b) of subdivision three of section 470.10; paragraph (b) of
subdivision one, paragraph (b) of subdivision two and paragraph (b) of
subdivision three of section 470.15; or paragraph (b) of subdivision one
and paragraph (b) of subdivision two of section 470.20 of this article
shall make it unlawful to return funds held in escrow:
(a) as a portion of a purchase price for real property pursuant to a
contract of sale; or
(b) to satisfy the tax or other lawful obligations arising out of an
administrative or judicial proceeding concerning the person who provided
the escrow funds.
Money laundering in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in the fourth degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents the proceeds of criminal conduct:
(a) he or she conducts one or more such financial transactions which
in fact involve the proceeds of specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of criminal conduct; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds five thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represents the
proceeds of criminal conduct:
(a) he or she transports, transmits, or transfers on one or more
occasions, monetary instruments which in fact represent the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal, or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership, or the control of the proceeds of criminal conduct; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments exceeds
ten thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions:
(a) involving property represented to be the proceeds of specified
criminal conduct, or represented to be property used to conduct or
facilitate specified criminal conduct, with intent to:
(i) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(ii) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(iii) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds ten thousand dollars.
Money laundering in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Money laundering in the third degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in the third degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, he or
she conducts one or more such financial transactions which in fact
involve the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds ten thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of criminal conduct, he or she conducts one or more
such financial transactions which in fact involve the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of criminal conduct; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represent:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, he or
she transports, transmits, or transfers or attempts to transport,
transmit or transfer, on one or more occasions, monetary instruments
which in fact represent the proceeds of the criminal sale of a
controlled substance from a place in any county in this state to or
through a place outside that county or to a place in any county in this
state from or through a place outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of specified criminal
conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments
exceeds ten thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of criminal conduct, he or she transports, transmits,
or transfers or attempts to transport, transmit or transfer, on one or
more occasions monetary instruments which in fact represent the proceeds
of specified criminal conduct from a place in any county in this state
to or through a place outside that county or to a place in any county in
this state from or through a place outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership, or the control of the proceeds of criminal conduct; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments
exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, or
represented to be property used to conduct or facilitate the criminal
sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds ten thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of specified criminal conduct, or represented to be
property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds fifty thousand dollars.
Money laundering in the third degree is a class D felony.
Money laundering in the second degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in the second degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, he or
she conducts one or more such financial transactions which in fact
involve the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of specified criminal conduct, he or she conducts one
or more such financial transactions which in fact involve the proceeds
of specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds one hundred thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represent:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, he or
she transports, transmits, or transfers or attempts to transport,
transmit or transfer, on one or more occasions, monetary instruments
which in fact represent the proceeds of the criminal sale of a
controlled substance from a place in any county in this state to or
through a place outside that county or to a place in any county in this
state from or through a place outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of specified criminal
conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments
exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of specified criminal conduct, he or she transports,
transmits, or transfers or attempts to transport, transmit or transfer,
on one or more occasions, monetary instruments which in fact represent
the proceeds of specified criminal conduct from a place in any county in
this state to or through a place outside that county or to a place in
any county in this state from or through a place outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of specified criminal
conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments
exceeds one hundred thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, or
represented to be property used to conduct or facilitate the criminal
sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total represented value of the property involved in such
financial transaction or transactions exceeds fifty thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of specified criminal conduct, or represented to be
property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal conduct:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct;
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total represented value of the property involved in such
financial transaction or transactions exceeds one hundred thousand
dollars.
Money laundering in the second degree is a class C felony.
Money laundering in the first degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in the first degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, he or
she conducts one or more such financial transactions which in fact
involve the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds five hundred thousand dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of a class A, B or C felony, or of a crime in any
other jurisdiction that is or would be a class A, B or C felony under
the laws of this state, he or she conducts one or more such financial
transactions which in fact involve the proceeds of any such felony:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five,
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of specified criminal conduct;
or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds one million dollars.
2. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be:
(a) the proceeds of the criminal sale of a controlled substance, or
represented to be property used to conduct or facilitate the criminal
sale of a controlled substance:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total represented value of the property involved in such
financial transaction or transactions exceeds five hundred thousand
dollars; or
(b) the proceeds of a class A, B or C felony or of a crime in any
other jurisdiction that is or would be a class A, B or C felony under
the laws of this state, or represented to be property used to conduct or
facilitate such crimes:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be the proceeds of
specified criminal conduct; or
(C) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(ii) The total represented value of the property involved in such
financial transaction or transactions exceeds one million dollars.
Money laundering in the first degree is a class B felony.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in support of terrorism in the
fourth degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) he or she conducts one or more such financial transactions which
in fact involve either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in
subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument
given, received or intended to be used to support a violation of article
four hundred ninety of this part:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds one thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represents either the
proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section
490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or
intended to be used to support a violation of article four hundred
ninety of this part:
(a) he or she transports, transmits, or transfers on one or more
occasions, monetary instruments which in fact represent either the
proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section
490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or
intended to be used to support a violation of article four hundred
ninety of this part:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of criminal conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal, or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership, or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of such monetary instrument or instruments exceeds
two thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions:
(a) involving property represented to be either the proceeds of an act
of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this
part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to
support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part, with
intent to:
(i) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(ii) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be either the proceeds
of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05
of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be
used to support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part;
or
(iii) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds two thousand dollars.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the fourth degree is a
class E felony.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the third degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in support of terrorism in the
third degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) he or she conducts one or more such financial transactions which
in fact involve either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in
subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument
given, received or intended to be used to support a violation of article
four hundred ninety of this part:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds five thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represent either the
proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section
490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or
intended to be used to support a violation of article four hundred
ninety of this part:
(a) he or she transports, transmits, or transfers or attempts to
transport, transmit or transfer, on one or more occasions, monetary
instruments which in fact represent either the proceeds of an act of
terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part,
or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to
support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part from a
place in any county in this state to or through a place outside that
county or to a place in any county in this state from or through a place
outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of specified criminal
conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total value of such monetary instrument or instruments exceeds
five thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) With intent to:
(i) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(ii) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be either the proceeds
of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05
of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be
used to support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part;
or
(iii) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds five thousand dollars.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the third degree is a
class D felony.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the second degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in support of terrorism in the
second degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) he or she conducts one or more such financial transactions which
in fact involve either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in
subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument
given, received or intended to be used to support a violation of article
four hundred ninety of this part:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars; or
2. Knowing that one or more monetary instruments represent either the
proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section
490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or
intended to be used to support a violation of article four hundred
ninety of this part:
(a) he or she transports, transmits, or transfers or attempts to
transport, transmit or transfer, on one or more occasions, monetary
instruments which in fact represent either the proceeds of an act of
terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part,
or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to
support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part from a
place in any county in this state to or through a place outside that
county or to a place in any county in this state from or through a place
outside that county:
(i) With intent to promote the carrying on of specified criminal
conduct; or
(ii) Knowing that such transportation, transmittal or transfer is
designed in whole or in part to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism
as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a
monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a
violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) the total value of such monetary instrument or instruments exceeds
twenty-five thousand dollars; or
3. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) With intent to:
(i) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(ii) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be either the proceeds
of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05
of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be
used to support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part;
or
(iii) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the second degree is a
class C felony.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the first degree.
A person is guilty of money laundering in support of terrorism in the
first degree when:
1. Knowing that the property involved in one or more financial
transactions represents either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) he or she conducts one or more financial transactions which in
fact involve either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as defined in
subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary instrument
given, received or intended to be used to support a violation of article
four hundred ninety of this part:
(i) With intent to:
(A) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(B) engage in conduct constituting a felony as set forth in section
eighteen hundred three, eighteen hundred four, eighteen hundred five, or
eighteen hundred six of the tax law; or
(ii) Knowing that the transaction or transactions in whole or in part
are designed to:
(A) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of the proceeds of either the proceeds of an
act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this
part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be used to
support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part; or
(B) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(iii) The total value of the property involved in such financial
transaction or transactions exceeds seventy-five thousand dollars.
2. He or she conducts one or more financial transactions involving
property represented to be either the proceeds of an act of terrorism as
defined in subdivision one of section 490.05 of this part, or a monetary
instrument given, received or intended to be used to support a violation
of article four hundred ninety of this part:
(a) With intent to:
(i) promote the carrying on of specified criminal conduct; or
(ii) conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the
ownership or the control of property believed to be either the proceeds
of an act of terrorism as defined in subdivision one of section 490.05
of this part, or a monetary instrument given, received or intended to be
used to support a violation of article four hundred ninety of this part;
or
(iii) avoid any transaction reporting requirement imposed by law; and
(b) The total represented value of the property involved in such
financial transaction or transactions exceeds one hundred twenty-five
thousand dollars.
Money laundering in support of terrorism in the first degree is a
class B felony.
Money laundering; fines.
1. Any person convicted of a violation of section 470.05, 470.10,
470.15, or 470.20 of this article may be sentenced to pay a fine not in
excess of two times the value of the monetary instruments which are the
proceeds of specified criminal activity. When a fine is imposed pursuant
to this subdivision, the court shall make a finding as to the value of
such monetary instrument or instruments. If the record does not contain
sufficient evidence to support such a finding the court may conduct a
hearing upon the issue. In imposing a fine, the court shall consider the
seriousness of the conduct, whether the amount of the fine is
disproportionate to the conduct in which he engaged, its impact on
victims, as well as the economic circumstances of the convicted person,
including the effect of the imposition of such a fine upon his immediate
family.
2. The imposition of a fine pursuant to subdivision one of this
section or paragraph b of subdivision one of section 80.00 of this
chapter, shall preclude the imposition of any other order or judgment of
forfeiture or fine based upon the same criminal conduct.
ARTICLE 480 Criminal Forfeiture - Felony Controlled Substance Offenses
Definitions.
The following definitions are applicable to this article.
1. "Felony offense" means only a felony defined in article two hundred
twenty of this chapter, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any such
felony, provided such attempt or conspiracy is punishable as a felony,
or solicitation of any such felony provided such solicitation is
punishable as a felony.
2. "Property" means real property, personal property, money,
negotiable instruments, securities, or anything of value or an interest
in a thing of value.
3. "Proceeds" means any property obtained by a defendant through the
commission of a felony controlled substance offense, and includes any
appreciation in value of such property.
4. "Substituted proceeds" means any property obtained by a defendant
by the sale or exchange of proceeds of a felony controlled substance
offense, and any gain realized by such sale or exchange.
5. "Instrumentality of a felony controlled substance offense" means
any property, other than real property and any buildings, fixtures,
appurtenances, and improvements thereon, whose use contributes directly
and materially to the commission of a felony controlled substance
offense.
6. "Real property instrumentality of a crime" means an interest in
real property the use of which contributes directly and materially to
the commission of a specified felony offense.
7. "Specified felony offense" means:
(a) a conviction of a person for a violation of section 220.18,
220.21, 220.41, 220.43, or 220.77 of this chapter, or where the
accusatory instrument charges one or more of such offenses, conviction
upon a plea of guilty to any of the felonies for which such plea is
otherwise authorized by law or a conviction of a person for conspiracy
to commit a violation of section 220.18, 220.21, 220.41, 220.43, or
220.77 of this chapter, where the controlled substances which are the
object of the conspiracy are located in the real property which is the
subject of the forfeiture action; or
(b) three or more violations of any of the felonies defined in section
220.09, 220.16, 220.18, 220.21, 220.31, 220.34, 220.39, 220.41, 220.43
or 220.77 of this chapter, which violations do not constitute a single
criminal offense as defined in subdivision one of section 40.10 of the
criminal procedure law, or a single criminal transaction, as defined in
paragraph (a) of subdivision two of section 40.10 of the criminal
procedure law, and at least one of which resulted in a conviction of
such offense, or where the accusatory instrument charges one or more of
such felonies, conviction upon a plea of guilty to a felony for which
such plea is otherwise authorized by law; or
(c) a conviction of a person for a violation of section 220.09,
220.16, 220.34 or 220.39 of this chapter, or where the accusatory
instrument charges any such felony, conviction upon a plea of guilty to
a felony for which the plea is otherwise authorized by law, together
with evidence which: (i) provides substantial indicia that the defendant
used the real property to engage in a continual, ongoing course of
conduct involving the unlawful mixing, compounding, manufacturing,
warehousing, or packaging of controlled substances as part of an illegal
trade or business for gain; and (ii) establishes, where the conviction
is for possession of a controlled substance, that such possession was
with the intent to sell it.
Felony controlled substance offenses; forfeiture.
1. When any person is convicted of a felony offense, the following
property is subject to forfeiture pursuant to this article:
(a) any property constituting the proceeds or substituted proceeds of
such offense, unless the forfeiture is disproportionate to the
defendant's gain from or participation in the offense, in which event
the trier of fact may direct forfeiture of a portion thereof; and
(b) any property constituting an instrumentality of such offense,
other than a real property instrumentality of a crime, unless such
forfeiture is disproportionate to the defendant's gain from or
participation in the offense, in which event the trier of fact may
direct forfeiture of a portion thereof.
2. When any person is convicted of a specified offense, the real
property instrumentality of such specified offense is subject to
forfeiture pursuant to this article, unless such forfeiture is
disproportionate to the defendant's gain from or participation in the
offense, in which event the trier of fact may direct forfeiture of a
portion thereof.
3. Property acquired in good faith by an attorney as payment for the
reasonable and bona fide fees of legal services or reimbursement of
reasonable and bona fide expenses related to the representation of a
defendant in connection with a civil or criminal forfeiture proceeding
or a related criminal matter, shall be exempt from a judgment of
forfeiture. For purposes of this subdivision, "bona fide" means that the
attorney who acquired such property had no reasonable basis to believe
that the fee transaction was a fraudulent or sham transaction designed
to shield property from forfeiture, hide its existence from governmental
investigative agencies, or was conducted for any purpose other than
legitimate.
Procedure.
1. After the grand jury votes to file an indictment charging a person
with a felony offense as that term is defined in section 480.00 of this
article, it may subsequently receive evidence that property is subject
to forfeiture under this article. If such evidence is legally sufficient
and provides reasonable cause to believe that such property is subject
to forfeiture under this article, the grand jury shall file together
with the indictment a special forfeiture information specifying the
property for which forfeiture is sought and containing a plain and
concise factual statement which sets forth the basis for the forfeiture.
Alternatively, where the defendant has waived indictment and has
consented to be prosecuted for a felony offense by superior court
information pursuant to article one hundred ninety-five of the criminal
procedure law, the prosecutor may, in addition to the superior court
information, file a special forfeiture information specifying the
property for which the forfeiture is sought and containing a plain and
concise factual statement which sets forth the basis for the forfeiture.
2. At any time before entry of a plea of guilty to an indictment or
commencement of a trial thereof, the prosecutor may file a superseding
special forfeiture information in the same court in accordance with the
provisions of subdivision one of this section. Upon the filing of such a
superseding forfeiture information the court must, upon application of
the defendant, order any adjournment of the proceedings which may, by
reason of such superseding special forfeiture information, be necessary
to accord the defendant adequate opportunity to prepare his defense of
the forfeiture action.
3. A motion to inspect and reduce made pursuant to section 210.20 of
the criminal procedure law may seek modification of a special forfeiture
information dismissing a claim with respect to any property interest
therein where the court finds the evidence before the grand jury was
legally insufficient to support a claim against such interest.
4. The prosecutor shall promptly file a copy of the special forfeiture
information, including the terms thereof, with the state division of
criminal justice services and with the local agency responsible for
criminal justice planning. Failure to file such information shall not be
grounds for any relief under this chapter. The prosecutor shall also
report such demographic data as required by the state division of
criminal justice services when filing a copy of the special forfeiture
information with the state division of criminal justice services.
5. In addition to information required to be disclosed pursuant to
article two hundred forty-five of the criminal procedure law, when
forfeiture is sought pursuant to this article, and following the
defendant's arraignment on the special forfeiture information, the court
shall order discovery of any information not otherwise disclosed which
is material and reasonably necessary for preparation by the defendant
with respect to a forfeiture proceeding brought pursuant to this
article. Such material shall include those portions of the grand jury
minutes and such other information which pertain solely to the special
forfeiture information and shall not include information which pertains
to the criminal charges. Upon application of the prosecutor, the court
may issue a protective order pursuant to section 245.70 of the criminal
procedure law with respect to any information required to be disclosed
pursuant to this subdivision.
6. (a) Trial of forfeiture counts by jury or by the court. Evidence
which relates solely to the issue of forfeiture shall not be presented
during the trial on the underlying felony offense or specified felony
offense, and the defendant shall not be required to present such
evidence prior to the verdict on such offense. A defendant who does not
present evidence in his defense with respect to the trial of the
underlying offense is not precluded on account thereof from presenting
evidence during the trial of the forfeiture count or counts.
(b) Trial of forfeiture counts by the jury. After returning a verdict
of guilty of a felony offense or specified felony offense, or where the
defendant has pled guilty to a felony offense or a specified felony
offense and has not waived a jury trial of the forfeiture count or
counts pursuant to article three hundred twenty of the criminal
procedure law, the jury shall be given the forfeiture information and
shall hear any additional evidence which is relevant and legally
admissible upon the forfeiture count or counts. After hearing such
evidence, the jury shall then deliberate upon the forfeiture count or
counts, and based upon all the evidence admitted in connection with the
indictment or superior court information and the forfeiture information,
may, if satisfied by proof beyond a reasonable doubt that the property,
or a portion thereof, is subject to forfeiture pursuant to this article,
return a verdict directing that such property, or portion thereof, is
subject to forfeiture.
(c) Trial of forfeiture counts by the court. Where a defendant has
waived a jury trial of the forfeiture count or counts pursuant to
article three hundred twenty of the criminal procedure law, the court
shall hear all evidence upon the forfeiture information and may, if
satisfied by proof beyond a reasonable doubt that the property, or a
portion thereof, is subject to forfeiture under this article, render a
verdict determining that such property, or a portion thereof, is subject
to forfeiture under this article.
(d) After the verdict of forfeiture, the court shall hear arguments
and may receive additional evidence upon a motion of the defendant that
the verdict of forfeiture (i) is against the weight of the evidence, or
(ii) is, with respect to a forfeiture pursuant to this article,
disproportionate to the defendant's gain from the offense, or the
defendant's interest in the property, or the defendant's participation
in the conduct upon which the forfeiture is based. Upon such a finding,
the court may in the interest of justice set aside, modify, limit or
otherwise condition the verdict of forfeiture.
7. A final judgment or order of forfeiture issued pursuant to this
article shall authorize the prosecutor to seize all property directed to
be forfeited under this article upon such terms and conditions as the
court deems proper. If a property right is not exercisable or
transferable for value by the prosecutor, it shall expire and shall not
revert to the convicted person.
8. Where the forfeited property consists of real property, the court
may at any time prior to a verdict of forfeiture, enter an order
pursuant to subdivision four-a of section thirteen hundred eleven of the
civil practice law and rules.
9. No person shall forfeit any right, title, or interest in any
property under this article who has not been convicted of a felony
offense or specified felony offense, as the case may be. Any person
claiming an interest in property subject to forfeiture may institute a
special proceeding to determine that claim, before or after the trial,
pursuant to section thirteen hundred twenty-seven of the civil practice
law and rules; provided, however, that if such special proceeding is
initiated before trial on the forfeiture count or counts, it may, upon
written motion of the prosecutor, and in the court's discretion, be
postponed by the court until completion of the trial. In addition, any
person claiming an interest in property subject to forfeiture may
petition for remission as provided for in subdivision seven of section
thirteen hundred eleven of the civil practice law and rules.
10. Testimony of the defendant or evidence derived therefrom
introduced in the trial of the forfeiture count may not be used by the
prosecution in any post-trial motion proceedings, appeals, or retrials
relating to the defendant's criminal liability for the underlying
criminal offense unless the defendant has previously referred to such
evidence in such post-trial proceeding, appeal, or retrial relating to
the underlying offense and the evidence is presented by the prosecutor
in response thereto. Upon vacatur or reversal on appeal of a judgment of
conviction upon which a verdict of forfeiture is based, any verdict of
forfeiture which is based upon such conviction shall also be vacated or
reversed.
Disposal of property.
All property which is forfeited pursuant to this article shall be
disposed of in accordance with the provisions of section thirteen
hundred forty-nine of the civil practice law and rules. All reports
required to be filed pursuant to article thirteen-A of such law and
rules by a claiming authority shall be filed by the prosecutor in a
forfeiture action brought pursuant to this article.
Election of remedies.
The imposition of a judgment or order of forfeiture pursuant to this
article with respect to a defendant's interest in property shall
preclude the imposition of a judgment or order of forfeiture with
respect to such interest in property pursuant to the provisions of any
other state or local law based upon the same criminal conduct.
Provisional remedies.
1. The provisional remedies authorized by article thirteen-A of the
civil practice law and rules shall be available in an action for
criminal forfeiture pursuant to this article to the extent and under the
same terms, conditions and limitations as provided in article thirteen-A
of such law and rules, except as specifically provided herein.
2. Upon the filing of an indictment and special forfeiture
information, or a superior court information and special forfeiture
information, seeking forfeiture pursuant to this article, all further
proceedings with respect to provisional remedies shall be heard by the
judge or justice in the criminal part to which the criminal action is
assigned.
3. For purposes of this section, the indictment and special forfeiture
information or superior court information and special forfeiture
information seeking criminal forfeiture shall constitute the summons
with notice or summons and verified complaint referred to in article
thirteen-A of the civil practice law and rules.
Rebuttable presumption.
1. In a criminal forfeiture proceeding commenced pursuant to this
article, the following rebuttable presumption shall apply: all currency
or negotiable instruments payable to the bearer shall be presumed to be
the proceeds of a felony offense when such currency or negotiable
instruments are (i) found in close proximity to a controlled substance
unlawfully possessed by the defendant in an amount sufficient to
constitute a violation of section 220.18 or 220.21 of the penal law, or
(ii) found in close proximity to any quantity of a controlled substance
or marihuana unlawfully possessed by such defendant in a room, other
than a public place, under circumstances evincing an intent to
unlawfully mix, compound, package, distribute or otherwise prepare for
sale such controlled substance or marihuana.
2. The presumption established by this section shall be rebutted by
credible and reliable evidence which tends to show that such currency or
negotiable instruments payable to the bearer is not the proceeds of a
felony offense. In an action tried before a jury, the jury shall be so
instructed. Any sworn testimony of a defendant offered to rebut the
presumption and any other evidence which is obtained as a result of such
testimony, shall be inadmissible in any subsequent proceeding relating
to the forfeiture action, or in any other civil or criminal action,
except in a prosecution for a violation of article two hundred ten of
this chapter. In an action tried before a jury, at the commencement of
the trial, or at such other time as the court reasonably directs, the
prosecutor shall provide notice to the court and to the defendant of its
intent to request that the court charge such presumption.
TITLE Y Hate Crimes Act of 2000
ARTICLE 485 Hate Crimes
Legislative findings.
The legislature finds and determines as follows: criminal acts
involving violence, intimidation and destruction of property based upon
bias and prejudice have become more prevalent in New York state in
recent years. The intolerable truth is that in these crimes, commonly
and justly referred to as "hate crimes", victims are intentionally
selected, in whole or in part, because of their race, color, national
origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression, religion,
religious practice, age, disability or sexual orientation. Hate crimes
do more than threaten the safety and welfare of all citizens. They
inflict on victims incalculable physical and emotional damage and tear
at the very fabric of free society. Crimes motivated by invidious hatred
toward particular groups not only harm individual victims but send a
powerful message of intolerance and discrimination to all members of the
group to which the victim belongs. Hate crimes can and do intimidate and
disrupt entire communities and vitiate the civility that is essential to
healthy democratic processes. In a democratic society, citizens cannot
be required to approve of the beliefs and practices of others, but must
never commit criminal acts on account of them. However, these criminal
acts do occur and are occurring more and more frequently. Quite often,
these crimes of hate are also acts of terror. The recent attacks in
Monsey, New York as well as the shootings in El Paso, Texas; Pittsburgh,
Pennsylvania; Sutherland Springs, Texas; Orlando, Florida; and
Charleston, South Carolina illustrate that mass killings are often
apolitical, motivated by the hatred of a specific group coupled with a
desire to inflict mass casualties. The current law emphasizes the
political motivation of an act over its catastrophic effect and does not
adequately recognize the harm to public order and individual safety that
hate crimes cause. Therefore, our laws must be strengthened to provide
clear recognition of the gravity of hate crimes and the compelling
importance of preventing their recurrence.
Accordingly, the legislature finds and declares that hate crimes
should be prosecuted and punished with appropriate severity.
Hate crimes.
1. A person commits a hate crime when he or she commits a specified
offense and either:
(a) intentionally selects the person against whom the offense is
committed or intended to be committed in whole or in substantial part
because of a belief or perception regarding the race, color, national
origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression, religion,
religious practice, age, disability or sexual orientation of a person,
regardless of whether the belief or perception is correct, or
(b) intentionally commits the act or acts constituting the offense in
whole or in substantial part because of a belief or perception regarding
the race, color, national origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or
expression, religion, religious practice, age, disability or sexual
orientation of a person, regardless of whether the belief or perception
is correct.
2. Proof of race, color, national origin, ancestry, gender, gender
identity or expression, religion, religious practice, age, disability or
sexual orientation of the defendant, the victim or of both the defendant
and the victim does not, by itself, constitute legally sufficient
evidence satisfying the people's burden under paragraph (a) or (b) of
subdivision one of this section.
3. A "specified offense" is an offense defined by any of the following
provisions of this chapter: section 120.00 (assault in the third
degree); section 120.05 (assault in the second degree); section 120.06
(gang assault in the second degree); section 120.07 (gang assault in the
first degree); section 120.10 (assault in the first degree); section
120.12 (aggravated assault upon a person less than eleven years old);
section 120.13 (menacing in the first degree); section 120.14 (menacing
in the second degree); section 120.15 (menacing in the third degree);
section 120.20 (reckless endangerment in the second degree); section
120.25 (reckless endangerment in the first degree); section 121.11
(criminal obstruction of breathing or blood circulation); section 121.12
(strangulation in the second degree); section 121.13 (strangulation in
the first degree); subdivision one of section 125.15 (manslaughter in
the second degree); subdivision one, two or four of section 125.20
(manslaughter in the first degree); section 125.25 (murder in the second
degree); section 125.26 (aggravated murder); section 125.27 (murder in
the first degree); section 120.45 (stalking in the fourth degree);
section 120.50 (stalking in the third degree); section 120.55 (stalking
in the second degree); section 120.60 (stalking in the first degree);
section 130.20 (sexual misconduct); section 130.25 (rape in the third
degree); section 130.30 (rape in the second degree); section 130.35
(rape in the first degree); former section 130.40; former section
130.45; former section 130.50; section 130.52 (forcible touching);
section 130.53 (persistent sexual abuse); section 130.55 (sexual abuse
in the third degree); section 130.60 (sexual abuse in the second
degree); section 130.65 (sexual abuse in the first degree); section
130.65-a (aggravated sexual abuse in the fourth degree); section 130.66
(aggravated sexual abuse in the third degree); section 130.67
(aggravated sexual abuse in the second degree); section 130.70
(aggravated sexual abuse in the first degree); section 135.05 (unlawful
imprisonment in the second degree); section 135.10 (unlawful
imprisonment in the first degree); section 135.20 (kidnapping in the
second degree); section 135.25 (kidnapping in the first degree); section
135.60 (coercion in the third degree); section 135.61 (coercion in the
second degree); section 135.65 (coercion in the first degree); section
140.10 (criminal trespass in the third degree); section 140.15 (criminal
trespass in the second degree); section 140.17 (criminal trespass in the
first degree); section 140.20 (burglary in the third degree); section
140.25 (burglary in the second degree); section 140.30 (burglary in the
first degree); section 145.00 (criminal mischief in the fourth degree);
section 145.05 (criminal mischief in the third degree); section 145.10
(criminal mischief in the second degree); section 145.12 (criminal
mischief in the first degree); section 150.05 (arson in the fourth
degree); section 150.10 (arson in the third degree); section 150.15
(arson in the second degree); section 150.20 (arson in the first
degree); section 155.25 (petit larceny); section 155.30 (grand larceny
in the fourth degree); section 155.35 (grand larceny in the third
degree); section 155.40 (grand larceny in the second degree); section
155.42 (grand larceny in the first degree); section 160.05 (robbery in
the third degree); section 160.10 (robbery in the second degree);
section 160.15 (robbery in the first degree); section 230.34 (sex
trafficking); section 230.34-a (sex trafficking of a child); section
240.25 (harassment in the first degree); subdivision one, two or four of
section 240.30 (aggravated harassment in the second degree); section
240.50 (falsely reporting an incident in the third degree); section
240.55 (falsely reporting an incident in the second degree); section
240.60 (falsely reporting an incident in the first degree); subdivision
one of section 265.03 (criminal possession of a weapon in the second
degree); subdivision one of section 265.04 (criminal possession of a
weapon in the first degree); section 490.10 (soliciting or providing
support for an act of terrorism in the second degree); section 490.15
(soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the first
degree); section 490.20 (making a terroristic threat); section 490.25
(crime of terrorism); section 490.30 (hindering prosecution of terrorism
in the second degree); section 490.35 (hindering prosecution of
terrorism in the first degree); section 490.37 (criminal possession of a
chemical weapon or biological weapon in the third degree); section
490.40 (criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in
the second degree); section 490.45 (criminal possession of a chemical
weapon or biological weapon in the first degree); section 490.47
(criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the third
degree); section 490.50 (criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon in the second degree); section 490.55 (criminal use of a chemical
weapon or biological weapon in the first degree); or any attempt or
conspiracy to commit any of the foregoing offenses.
4. For purposes of this section:
(a) the term "age" means sixty years old or more;
(b) the term "disability" means a physical or mental impairment that
substantially limits a major life activity;
(c) the term "gender identity or expression" means a person's actual
or perceived gender-related identity, appearance, behavior, expression,
or other gender-related characteristic regardless of the sex assigned to
that person at birth, including, but not limited to, the status of being
transgender.
Sentencing.
1. When a person is convicted of a hate crime pursuant to this
article, and the specified offense is a violent felony offense, as
defined in section 70.02 of this chapter, the hate crime shall be deemed
a violent felony offense.
2. When a person is convicted of a hate crime pursuant to this article
and the specified offense is a misdemeanor or a class C, D or E felony,
the hate crime shall be deemed to be one category higher than the
specified offense the defendant committed, or one category higher than
the offense level applicable to the defendant's conviction for an
attempt or conspiracy to commit a specified offense, whichever is
applicable.
3. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, when a person is
convicted of a hate crime pursuant to this article and the specified
offense is a class B felony:
(a) the maximum term of the indeterminate sentence must be at least
six years if the defendant is sentenced pursuant to section 70.00 of
this chapter;
(b) the term of the determinate sentence must be at least eight years
if the defendant is sentenced pursuant to section 70.02 of this chapter;
(c) the term of the determinate sentence must be at least twelve years
if the defendant is sentenced pursuant to section 70.04 of this chapter;
(d) the maximum term of the indeterminate sentence must be at least
four years if the defendant is sentenced pursuant to section 70.05 of
this chapter; and
(e) the maximum term of the indeterminate sentence or the term of the
determinate sentence must be at least ten years if the defendant is
sentenced pursuant to section 70.06 of this chapter.
4. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, when a person is
convicted of a hate crime pursuant to this article and the specified
offense is a class A-1 felony, the minimum period of the indeterminate
sentence shall be not less than twenty years.
5. In addition to any of the dispositions authorized by this chapter,
the court shall require as part of the sentence imposed upon a person
convicted of a hate crime pursuant to this article, that the defendant
complete a program, training session or counseling session directed at
hate crime prevention and education, where the court determines such
program, training session or counseling session is appropriate,
available and was developed or authorized by the court or local agencies
in cooperation with organizations serving the affected community.
TITLE Y-1 Nb
ARTICLE 490 Terrorism
Legislative findings.
The devastating consequences of the recent barbaric attack on the
World Trade Center and the Pentagon underscore the compelling need for
legislation that is specifically designed to combat the evils of
terrorism. Indeed, the bombings of American embassies in Kenya and
Tanzania in 1998, the federal building in Oklahoma City in 1995, Pan Am
Flight number 103 in Lockerbie in 1988, the 1997 shooting atop the
Empire State Building, the 1994 murder of Ari Halberstam on the Brooklyn
Bridge and the 1993 bombing of the World Trade Center, will forever
serve to remind us that terrorism is a serious and deadly problem that
disrupts public order and threatens individual safety both at home and
around the world. Terrorism is inconsistent with civilized society and
cannot be tolerated.
Although certain federal laws seek to curb the incidence of terrorism,
there are no corresponding state laws that facilitate the prosecution
and punishment of terrorists in state courts. Inexplicably, there is
also no criminal penalty in this state for a person who solicits or
raises funds for, or provides other material support or resources to,
those who commit or encourage the commission of horrific and cowardly
acts of terrorism. Nor do our criminal laws proscribe the making of
terrorist threats or punish with appropriate severity those who hinder
the prosecution of terrorists. Finally, our death penalty statute must
be strengthened so that the cold-blooded execution of an individual for
terrorist purposes is a capital offense.
A comprehensive state law is urgently needed to complement federal
laws in the fight against terrorism and to better protect all citizens
against terrorist acts. Accordingly, the legislature finds that our laws
must be strengthened to ensure that terrorists, as well as those who
solicit or provide financial and other support to terrorists, are
prosecuted and punished in state courts with appropriate severity.
Liability protection.
1. Any person who makes a qualified disclosure of suspicious behavior
shall be immune from civil and criminal liability for reporting such
behavior.
2. For purposes of this article, "qualified disclosure of suspicious
behavior" means any disclosure of allegedly suspicious behavior of
another individual or individuals to any person that is made in good
faith and with the reasonable belief that such suspicious behavior
constitutes, is indicative of, or is in furtherance of a crime or an act
of terrorism.
3. An action alleging that a statement or disclosure by a person of
any suspicious transaction, activity or occurrence indicating that an
individual may be engaging in or preparing to engage in suspicious
behavior which constitutes, is indicative of, or is in furtherance of, a
crime or an act of terrorism was not made in good faith and with the
reasonable belief that such suspicious behavior constitutes, is
indicative of, or is in furtherance of, a crime or an act of terrorism
must be pled with particularity pursuant to subdivision (b) of rule
three thousand sixteen of the civil practice law and rules.
Definitions.
As used in this article, the following terms shall mean and include:
1. "Act of terrorism":
(a) for purposes of this article means an act or acts constituting a
specified offense as defined in subdivision three of this section for
which a person may be convicted in the criminal courts of this state
pursuant to article twenty of the criminal procedure law, or an act or
acts constituting an offense in any other jurisdiction within or outside
the territorial boundaries of the United States which contains all of
the essential elements of a specified offense, that is intended to:
(i) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(iii) affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination or kidnapping; or
(b) for purposes of subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph (a) of
subdivision one of section 125.27 of this chapter means activities that
involve a violent act or acts dangerous to human life that are in
violation of the criminal laws of this state and are intended to:
(i) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(iii) affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination or kidnapping.
2. "Material support or resources" means currency or other financial
securities, financial services, lodging, training, safehouses, false
documentation or identification, communications equipment, facilities,
weapons, lethal substances, explosives, personnel, transportation, and
other physical assets, except medicine or religious materials.
3. (a) "Specified offense" for purposes of this article means a class
A felony offense other than an offense as defined in article two hundred
twenty, a violent felony offense as defined in section 70.02,
manslaughter in the second degree as defined in section 125.15, criminal
tampering in the first degree as defined in section 145.20, identity
theft in the second degree as defined in section 190.79, identity theft
in the first degree as defined in section 190.80, unlawful possession of
personal identification information in the second degree as defined in
section 190.82, unlawful possession of personal identification
information in the first degree as defined in section 190.83, money
laundering in support of terrorism in the fourth degree as defined in
section 470.21, money laundering in support of terrorism in the third
degree as defined in section 470.22, money laundering in support of
terrorism in the second degree as defined in section 470.23, money
laundering in support of terrorism in the first degree as defined in
section 470.24 of this chapter, and includes an attempt or conspiracy to
commit any such offense.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this
subdivision, a specified offense shall not mean an offense defined in
sections 490.37, 490.40, 490.45, 490.47, 490.50, and 490.55 of this
article, nor shall a specified offense mean an attempt to commit any
such offense.
4. "Renders criminal assistance" for purposes of sections 490.30 and
490.35 of this article shall have the same meaning as in section 205.50
of this chapter.
5. "Biological agent" means any micro-organism, virus, infectious
substance, or biological product that may be engineered as a result of
biotechnology, or any naturally occurring or bioengineered component of
any such micro-organism, virus, infectious substance, or biological
product, capable of causing:
(a) death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, an
animal, a plant, or another living organism;
(b) deterioration of food, water, equipment, supplies, or material of
any kind; or
(c) deleterious alteration of the environment.
6. "Toxin" means the toxic material of plants, animals,
micro-organisms, viruses, fungi, or infectious substances, or a
recombinant molecule, whatever its origin or method of production,
including:
(a) any poisonous substance or biological product that may be
engineered as a result of biotechnology produced by a living organism;
or
(b) any poisonous isomer or biological product, homolog, or derivative
of such a substance.
7. "Delivery system" means:
(a) any apparatus, equipment, device, or means of delivery
specifically designed to deliver or disseminate a biological agent,
toxin, or vector; or
(b) any vector.
8. "Vector" means a living organism, or molecule, including a
recombinant molecule, or biological product that may be engineered as a
result of biotechnology, capable of carrying a biological agent or toxin
to a host.
9. "Biological weapon" means any biological agent, toxin, vector, or
delivery system or combination thereof.
10. "Chemical weapon" means the following, together or separately:
(a) a toxic chemical or its precursors;
(b) a munition or device specifically designed to cause death or other
harm through the toxic properties of a toxic chemical or its precursors,
which would be released as a result of the employment of such munition
or device;
(c) any equipment specifically designed for use directly in connection
with the employment of munitions or devices; or
(d) any device that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity
at a level dangerous to human life.
11. "Precursor" means any chemical reactant that takes part at any
stage in the production by whatever method of a toxic chemical,
including any key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical
system, and includes precursors which have been identified for
application of verification measures under article VI of the convention
in schedules contained in the annex on chemicals of the chemical weapons
convention.
12. "Key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical system"
means the precursor which plays the most important role in determining
the toxic properties of the final product and reacts rapidly with other
chemicals in the binary or multicomponent system.
13. "Toxic chemical" means any chemical which through its chemical
action on life processes can cause death, serious physical injury or
permanent harm to humans or animals, including all such chemicals,
regardless of their origin or of their method of production, and
regardless of whether they are produced in facilities, in munitions or
elsewhere, and includes toxic chemicals which have been identified by
the commissioner of health and included on the list of toxic chemicals
pursuant to subdivision twenty of section two hundred six of the public
health law.
14. The terms "biological agent", "toxin", and "toxic chemical" do not
include any biological agent, toxin or toxic chemical that is in its
naturally occurring environment, if the biological agent, toxin or toxic
chemical has not been cultivated, collected, or otherwise extracted from
its natural source.
15. "Select chemical agent" shall mean a chemical weapon which has
been identified in regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision
twenty of section two hundred six of the public health law.
16. "Select biological agent" shall mean a biological weapon which has
been identified in regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision
twenty-one of section two hundred six of the public health law.
17. "Chemical weapons convention" and "convention" mean the convention
on the prohibition of the development, production, stockpiling and use
of chemical weapons and on their destruction, opened for signature on
January thirteenth, nineteen hundred ninety-three.
Soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the
second degree.
A person commits soliciting or providing support for an act of
terrorism in the second degree when, with intent that material support
or resources will be used, in whole or in part, to plan, prepare, carry
out or aid in either an act of terrorism or the concealment of, or an
escape from, an act of terrorism, he or she raises, solicits, collects
or provides material support or resources.
Soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the second
degree is a class D felony.
Soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the
first degree.
A person commits soliciting or providing support for an act of
terrorism in the first degree when he or she commits the crime of
soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the second
degree and the total value of material support or resources exceeds one
thousand dollars.
Soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism in the first
degree is a class C felony.
Making a terroristic threat.
1. A person is guilty of making a terroristic threat when with intent
to intimidate or coerce a civilian population, influence the policy of a
unit of government by intimidation or coercion, or affect the conduct of
a unit of government by murder, assassination or kidnapping, he or she
threatens to commit or cause to be committed a specified offense and
thereby causes a reasonable expectation or fear of the imminent
commission of such offense.
2. It shall be no defense to a prosecution pursuant to this section
that the defendant did not have the intent or capability of committing
the specified offense or that the threat was not made to a person who
was a subject thereof.
Making a terroristic threat is a class D felony.
Crime of terrorism.
1. A person is guilty of a crime of terrorism when, with intent to
intimidate or coerce a civilian population, influence the policy of a
unit of government by intimidation or coercion, or affect the conduct of
a unit of government by murder, assassination or kidnapping, he or she
commits a specified offense.
2. Sentencing.
(a) When a person is convicted of a crime of terrorism pursuant to
this section, and the specified offense is a class B, C, D or E felony
offense, the crime of terrorism shall be deemed a violent felony
offense.
(b) When a person is convicted of a crime of terrorism pursuant to
this section, and the specified offense is a class C, D or E felony
offense, the crime of terrorism shall be deemed to be one category
higher than the specified offense the defendant committed, or one
category higher than the offense level applicable to the defendant's
conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit the offense, whichever
is applicable.
(c) When a person is convicted of a crime of terrorism pursuant to
this section, and the specified offense is a class B felony offense, the
crime of terrorism shall be deemed a class A-I felony offense and the
sentence imposed upon conviction of such offense shall be in accordance
with section 70.00 of this chapter.
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, when a person is
convicted of a crime of terrorism pursuant to this section, and the
specified offense is a class A-I felony offense, the sentence upon
conviction of such offense shall be life imprisonment without parole;
provided, however, that nothing herein shall preclude or prevent a
sentence of death when the specified offense is murder in the first
degree as defined in section 125.27 of this chapter.
Domestic act of terrorism motivated by hate in the second
degree.
A person is guilty of the crime of domestic act of terrorism motivated
by hate in the second degree when, acting with the intent to cause the
death of, or serious physical injury to, five or more other persons, in
whole or in substantial part because of the perceived race, color,
national origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression,
religion, religious practice, age, disability, or sexual orientation of
such other persons, regardless of whether that belief or perception is
correct, he or she, as part of the same criminal transaction, attempts
to cause the death of, or serious physical injury to, such five or more
persons, provided that the victims are not participants in the criminal
transaction.
Domestic act of terrorism motivated by hate in the second degree is a
class A-I felony.
Domestic act of terrorism motivated by hate in the first
degree.
A person is guilty of the crime of domestic act of terrorism motivated
by hate in the first degree when, acting with the intent to cause the
death of, or serious physical injury to, five or more other persons, in
whole or in substantial part because of the perceived race, color,
national origin, ancestry, gender, gender identity or expression,
religion, religious practice, age, disability, or sexual orientation of
such other person or persons, regardless of whether that belief or
perception is correct, he or she, as part of the same criminal
transaction:
1. causes the death of at least one other person, provided that the
victim or victims are not a participant in the criminal transaction; and
2. causes or attempts to cause the death of four or more additional
other persons, provided that the victims are not a participant in the
criminal transaction; and
3. the defendant was more than eighteen years old at the time of the
commission of the crime.
Domestic act of terrorism motivated by hate in the first degree is a
class A-I felony.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, when a person is convicted
of domestic act of terrorism motivated by hate in the first degree, the
sentence shall be life imprisonment without parole.
Hindering prosecution of terrorism in the second degree.
A person is guilty of hindering prosecution of terrorism in the second
degree when he or she renders criminal assistance to a person who has
committed an act of terrorism, knowing or believing that such person
engaged in conduct constituting an act of terrorism.
Hindering prosecution of terrorism in the second degree is a class C
felony.
Hindering prosecution of terrorism in the first degree.
A person is guilty of hindering prosecution of terrorism in the first
degree when he or she renders criminal assistance to a person who has
committed an act of terrorism that resulted in the death of a person
other than one of the participants, knowing or believing that such
person engaged in conduct constituting an act of terrorism.
Hindering prosecution of terrorism in the first degree is a class B
felony.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon
in the third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a chemical weapon or
biological weapon in the third degree when he or she possesses any
select chemical agent or select biological agent under circumstances
evincing an intent by the defendant to use such weapon to cause serious
physical injury or death to another person.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
third degree is a class C felony.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon
in the second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a chemical weapon or
biological weapon in the second degree when he or she possesses any
chemical weapon or biological weapon with intent to use such weapon to:
1. (a) cause serious physical injury to, or the death of, another
person; and
(b) (i) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(iii) affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination, or kidnapping.
2. cause serious physical injury to, or the death of, more than two
persons.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
second degree is a class B felony.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon
in the first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal possession of a chemical weapon or
biological weapon in the first degree when he or she possesses:
1. any select chemical agent, with intent to use such agent to:
(a) cause serious physical injury to, or the death of, another person;
and
(b) (i) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(iii) affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination, or kidnapping.
2. any select chemical agent, with intent to use such agent to cause
serious physical injury to, or the death of, more than two other
persons; or
3. any select biological agent, with intent to use such agent to cause
serious physical injury to, or the death of, another person.
Criminal possession of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
first degree is a class A-I felony.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
third degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon in the third degree when, under circumstances evincing a depraved
indifference to human life, he or she uses, deploys, releases, or causes
to be used, deployed, or released any select chemical agent or select
biological agent, and thereby creates a grave risk of death or serious
physical injury to another person not a participant in the crime.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the third
degree is a class B felony.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
second degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon in the second degree when he or she uses, deploys, releases, or
causes to be used, deployed, or released, any chemical weapon or
biological weapon, with intent to:
1. cause serious physical injury to, or the death of, another person;
and
2. (a) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(b) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(c) to affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination, or kidnapping.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the second
degree is a class A-II felony.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the
first degree.
A person is guilty of criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological
weapon in the first degree when:
1. with intent to:
(a) cause serious physical injury to, or the death of, another person;
and
(b) (i) intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or
coercion; or
(iii) affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder,
assassination, or kidnapping;
he or she uses, deploys, releases, or causes to be used, deployed, or
released any select chemical agent and thereby causes serious physical
injury to, or the death of, another person who is not a participant in
the crime.
2. with intent to cause serious physical injury to, or the death of,
more than two persons, he or she uses, deploys, releases, or causes to
be used, deployed, or released any select chemical agent and thereby
causes serious physical injury to, or the death of, more than two
persons who are not participants in the crime; or
3. with intent to cause serious physical injury to, or the death of,
another person, he or she uses, deploys, releases, or causes to be used,
deployed, or released any select biological agent and thereby causes
serious physical injury to, or the death of, another person who is not a
participant in the crime.
Criminal use of a chemical weapon or biological weapon in the first
degree is a class A-I felony.
Limitations.
1. The provisions of sections 490.37, 490.40, 490.45, 490.47, 490.50,
and 490.55 of this article shall not apply where the defendant possessed
or used:
(a) any household product generally available for sale to consumers in
this state in the quantity and concentration available for such sale;
(b) a self-defense spray device in accordance with the provisions of
paragraph fourteen of subdivision a of section 265.20 of this chapter;
(c) a chemical weapon solely for a purpose not prohibited under this
chapter, as long as the type and quantity is consistent with such a
purpose; or
(d) a biological agent, toxin, or delivery system solely for
prophylactic, protective, bona fide research, or other peaceful
purposes.
2. For the purposes of this section, the phrase "purposes not
prohibited by this chapter" means the following:
(a) any peaceful purpose related to an industrial, agricultural,
research, medical, or pharmaceutical activity or other peaceful
activity;
(b) any purpose directly related to protection against toxic chemicals
and to protection against chemical weapons;
(c) any military purpose of the United States that is not connected
with the use of a chemical weapon or that is not dependent on the use of
the toxic or poisonous properties of the chemical weapon to cause death
or other harm; and
(d) any law enforcement purpose, including any domestic riot control
purpose and including imposition of capital punishment.
TITLE Y-2 Corrupting the Government
ARTICLE 496 Corrupting the Government
Definitions.
For the purposes of this article, "scheme" means any plan, pattern,
device, contrivance, or course of action.
Corrupting the government in the fourth degree.
A person is guilty of corrupting the government in the fourth degree
when, being a public servant, or acting in concert with a public
servant, he or she engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing
course of conduct with intent to defraud the state or one or more
political subdivisions of the state or one or more governmental
instrumentalities within the state to obtain property, actual services
or other resources, or obtain property, actual services or other
resources from the state, or any political subdivision or governmental
instrumentality of the state by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such
property, actual services or other resources.
Corrupting the government in the fourth degree is a class E felony.
Corrupting the government in the third degree.
A person is guilty of corrupting the government in the third degree
when, being a public servant, or acting in concert with a public
servant, he or she engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing
course of conduct with intent to defraud the state or one or more
political subdivisions of the state or one or more governmental
instrumentalities within the state to obtain property, actual services
or other resources, or obtain property, actual services or other
resources from the state, or any political subdivision or governmental
instrumentality of the state by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such
property, actual services or other resources with a value in excess of
one thousand dollars.
Corrupting the government in the third degree is a class D felony.
Corrupting the government in the second degree.
A person is guilty of corrupting the government in the second degree
when, being a public servant, or acting in concert with a public
servant, he or she engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing
course of conduct with intent to defraud the state or one or more
political subdivisions of the state or one or more governmental
instrumentalities within the state to obtain property, actual services
or other resources, or obtain property, actual services or other
resources from the state, or any political subdivision or governmental
instrumentality of the state by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such
property, actual services or other resources with a value in excess of
twenty thousand dollars.
Corrupting the government in the second degree is a class C felony.
Corrupting the government in the first degree.
A person is guilty of corrupting the government in the first degree
when, being a public servant, or acting in concert with a public
servant, he or she engages in a scheme constituting a systematic ongoing
course of conduct with intent to defraud the state or one or more
political subdivisions of the state or one or more governmental
instrumentalities within the state to obtain property, actual services
or other resources, or to obtain property, actual services or other
resources from the state, or any political subdivision or governmental
instrumentality of the state by false or fraudulent pretenses,
representations or promises, and thereby wrongfully obtains such
property, actual services or other resources with a value in excess of
one hundred thousand dollars.
Corrupting the government in the first degree is a class B felony.
Public corruption.
1. A person commits the crime of public corruption when: (a) (i) being
a public servant he or she commits a specified offense through the use
of his or her public office, or (ii) being a person acting in concert
with such public servant he or she commits a specified offense, and (b)
the state or any political subdivision thereof or any governmental
instrumentality within the state is the owner of the property.
2. A "specified offense" is an offense defined by any of the following
provisions of this chapter: section 155.25 (petit larceny); section
155.30 (grand larceny in the fourth degree); section 155.35 (grand
larceny in the third degree); section 155.40 (grand larceny in the
second degree); section 155.42 (grand larceny in the first degree);
section 190.60 (scheme to defraud in the second degree); or section
190.65 (scheme to defraud in the first degree).
Sentencing.
When a person is convicted of the crime of public corruption pursuant
to section 496.06 of this article and the specified offense is a class
C, D or E felony, the crime shall be deemed to be one category higher
than the specified offense the defendant committed, or one category
higher than the offense level applicable to the defendant's conviction
for an attempt or conspiracy to commit a specified offense, whichever is
applicable.
TITLE Z Laws Repealed; Time of Taking Effect
ARTICLE 500 Laws Repealed; Time of Taking Effect
Laws repealed.
Chapter eighty-eight of the laws of nineteen hundred nine, entitled
"An act providing for the punishment of crime, constituting chapter
forty of the consolidated laws," and all acts amendatory thereof and
supplemental thereto, constituting the penal law as heretofore in force,
are hereby repealed.
Time of taking effect.
This act shall take effect September first, nineteen hundred
sixty-seven.